2A651 CDC 2
Unit Review Exercise 2a651 cdc 2 practice test.
- 1.
1. (201) “An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body.” This statement is
- A.
Bernoulli’s principle.
- B.
Newton’s first law of motion.
- C.
Newton’s second law of motion.
- D.
Newton’s third law of motion.
Correct Answer
C. Newton’s second law of motion. -
- 2.
2. (201) Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passes through?
- A.
Elbow.
- B.
Straight.
- C.
Divergent.
- D.
Convergent.
Correct Answer
C. Divergent. -
- 3.
3. (201) “The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift” is best described by
- A.
Bernoulli’s principle.
- B.
Newton’s first law of motion
- C.
Newton’s second law of motion.
- D.
Newton’s third law of motion.
Correct Answer
A. Bernoulli’s principle. -
- 4.
4. (202) The tendency of an object at rest to remain at rest and the tendency of an object in motion to continue its motion in a straight line at the same speed is called
- A.
Energy.
- B.
Inertia.
- C.
Friction.
- D.
Potential.
Correct Answer
B. Inertia. -
- 5.
5. (203) Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?
- A.
Turbine.
- B.
Diffuser.
- C.
Compressor.
- D.
Combustion.
Correct Answer
D. Combustion. -
- 6.
6. (203) Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
- A.
Turbine.
- B.
Exhaust.
- C.
Diffuser.
- D.
Combustion.
Correct Answer
A. Turbine. -
- 7.
7. (204) Which method of producing thrust does a turboprop engine use?
- A.
Accelerating a large mass of air by a small amount.
- B.
Moving a small quantity of air through a large velocity change.
- C.
Using the same working fluid for propulsive force as that used within the engine.
- D.
Using only the energy expended through the exhaust nozzle to propel the aircraft forward.
Correct Answer
A. Accelerating a large mass of air by a small amount. -
- 8.
8. (204) Which type of horsepower is delivered to the propeller for useful work?
- A.
Brake.
- B.
Indicated.
- C.
Frictional.
- D.
Equivalent shaft.
Correct Answer
A. Brake. -
- 9.
9. (205) The heat content per pound of kerosene is how many Btu’s?
- A.
10,500.
- B.
15,000.
- C.
18,500.
- D.
40,000.
Correct Answer
C. 18,500. -
- 10.
10. (206) To measure barometric pressure, you would use a
- A.
Potentiometer.
- B.
Psychrometer.
- C.
Pyrometer.
- D.
Barometer.
Correct Answer
D. Barometer. -
- 11.
11. (206) What is the sea-level atmospheric pressure at “standard day” conditions?
- A.
13.5 psi.
- B.
14.7 psi.
- C.
49.94 psi.
- D.
40.55 psi.
Correct Answer
B. 14.7 psi. -
- 12.
12. (206) What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure?
- A.
Increases pressure.
- B.
Decreases pressure.
- C.
Has no effect on pressure.
- D.
Results in pressure fluctuations.
Correct Answer
A. Increases pressure. -
- 13.
13. (207) Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?
- A.
P&D valve.
- B.
Fuel pump.
- C.
Fuel control.
- D.
Fuel nozzles.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel control. -
- 14.
14. (208) What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
- A.
Flameholder.
- B.
Combustion chamber.
- C.
Turbine wheel blades.
- D.
Turbine stator.
Correct Answer
D. Turbine stator. -
- 15.
15. (208) When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel
- A.
Diffuser.
- B.
Jet nozzle.
- C.
Combustion chamber.
- D.
Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm).
Correct Answer
D. Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm). -
- 16.
16. (209) The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and
- A.
Turbo.
- B.
Turbine.
- C.
Exhaust.
- D.
Diffuser.
Correct Answer
B. Turbine. -
- 17.
17. (209) Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to
- A.
Sliding-vane air compressors.
- B.
Piston pump air compressors.
- C.
Roots air compressors.
- D.
Turbo-superchargers.
Correct Answer
A. Sliding-vane air compressors. -
- 18.
18. (210) The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are
- A.
Rotational and centrifugal.
- B.
Rotational and tangential.
- C.
Tangential and centrifugal.
- D.
Tangential and radial.
Correct Answer
A. Rotational and centrifugal. -
- 19.
19. (210) A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller
- A.
Has two matching plates.
- B.
Has a lightweight design.
- C.
Is forged as a single unit.
- D.
Is constructed in rows of blades and stators.
Correct Answer
C. Is forged as a single unit. -
- 20.
20. (210) The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to
- A.
Act as a vibration damper.
- B.
Allow cooling air to the turbine.
- C.
Provide a passage for lubricating oil.
- D.
Provide a passage for the main fuel supply.
Correct Answer
D. Provide a passage for the main fuel supply. -
- 21.
21. (211) Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to
- A.
Direct air and increase pressure.
- B.
Direct hot gases rearward.
- C.
Increase backup pressure.
- D.
Prolong compressor life.
Correct Answer
A. Direct air and increase pressure. -
- 22.
22. (211) In a dual-spool compressor, rpm of the N2 compressor are determined by the
- A.
Starter.
- B.
Fuel pump.
- C.
Fuel control.
- D.
Low-pressure turbine.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel control. -
- 23.
23. (212) Which facet of engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling?
- A.
Gold plating on the plug.
- B.
Split electrode on the plug.
- C.
Ceramic coating on the plug.
- D.
Directing air around the plug.
Correct Answer
D. Directing air around the plug. -
- 24.
24. (213) The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to
- A.
Cool the burner surfaces.
- B.
Operate pneumatic accessories.
- C.
Decrease the mass of exhaust gases.
- D.
Increase air in the compressor section.
Correct Answer
A. Cool the burner surfaces. -
- 25.
25. (213) Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is
- A.
Returned to the fuel control by tubes.
- B.
Drained overboard by a drain system.
- C.
Burned on the next start attempt.
- D.
Allowed to evaporate.
Correct Answer
B. Drained overboard by a drain system. -
- 26.
26. (213) The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the
- A.
Fuel nozzle.
- B.
Transition liner.
- C.
Combustion chamber outer case.
- D.
Combustion chamber crossover tubes.
Correct Answer
D. Combustion chamber crossover tubes. -
- 27.
27. (213) What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?
- A.
Pressure-atomizing.
- B.
Fuel-blasting.
- C.
Fuel ejector.
- D.
Fuel tube.
Correct Answer
A. Pressure-atomizing. -
- 28.
28. (213) Swirl-type fuel nozzles usually are used to provide what type of flame speed?
- A.
Low.
- B.
High.
- C.
Medium.
- D.
Medium-high.
Correct Answer
B. High. -
- 29.
29. (214) Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and
- A.
Fir tree.
- B.
Shrouded.
- C.
Shrouded.
- D.
Reaction-impulse.
Correct Answer
D. Reaction-impulse. -
- 30.
30. (214) What is placed in front of the rotating blades in an engine turbine section?
- A.
Rotating vanes.
- B.
Inlet guide vanes.
- C.
Turbine rotating nozzles.
- D.
Turbine nozzle vane assembly.
Correct Answer
D. Turbine nozzle vane assembly. -
- 31.
31. (215) Why is the “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc preferred?
- A.
There is a significant temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades.
- B.
This method aids in preventing horizontal movement of the blades.
- C.
This method aids in preventing axial movement of the bucket.
- D.
There is more blade tip shake during engine operation.
Correct Answer
A. There is a significant temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades. -
- 32.
32. (216) The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
- A.
Fan duct.
- B.
Jet nozzle.
- C.
Jet nozzle.
- D.
Bifurcated duct.
Correct Answer
B. Jet nozzle. -
- 33.
33. (216) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to
- A.
Swirl exhaust gas-flow.
- B.
Equalize exhaust gas-flow.
- C.
Straighten exhaust gas-flow.
- D.
Modulate exhaust gas-flow.
Correct Answer
C. Straighten exhaust gas-flow. -
- 34.
34. (217) The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to
- A.
Increase engine rpm.
- B.
Reduce pressure drop.
- C.
Augment basic engine thrust.
- D.
Increase EGT.
Correct Answer
C. Augment basic engine thrust. -
- 35.
35. (218) How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
B. Three. -
- 36.
36. (218) When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they
- A.
Wear faster.
- B.
Attract dirt.
- C.
Cause oxidation.
- D.
Get soaked with sweat.
Correct Answer
D. Get soaked with sweat. -
- 37.
37. (218) Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should
- A.
Separate the halves.
- B.
Apply a preservative.
- C.
Perform a spin check.
- D.
Remove the preservative coating.
Correct Answer
D. Remove the preservative coating. -
- 38.
38. (219) The bearing removal tools that are most commonly used include
- A.
Drift pipes and hammers.
- B.
Bearing pullers and hammers.
- C.
Drift pipes and arbor presses.
- D.
Arbor presses and bearing pullers.
Correct Answer
D. Arbor presses and bearing pullers. -
- 39.
39. (220) Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?
- A.
Nicks.
- B.
Galling.
- C.
Grooves.
- D.
Scratches.
Correct Answer
A. Nicks. -
- 40.
40. (220) Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material becoming lodged between the rollers?
- A.
Pits.
- B.
Bands.
- C.
Grooves.
- D.
Brinelling.
Correct Answer
C. Grooves. -
- 41.
41. (220) Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by
- A.
Pits.
- B.
Bands.
- C.
Misalignment.
- D.
Roughness of the metal.
Correct Answer
D. Roughness of the metal. -
- 42.
42. (221) The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is
- A.
Hot-oil bath.
- B.
Portable heater.
- C.
Bearing furnace.
- D.
Hydraulic oil bath.
Correct Answer
A. Hot-oil bath. -
- 43.
43. (222) Which component reduces the engine rotor speed to the rpm required for accessories?
- A.
Step motors.
- B.
Reduction motor.
- C.
Reduction geartrain.
- D.
Gear case drive assembly.
Correct Answer
C. Reduction geartrain. -
- 44.
44. (223) On an F108 engine, the radial drive shaft connects the core engine to the
- A.
Hydraulic actuator motor.
- B.
Accessory drive assembly.
- C.
Variable bleed valves.
- D.
Fan booster rotor.
Correct Answer
B. Accessory drive assembly. -
- 45.
45. (224) The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and 45. (224) The major sections of a turboprop engine are the power unit, torquemeter assembly, and
- A.
Turbine assembly.
- B.
Compressor assembly.
- C.
Combustion assembly.
- D.
RGB assembly.
Correct Answer
D. RGB assembly. -
- 46.
46. (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, how many stages of reduction are in the RGB’s main reduction gear train?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
B. 2. -
- 47.
47. (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, what is the overall reduction ratio of the RGB’s main reduction gear train?
- A.
.3125 to 1.
- B.
4.333 to 1.
- C.
13.54 to 1.
- D.
13,820 to 1.
Correct Answer
C. 13.54 to 1. -
- 48.
48. (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, there are mounting pads on the aft side of the accessory drive for the fuel control, fuel pump, and
- A.
Speed-sensitive valve.
- B.
Engine main oil pump.
- C.
Speed-sensitive control.
- D.
External scavenge oil pump.
Correct Answer
D. External scavenge oil pump. -
- 49.
49. (224) On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assembly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?
- A.
Diffuser.
- B.
Compressor rotor.
- C.
Compressor housing.
- D.
Compressor air inlet housing.
Correct Answer
A. Diffuser. -
- 50.
50. (225) In the T56 engine, which RGB component rotates at the same speed as the power unit rotors?
- A.
Sun gear.
- B.
Ring gear.
- C.
Main drive gear.
- D.
Pinion input gear.
Correct Answer
D. Pinion input gear. -
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Nov 17, 2011Quiz Edited by
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