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Paricutin Test 2 Ch.4-8

61 Questions
Volcano Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Lava flows are typically finer grained than intrusive igneous rocks. Why?
    • A. 

      Intrusive magma is cooler because it is well insulated by the surrounding rock.

    • B. 

      Intrusive magma flows onto the Earth's surface and cools very slowly, allowing many small mineral grains to grow.

    • C. 

      The extrusive magma cools quickly so the mineral grains do not have time to grow.

    • D. 

      The extrusive magma, because it is deep below the surface, cools very slowly, producing very small mineral grains.

  • 2. 
    What does Bowen’s Reaction Series describe?
    • A. 

      The pressures that different minerals are formed in metamorphic rocks

    • B. 

      Which minerals are recrystallized in a sedimentary rock

    • C. 

      The temperatures at which different minerals crystallize out of a melt

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 3. 
    Which of the following rocks is likely to have the most quartz within it and why?
    • A. 

      Granite; intrusive rock that formed from cooling of relatively high silica magma.

    • B. 

      Rhyolite; extrusive rock that formed from cooling of relatively low silica magma.

    • C. 

      Diorite; intrusive rock that formed from the cooling of relatively intermediate silica magma.

    • D. 

      Basalt; extrusive rock that formed from cooling of relatively low silica lava.

  • 4. 
    What is the most important factor for whether magma cools slowly or quickly?
    • A. 

      Temperature of the environment – lower T = slower magma cooling.

    • B. 

      The presence or absence of volatiles (gases) – more gases = slower magma cooling.

    • C. 

      Temperature of the environment – higher T = slower magma cooling.

    • D. 

      Pressure of the environment – lower P = slower magma cooling.

  • 5. 
    Igneous rocks are produced largely by ________.
    • A. 

      The changing of a rock from one set of minerals to another

    • B. 

      The compaction of metamorphic rocks

    • C. 

      The melting of sedimentary rocks

    • D. 

      The cooling of magma

    • E. 

      Both c and d are correct.

  • 6. 
    Glassy igneous rocks form when the magma ________.
    • A. 

      Cools so fast that mineral grains cannot crystallize and grow

    • B. 

      Cools so slowly that only one mineral is formed

    • C. 

      Is a rhyolitic type

    • D. 

      Cools at an extremely high temperature

  • 7. 
    Which of the following igneous rocks exhibit aphanitic texture?
    • A. 

      Granite; gabbro

    • B. 

      Rhyolite, gabbro

    • C. 

      Andesite; rhyolite

    • D. 

      Basalt; diorite

  • 8. 
    What do pumice and obsidian have in common?
    • A. 

      Basaltic composition

    • B. 

      Phaneritic texture

    • C. 

      Ultramafic compostion

    • D. 

      Glassy texture

  • 9. 
    Why would a plume of solid silicate rock rising slowly from deep in the mantle begin melting as it neared the base of the lithosphere?
    • A. 

      The rock heats up and expands at lower pressures, causing it to liquefy.

    • B. 

      Temperatures remain high as lowered pressures decrease melting temperatures.

    • C. 

      The lowered pressures cause rapid heat loss accompanied by melting.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 10. 
    Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?
    • A. 

      Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle.

    • B. 

      Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks.

    • C. 

      Magmas are mainly liquid and contain dissolved fluids and gases such as water; most are less dense than the adjacent solid rock.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 11. 
    _______ magma is the most abundant type erupted at oceanic spreading centers.
    • A. 

      Pegmatitic

    • B. 

      Basaltic

    • C. 

      Rhyolitic

    • D. 

      Granitic

  • 12. 
    What volcanic events formed Crater Lake, OR? When did it happen?
    • A. 

      The crater of a large, extinct cinder cone filled with water; 5 million years ago

    • B. 

      Caldera collapse followed major ash and pyroclastic-flow eruptions; 6,000 years ago

    • C. 

      Landslides and volcanic mudflows dammed the Mazama River; 500 years ago

    • D. 

      A powerful explosion blew away the top of a stratovolcano: 10 million years ago

  • 13. 
    The Columbia Plateau in Washington and Oregon is_______.
    • A. 

      A thick stack of welded-tuff layers

    • B. 

      A field of large stratovolcanoes

    • C. 

      A flood basalt plateau

    • D. 

      A caldera filled with rhyolitic lava flows

  • 14. 
    The 1991 Pinatubo eruption in the Philippines caused brilliantly colored sunrises and sunsets to be seen for the next few years. What caused this phenomenon?
    • A. 

      The eruption added large amounts of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

    • B. 

      The eruptive cloud destroyed parts of the Earth's protective ozone layer.

    • C. 

      Radioactive atoms blown into the atmosphere glowed red as they decayed.

    • D. 

      Sulfur dioxide and other erupted gases formed aerosols in the stratosphere.

  • 15. 
    A_______ is a intrusive, igneous rock body that is tabular and concordant.
    • A. 

      Dike

    • B. 

      Stock

    • C. 

      Batholith

    • D. 

      Sill

  • 16. 
    Which type of basaltic lava has a fairly smooth, unfragmented ropey surface?
    • A. 

      Aa

    • B. 

      Scoria

    • C. 

      Pahoehoe

    • D. 

      Pegmatitic

  • 17. 
    Which are the four most important physical processes of mechanical weathering?
    • A. 

      Frost wedging, exfoliation, biological activity, dissolution

    • B. 

      Exfoliation, thermal expansion, biological activity, hydrolysis

    • C. 

      Exfoliation, frost wedging, expansion, hydrolysis

    • D. 

      Frost wedging, unloading expansion, thermal expansion, biological activity

  • 18. 
    Which best describes the “soil profile” and its relevance to weathering?
    • A. 

      Soil-forming processes occur from the bottom-up. This causes vertical variations in soil composition, texture, structure, and color.

    • B. 

      Soil-forming processes occur from top-down. This causes vertical variations in soil composition, texture, structure, and color.

    • C. 

      Soil-forming processes occur in single layers at a time. This causes each layer to appear differently in composition, texture, structure, and color.

    • D. 

      Soil-forming processes occur laterally in the same layer, so different vertical profiles allows geologists to determine that variation from place to place.

  • 19. 
    Why is the humus layer typically thicker in a cool, temperate, forest soil than in a tropical rainforest soil?
    • A. 

      Less humus is produced in the tropical rainforest because the B horizon is so poorly developed.

    • B. 

      Less humus is produced in the cool, temperate forest but the rate of decay and oxidation is slower than in a tropical rainforest.

    • C. 

      More humus is produced in the tropical rainforest, but it is quickly washed away by the heavy rains.

    • D. 

      In a tropical rainforest, the forest-floor litter is often burned during the dry season.

  • 20. 
    In terrain with steep hill slopes, which crop and cultivation technique will minimize soil erosion?
    • A. 

      Corn; rows trending straight down the slope, frequent cultivation.

    • B. 

      Apples; land between the trees is planted in grass and not cultivated.

    • C. 

      Winter wheat; after the harvest, the field is plowed and left idle until next fall.

    • D. 

      Beans; rows are spaced wider than on a level field.

  • 21. 
    In the Rocky Mountain region of the United States, north-facing slopes (downhill direction is toward the north) are typically more moist and heavily forested than south-facing slopes. Why?
    • A. 

      North-facing slopes receive more sunlight in the summer; snow melts faster and more soil moisture is available for the trees.

    • B. 

      South-facing slopes receive more moisture and sunlight; rock weathering is slower.

    • C. 

      North-facing slopes receive about the same amount of precipitation as south-facing slopes; less moisture evaporates from north-facing slopes.

    • D. 

      South-facing slopes receive less moisture, yet rock weathering is faster.

  • 22. 
    Which statement concerning mechanical weathering is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Reduces the grain sizes of rock particles

    • B. 

      Allows for faster rates of chemical weathering

    • C. 

      Is important in the formation of talus slopes

    • D. 

      Involves a change in the mineral composition of the weathered material

  • 23. 
    Which is the greater erosive force: wind or water?
    • A. 

      Always wind

    • B. 

      Always water

    • C. 

      Usually wind unless there have been very heavy rainstorms in the area

    • D. 

      Usually water unless it is very dry in the region

    • E. 

      Both are approximately equal in terms of power globally.

  • 24. 
    A sedimentary facies is the sedimentary rock’s ________.
    • A. 

      Crystal structure of each grain

    • B. 

      Temperature at which it was formed

    • C. 

      Environment of deposition

    • D. 

      Method of turning into a metamorphic rock

  • 25. 
    Which of the following sedimentary rocks would you expect to have originally been deposited by fast-moving streams?
    • A. 

      Mudstone

    • B. 

      Oolitic limestone

    • C. 

      Graywacke

    • D. 

      Conglomerate

  • 26. 
    ________ is the most common type of chemical sedimentary rock.
    • A. 

      Limestone

    • B. 

      Sandstone

    • C. 

      Chert

    • D. 

      Phosphate rock

  • 27. 
    Which are sedimentary rocks?
    • A. 

      Shale and slate

    • B. 

      Granite and limestone

    • C. 

      Schist and sandstone

    • D. 

      Conglomerate and mudstone

    • E. 

      Phyllite and siltstone

  • 28. 
    How do you classify sedimentary rocks?
    • A. 

      Grain size and cooling rate

    • B. 

      Color and amount of silica

    • C. 

      Texture and grain size

    • D. 

      Texture and composition

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 29. 
    Oolitic limestone is most likely to form in what type of depositional environment?
    • A. 

      Quiet, muddy lagoons and bays

    • B. 

      Shallow, clear marine waters with vigorous current activity

    • C. 

      Deep marine waters below most wave action

    • D. 

      Acidic, organic-rich waters in freshwater swamps and bogs

  • 30. 
    Which sedimentary rock consists of clay and fine silt size particles?
    • A. 

      Sandstone

    • B. 

      Shale

    • C. 

      Conglomerate

    • D. 

      Breccia

  • 31. 
    Which of the following sedimentary features can each be used to determine paleocurrent directions?
    • A. 

      Fossils and mudcracks

    • B. 

      Ripple marks and cross-stratification

    • C. 

      Grain size sorting and ripple marks

    • D. 

      Mudcracks and ripple marks

  • 32. 
    In which setting would regional metamorphism be most likely?
    • A. 

      At shallow depths below an oceanic ridge or rift zone

    • B. 

      At shallow depths along major transform faults in the continental crust

    • C. 

      At great depths in the crust where two continents are colliding

    • D. 

      At shallow depths beneath the seafloor where water pressures are immense

  • 33. 
    Why does “an increase in” minerals that did not exist in the “parent rock” form during metamorphism of a rock (e.g., garnet in schist)?
    • A. 

      No T and P conditions cause spontaneous weathering and destruction of the rock’s minerals, giving way to new ones

    • B. 

      An increase in T and P conditions cause a change in the stability in the rock’s minerals

    • C. 

      Similar” T and P conditions cause no change in the stability in the rock’s minerals

    • D. 

      Any of these

  • 34. 
    During metamorphism, what is the major effect of chemically active fluids?
    • A. 

      Increase the pressures in deeply buried, regional-metamorphic zones

    • B. 

      Aid in the movement of dissolved silicate constituents and facilitate growth of the mineral grains

    • C. 

      Prevent partial melting so solid rocks can undergo very high temperature regional metamorphism

    • D. 

      Facilitate the formation of schistosity and gneissic banding in hornfels and slates

  • 35. 
    Which response best represents the conditions of contact metamorphism?
    • A. 

      High pressure, deep burial, and temperatures raised by the Earth’s internal heat

    • B. 

      Low pressures, shallow burial, and heat supplied by a nearby magma body

    • C. 

      Heat generated by shearing and mechanical movements along faults

    • D. 

      Shallow depths, temperatures, and pressures so high that the rock partially melts

  • 36. 
    Which response lists the rocks in increasing grade of metamorphism?
    • A. 

      Schist, slate, phyllite, gneiss

    • B. 

      Phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist

    • C. 

      Gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite

    • D. 

      Slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss

  • 37. 
    If you knew the metamorphic facies of a metamorphic rock (example: Zeolite), what can you deduce about the rock?
    • A. 

      Pressure and temperature of formation

    • B. 

      What minerals it has

    • C. 

      Where in the Earth you could expect to find it

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 38. 
    A________ forms at very high pressures and moderately low temperatures associated with subduction of oceanic crust and sediments.
    • A. 

      Biotite marble

    • B. 

      Blueschist

    • C. 

      Migmatite

    • D. 

      Mylonite

  • 39. 
    What term describes the zone of contact metamorphism surrounding an intrusive magma body?
    • A. 

      Aureole

    • B. 

      Oracle

    • C. 

      Auricle

    • D. 

      Aura

  • 40. 
    Frost wedging is the major weathering process contributing to the formation of which regolith material?
    • A. 

      Mature pedalfers

    • B. 

      Talus slopes

    • C. 

      C soil horizons

    • D. 

      Tropical laterites

  • 41. 
    What two factors speed up rates of chemical reaction and weathering in rocks and soils?
    • A. 

      Low temps; very dry

    • B. 

      Warm temps; vert moist

    • C. 

      Low temps; very moist

    • D. 

      High temps; very dry

  • 42. 
    Which of the following best describes sets of fractures in relatively fresh bedrock, such as granite, that are roughly parallel to the land surface?
    • A. 

      Hydrolytic failures

    • B. 

      Columnar joints

    • C. 

      Thermal

    • D. 

      Sheeting fractures

  • 43. 
    Assuming that water filling a crack in a rock undergoes cycles of freezing and melting. Which of the following statements is true?
    • A. 

      Water expands as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart

    • B. 

      Water expands as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be pushed apart

    • C. 

      Water shrinks as it melts, causing the crack walls to be pulled closer together

    • D. 

      Water shrinks as it freezes, causing the crack walls to be drawn closer together

  • 44. 
    ____, a common mineral found in igneous rocks, is the most abundant mineral in detrital sedimentary rocks.
    • A. 

      Biotite

    • B. 

      Calcite

    • C. 

      Quartz

    • D. 

      Orthoclase

  • 45. 
    Detrital grains of which minerals are extremely rare in detrital sediments? Why?
    • A. 

      Clays; they are rare in soils and regoliths

    • B. 

      Quartz; it is very hard and soluble

    • C. 

      Feldspar; they occur only in granites

    • D. 

      Calcites; it is soft and relatively soluble

  • 46. 
    What platy, parallel, mineral grains are the most visual aspect of foliated metamorphic rocks?
    • A. 

      Micas

    • B. 

      Quartz

    • C. 

      Carbonates

    • D. 

      Feldspar

  • 47. 
    ____ forms from the metamorphism of limestone or dolostone
    • A. 

      Quartzite

    • B. 

      Marble

    • C. 

      Migmatite

    • D. 

      Amphibolite

  • 48. 
    ___ is characterized by segregation of light-and dark-colored minerals into thin layers or bands.
    • A. 

      Granitic gneiss

    • B. 

      Slate

    • C. 

      Garnet hornfels

    • D. 

      Quartzite

  • 49. 
    An Unconformity is a buried -
    • A. 

      Fault or fracture with older rocks above and younger rocks below

    • B. 

      Surface of erosion with older strata above and younger strata below

    • C. 

      Fault or fracture with younger strata above and older strata below

    • D. 

      Surface of erosion separating younger strata above from older strata below

  • 50. 
    The radioactive isotopes Uranium-238, Uranium-235, and Thorium-232 eventually decay to different, stable, daughter isotopes of -
    • A. 

      Lead

    • B. 

      Aragon

    • C. 

      Iron

    • D. 

      Strontium

  • 51. 
    What fundamental concept states that in a horizontal sequence of conformable sedimentary strata, each higher bed is younger than the bed below it?
    • A. 

      Law of superposition

    • B. 

      Theory of correlative deposition

    • C. 

      Theory of supersition

    • D. 

      Law or original correleation

  • 52. 
    The ____ is the idea or concept that ancient life forms succeeded each other in a definite, evolutionary pattern and that the contained assemblage of fossils can determine geologic ages of strata?
    • A. 

      Law of fossil regression

    • B. 

      Principle of cross correlation

    • C. 

      Principle of faunal succession

    • D. 

      Law or correlative indexing

  • 53. 
    ____ refers to the process of fossilization where the internal cavities and pores of the original organism are filled with precipitated mineral matter.
    • A. 

      Carbonization

    • B. 

      Replacement

    • C. 

      Petrification

    • D. 

      Impression

  • 54. 
    As the rate of cooling increases, the size of the crystals that form __________.
    • A. 

      increases

    • B. 

      decreases

    • C. 

      Is not affected

    • D. 

      None of these

  • 55. 
    Sedimentary rocks compose approximately _______ percent of Earth's outermost 10 miles.
    • A. 

      5%

    • B. 

      15%

    • C. 

      30%

    • D. 

      50%

  • 56. 
    This dense, nonfoliated metamorphic rock is produced most often from sandstone.
    • A. 

      Phyllite

    • B. 

      Mica schist

    • C. 

      Quartzite

    • D. 

      Marble

  • 57. 
    ____________ is a major dissolved volatile constituent in both magmas and volcanic gases?
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Carbon monoxide

    • C. 

      Hydrogen chloride

    • D. 

      Methane

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is associated with deep mantle hot spots?
    • A. 

      Vesuvius and the other volcanoes of Italy

    • B. 

      The volcanoes of Hawaii and Yellowstone National Park

    • C. 

      The very young cinder cones scattered across the southwestern United States

    • D. 

      Mt. St. Helens and other volcanoes of the Cascade Mountains

  • 59. 
    The most violent volcanic activity is associated with __________.
    • A. 

      fissure eruptions

    • B. 

      Shield volcanoes

    • C. 

      Cinder cones

    • D. 

      Composite cones

  • 60. 
    Kilauea is an example of a __________.
    • A. 

      shield volcano

    • B. 

      Cinder cone

    • C. 

      Lava dome

    • D. 

      Volcanic neck

  • 61. 
    Paricutin is an example of a __________
    • A. 

      shield volcano

    • B. 

      Cinder cone

    • C. 

      Lava dome

    • D. 

      Volcanic neck