Security Forces Journeyman Vol 2 Questions

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Security Forces Journeyman Vol 2 Questions - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

    • A.

      Enhance our role and understanding of the model

    • B.

      Create a better visual effect of the model

    • C.

      Support force awareness

    • D.

      Minimize mistakes

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhance our role and understanding of the model
    Explanation
    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to enhance our role and understanding of the model. By incorporating color, the model becomes more visually engaging and easier to comprehend. It helps to differentiate between different levels or stages of force, making it clearer for individuals to interpret and apply the model appropriately. Additionally, the use of color can also convey emotions or intensity associated with each level of force, further enhancing our understanding of the model's implications and potential outcomes.

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  • 2. 

    You attempt to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met you verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take you weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the UFM is used?

    • A.

      Complaint

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm)

    Correct Answer
    D. Assaultive (serious bodily harm)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Assaultive (serious bodily harm). In this scenario, the solicitor not only verbally threatens the person by saying "I'll kill you," but also physically attempts to take their weapon. This action demonstrates a clear intent to cause serious bodily harm, indicating an assaultive behavior at the highest level.

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  • 3. 

    What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called?

    • A.

      Tools

    • B.

      Tactics

    • C.

      Timing

    • D.

      Techniques

    Correct Answer
    A. Tools
    Explanation
    The mechanical, physical or mental resources used to promote or gain compliance are referred to as tools. These tools can include various strategies, methods, or resources that are utilized to influence or persuade others to comply with a certain request or action. These tools can range from persuasive techniques, negotiation skills, or even physical resources that can be used to facilitate compliance.

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  • 4. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • A.

      Recovery of nuclear weapons

    • B.

      Keep someone from breaking into a house

    • C.

      Protect others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    • D.

      Protect yourself from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep someone from breaking into a house
    Explanation
    Using deadly force to keep someone from breaking into a house would not be authorized because it does not involve protecting oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm. Deadly force is typically only justified in situations where there is a direct threat to life or severe harm. While protecting property is important, it does not typically warrant the use of deadly force.

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  • 5. 

    You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M-4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, selector weapon on

    • A.

      “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • B.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      “SAFE,” and the finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    A. “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "SAFE," and the finger not in the trigger guard. This is because when encountering an armed adversary, it is important to prioritize safety and minimize the risk of accidental discharge. By keeping the selector weapon on "SAFE" and the finger outside the trigger guard, the soldier ensures that the rifle is not ready to fire and reduces the chance of an unintentional discharge. This allows for better control and decision-making in a potentially dangerous situation.

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  • 6. 

    You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holder. With the flap open

    • A.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated backward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked and finger in the trigger guard

    • B.

      Sentry lock engaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard

    • C.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer cocked, and finger in the trigger guard

    • D.

      Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    D. Sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not in the trigger guard
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because it follows the proper procedure for responding to an actual incident with an M9 pistol. The sentry lock should be disengaged and the hood should be rotated forward. The shooting hand should be on the pistol grip, and the hammer should not be in the trigger guard. This ensures that the pistol is ready to be used if necessary, but also maintains safety by keeping the finger outside of the trigger guard and the hammer not cocked.

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  • 7. 

      What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?

    • A.

      Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise

    • B.

      Leave headlights on, step out of the vehicle, and assume the prone position

    • C.

      Turn off headlights, set parking brake, and turn on dome light

    • D.

      Leave engine running, and place hands on dash board palms up

    Correct Answer
    A. Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise. This command is given to ensure the safety of the driver and occupants during a vehicle challenge. By placing their hands on the headliner, they are less likely to interfere with any potential hazards or make sudden movements that could cause accidents or injuries.

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  • 8. 

    You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by

    • A.

      Locking both handcuffs after applying them on the suspect

    • B.

      Applying the handcuffs very tightly to restrict movement

    • C.

      Looping the cuffs through the front of the belt below the small of the back

    • D.

      Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back

    Correct Answer
    D. Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back
    Explanation
    Looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back prevents the suspect from stepping through the handcuffs. This method creates a secure connection between the handcuffs and the suspect's body, making it difficult for them to manipulate or remove the restraints. By looping the cuffs through the belt, it adds an extra layer of security and restricts the suspect's movement, ensuring they cannot escape from the handcuffs.

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  • 9. 

    For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be

    • A.

      Complete and simple

    • B.

      Systematic and simple

    • C.

      Complete and thorough

    • D.

      Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    D. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important for the process to be systematic and thorough. This means that the search should be organized and methodical, ensuring that all relevant information is gathered and examined. Additionally, the search should be comprehensive and extensive, leaving no stone unturned. This approach ensures that all necessary information is obtained and increases the likelihood of finding accurate and reliable results.

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  • 10. 

    What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?

    • A.

      Wall

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Standing

    • D.

      Kneeling

    Correct Answer
    B. Prone
    Explanation
    Prone search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions because it provides the searcher with a lower profile, making it more difficult for the suspect to detect their presence. Being in a prone position also offers better stability and control, allowing the searcher to move more cautiously and effectively in dangerous situations. Additionally, the prone position provides better cover and concealment, reducing the risk of being detected or targeted by the suspect.

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  • 11. 

    In which portion of the UFM phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (seriously bodily harm)

    Correct Answer
    B. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the UFM phase, Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART) are expected to be used in the portion where the individual is resistant (active). This means that the person is actively resisting but not causing bodily harm or serious bodily harm.

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  • 12. 

    To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly trap the suspect’s hand by grabbing the suspect’s arm

    • A.

      Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • B.

      Above the elbow, your pals down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • C.

      Below the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    • D.

      Above the elbow, your palms up, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest

    Correct Answer
    A. Below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest
    Explanation
    To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, the correct way is to trap the suspect's hand by grabbing the suspect's arm below the elbow. The palms should be facing down, thumbs should be down, and the suspect's hand should be trapped on your chest. This position ensures a secure hold on the suspect's hand and provides leverage to control the situation effectively.

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  • 13. 

    The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms

    • A.

      Out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s groin area

    • B.

      Out slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s groin area

    • C.

      Out slightly. Crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet

    • D.

      In slightly, crouch down, and don’t look at the suspect’s feet

    Correct Answer
    C. Out slightly. Crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet
    Explanation
    When facing a rear grab hold, the second step is to create a fist, flex your arms slightly, and crouch down. By looking at the suspect's feet, you maintain awareness of their movements and can potentially identify any potential threats or escape opportunities. Looking at the suspect's groin area may not provide useful information and could distract from the situation at hand. Therefore, the correct answer is to look at the suspect's feet.

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  • 14. 

    What are two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?

    • A.

      Suspect’s position and attitude

    • B.

      Your position and your attitude

    • C.

      Assisting members’ over watch position

    • D.

      Your position ad available cover and concealment

    Correct Answer
    B. Your position and your attitude
    Explanation
    When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, two important factors to remember are your position and your attitude. Your position refers to your physical location in relation to the suspect, ensuring that you have a strategic advantage and can maintain control of the situation. Your attitude refers to your demeanor and behavior, remaining calm, assertive, and professional to effectively communicate and handle the suspect. Both factors are crucial in ensuring a successful and safe apprehension.

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  • 15. 

    Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?

    • A.

      To one side

    • B.

      At a 90-degree angle

    • C.

      Directly behind the suspect

    • D.

      Next to the apprehending officer

    Correct Answer
    A. To one side
    Explanation
    To one side is the correct answer because standing to one side allows the assisting Security Forces member to have a clear view of the situation and the suspect, while also avoiding obstructing the apprehending officer's line of sight. This position provides an advantage as it allows the assisting member to quickly react and provide support if needed, without interfering with the apprehension process. Standing at a 90-degree angle, directly behind the suspect, or next to the apprehending officer may limit the assisting member's visibility and ability to effectively assist.

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  • 16. 

    What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?

    • A.

      Your ability to make the apprehension alone

    • B.

      Attitude and physical condition of suspect

    • C.

      Whether to be domineering or belligerent

    • D.

      Your position and member’s attitude

    Correct Answer
    B. Attitude and physical condition of suspect
    Explanation
    Before apprehending a suspect, it is important to evaluate their attitude and physical condition. This is crucial because it can provide valuable information about the suspect's state of mind and potential threat level. Assessing their attitude can help determine if they are cooperative or confrontational, which can inform the approach and tactics used during the apprehension. Additionally, evaluating the suspect's physical condition can help assess their level of strength, mobility, or potential for resistance, which can impact the safety and effectiveness of the apprehension.

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  • 17. 

    What is the first thing you would do to apply the IKKYO grip properly?

    • A.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm up (or the suspect’s right with your left)

    • B.

      Grab the front of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect’s right with your left hand)

    • C.

      Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left)

    • D.

      Grab the side of the suspect’s left hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your right)

    Correct Answer
    C. Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left)
    Explanation
    To apply the IKKYO grip properly, you should grab the back of the suspect's right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect's left with your left hand). This grip allows for better control and leverage over the suspect's hand, making it harder for them to resist or escape. By positioning your hand in this way, you have a stronger hold and can effectively immobilize the suspect's hand.

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  • 18. 

    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect’s

    • A.

      Elbow extended out toward the ground

    • B.

      Arm straight and toward the ground

    • C.

      Elbow parallel to the ground

    • D.

      Arm parallel to the ground

    Correct Answer
    D. Arm parallel to the ground
    Explanation
    To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This position helps to maintain control and stability while executing the takedown. By keeping the suspect's arm parallel to the ground, the force exerted during the takedown is distributed evenly, reducing the risk of injury to both the suspect and the person applying the takedown.

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  • 19. 

    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an

    • A.

      Emotionless and physical deterrent to aggression

    • B.

      Emotional and physiological deterrent to aggression

    • C.

      Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression

    • D.

      Emotional and psychological deterrent to aggression

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional and physical deterrent to aggression
    Explanation
    The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it serves as both an emotional and physical deterrent to aggression. The sight of the baton can invoke fear and hesitation in potential aggressors, making them think twice before acting. Additionally, the physical force that can be exerted with the baton can effectively subdue and restrain individuals who pose a threat. By combining both emotional and physical elements, the expandable baton is a powerful tool for law enforcement in deterring aggression.

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  • 20. 

    During which portion of the Use of Force Model can you expect to use the baton?

    • A.

      Resistant (passive)

    • B.

      Resistant (active)

    • C.

      Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • D.

      Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    C. Assaultive (bodily harm)
    Explanation
    The baton is expected to be used during the portion of the Use of Force Model when the subject becomes assaultive and poses a threat of bodily harm. This means that the subject is actively engaging in aggressive behavior that could potentially cause harm to others. In such situations, the use of a baton may be necessary to control and subdue the subject in order to protect the safety of individuals involved.

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  • 21. 

    The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,

    • A.

      Head, and knees

    • B.

      Legs, and knees

    • C.

      Knees, and ankles

    • D.

      Head, and legs

    Correct Answer
    B. Legs, and knees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Legs, and knees". When using a baton on a suspect, the primary target areas are the legs and knees. This is because striking these areas can help to immobilize the suspect and reduce their ability to resist or escape. Targeting the legs can also be less dangerous than targeting the head or other vital areas, as it is less likely to cause severe injury or harm.

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  • 22. 

    What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?

    • A.

      Non-physical

    • B.

      Psychological

    • C.

      Impact

    • D.

      Lethal

    Correct Answer
    C. Impact
    Explanation
    The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, rigid stick typically made of metal or wood, and it is designed to deliver powerful strikes to an opponent. Its main purpose is to cause pain and incapacitate the target through the force of impact. Unlike non-physical or psychological weapons, the baton relies on physical force to subdue or deter an adversary. Although it can potentially be lethal if used with excessive force or in vulnerable areas, its primary function is to deliver impactful blows.

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  • 23. 

    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered

    • A.

      Lethal

    • B.

      Non-lethal

    • C.

      Deadly force

    • D.

      Resistant (passive)

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-lethal
    Explanation
    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is considered non-lethal because it is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual without causing long-term or permanent harm. It is typically used for self-defense purposes and can cause temporary blindness, difficulty breathing, and intense pain, but these effects are temporary and do not result in death.

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  • 24. 

    What portion, of the Use of Force Model that a subject’s actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?

    • A.

      Resistant (active)

    • B.

      Resistant (passive)

    • C.

      Compliant (active)

    • D.

      Compliant (resistant)

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistant (active)
    Explanation
    In the given question, the correct answer is "Resistant (active)". This means that approved electronic control devices can be used when a subject's actions are located within the portion of the Use of Force Model that is categorized as resistant and active. This implies that the subject is actively resisting or engaging in aggressive behavior, which may require the use of electronic control devices to gain control and ensure the safety of others.

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  • 25. 

    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into

    • A.

      Fifths

    • B.

      Tenths

    • C.

      Fifteenths

    • D.

      Twentieths

    Correct Answer
    B. Tenths
    Explanation
    Grid coordinates are identified by dividing the grid square into smaller sections. In this case, the grid square is divided into tenths. This means that each side of the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts. By using tenths, we can pinpoint a more precise location within the grid square.

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  • 26. 

    After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Disaster control group team

    • C.

      Nuclear accident recovery team

    • D.

      Home installation of the resource

    Correct Answer
    A. Nearest military installation
    Explanation
    After a nuclear accident, the initial response base responsibility falls on the nearest military installation. This is because military installations are equipped with trained personnel, resources, and infrastructure to handle emergency situations effectively. They have the capability to mobilize quickly and coordinate with other agencies to provide immediate assistance, such as evacuations, containment of radioactive materials, and medical support. Therefore, the nearest military installation is the most suitable organization to take charge of the initial response after a nuclear accident.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?

    • A.

      On-scene fire chief

    • B.

      On-scene commander

    • C.

      Disaster control group

    • D.

      Initial base response force

    Correct Answer
    A. On-scene fire chief
    Explanation
    The on-scene fire chief is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident. This role is crucial as the fire chief has the necessary expertise and experience to handle the emergency situation effectively. They are trained to coordinate and lead the response efforts, ensuring the safety of personnel, managing resources, and making critical decisions to mitigate the consequences of the accident.

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  • 28. 

    What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?

    • A.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind

    • B.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind

    • C.

      1500 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    • D.

      2000 feet upwind and crosswind, one and one-half miles downwind

    Correct Answer
    B. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind
    Explanation
    The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a safety perimeter of 2000 feet should be established in all directions from the accident site to protect people from potential exposure to the biological agents. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of contamination and ensure the safety of individuals in the surrounding area.

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  • 29. 

    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?

    • A.

      Do not answer and then detain them

    • B.

      Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel

    • C.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel

    • D.

      Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel
    Explanation
    If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct response would be to not answer their questions and then refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and official information regarding the accident. It is important to avoid providing any information that may be inaccurate or speculative, and instead direct the media to the appropriate channels for official statements and updates.

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  • 30. 

    What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

    • A.

      Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

    • B.

      Use physical force to retrieve the film

    • C.

      Physically detain the photographer

    • D.

      Seize the film

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film
    Explanation
    If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action would be to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This ensures that the situation is handled by professionals who are trained to deal with such incidents. Using physical force or detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and potentially lead to legal consequences. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may not be the correct procedure and could jeopardize the integrity of any legal proceedings that may follow.

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  • 31. 

    One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

    • A.

      Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation

    • B.

      Prevent or minimize loss of life and property

    • C.

      Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force

    • D.

      Not yield to civilian authorities

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent or minimize loss of life and property
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize the loss of life and property. This means that their focus is on protecting and preserving the lives of individuals involved, as well as safeguarding any assets or infrastructure that may be at risk. By prioritizing the prevention or minimization of loss, the Air Force aims to mitigate the impact of these situations and ensure the safety and security of all those affected.

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  • 32. 

    What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?

    • A.

      Trained negotiators

    • B.

      Swat teams

    • C.

      Special operations

    • D.

      Assault weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Trained negotiators
    Explanation
    Trained negotiators are used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. They have the skills and expertise to communicate effectively with individuals involved in the situation and find a peaceful solution. Negotiators are trained to de-escalate tensions, build rapport, and find common ground, which can help avoid the use of force or violence. Their primary goal is to ensure the safety of all parties involved and achieve a peaceful resolution without causing harm or damage.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?

    • A.

      Installation commander

    • B.

      Security forces personnel

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Security forces personnel
    Explanation
    Security forces personnel are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. As the primary security personnel within an installation or unit, they are trained and equipped to handle various types of incidents, including emergencies and security threats. They are responsible for assessing the situation, taking immediate action to mitigate the incident, and coordinating with other relevant authorities or agencies as necessary. Their prompt response and effective handling of incidents are crucial in ensuring the safety and security of the installation or unit.

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  • 34. 

    Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?

    • A.

      Medical emergency services personnel

    • B.

      Base fire department personnel

    • C.

      Negotiation teams

    • D.

      Base chaplain

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiation teams
    Explanation
    Negotiation teams are allowed inside the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene. This is because negotiation teams play a crucial role in resolving conflicts and ensuring the safety of all parties involved. They are trained to communicate and negotiate with individuals who may pose a threat, such as armed suspects or individuals in crisis. By allowing negotiation teams inside the inner perimeter, they can establish communication channels and work towards a peaceful resolution, minimizing the risk of violence or harm.

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  • 35. 

    A base entry point check is

    • A.

      An examination

    • B.

      A warrant search

    • C.

      A consent search

    • D.

      A probable cause search

    Correct Answer
    A. An examination
  • 36. 

    At least how many security forces member should be present when conducting entry point checks?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    At least two security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks. This is because having two members allows for better coordination and effectiveness in ensuring the security of the entry point. With two members, they can cover different angles, communicate with each other, and provide backup and support if needed. It also helps to prevent any potential errors or biases that may occur with only one person conducting the checks. Overall, having two security forces members present enhances the security measures during entry point checks.

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  • 37. 

    What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?  

    • A.

      Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual

    • B.

      Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation

    • C.

      Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband

    • D.

      Impound the vehicle immediately

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual
    Explanation
    If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the installation and to prevent any further illegal activities from taking place. By apprehending or detaining the individual, authorities can further investigate the situation and take appropriate legal actions if necessary.

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  • 38. 

    What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

    • A.

      Operator’s attitude

    • B.

      Patrolman’s attitude

    • C.

      Object size

    • D.

      Location

    Correct Answer
    C. Object size
    Explanation
    The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the size of the object. This means that the size of the object will dictate the approach and techniques used to search the vehicle effectively. For example, larger objects may require more thorough and extensive searches, while smaller objects may be easier to search and inspect.

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  • 39. 

    How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?

    • A.

      Completely and simply

    • B.

      Systematically and simply

    • C.

      Thoroughly and completely

    • D.

      Thoroughly and systematically

    Correct Answer
    D. Thoroughly and systematically
    Explanation
    To conduct a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do it thoroughly and systematically. This means that one should carefully inspect every part of the vehicle in a methodical manner, ensuring that no area is overlooked. By conducting a thorough and systematic search, one can ensure that all potential issues or concerns are identified and addressed effectively.

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  • 40. 

    Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?

    • A.

      Concentric circle

    • B.

      Item-to-item

    • C.

      Zone or sector

    • D.

      Strip and grid

    Correct Answer
    D. Strip and grid
    Explanation
    Strip and grid is the search method that is normally used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the area into strips and then further dividing those strips into smaller grids. This allows search teams to systematically cover the entire area by searching each strip and grid one by one. By using this method, search efforts can be organized and efficient, ensuring that no areas are missed during the search operation.

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  • 41. 

    While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?

    • A.

      Enter to prevent injury or damage

    • B.

      Enter only to identify suspects

    • C.

      Do not enter until the flight chief arrives

    • D.

      Do not enter until you witness an assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to prevent injury or damage
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct action to take is to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. The cries for help indicate that there may be someone in immediate danger inside the building. By entering, you can assess the situation and provide assistance to those in need. This action prioritizes the safety and well-being of individuals over other considerations such as identifying suspects or waiting for higher-ranking personnel to arrive.

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  • 42. 

    When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to

    • A.

      Treat all injured persons

    • B.

      Make sure you take appropriate notes

    • C.

      Collect and mark visible items of evidence

    • D.

      Keep the scene in its original state

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep the scene in its original state
    Explanation
    Keeping the crime scene in its original state is important because any alterations or tampering with the scene can potentially compromise the integrity of the evidence. By preserving the scene as it was found, investigators can accurately document and collect evidence, increasing the chances of solving the crime and ensuring a fair trial. Additionally, keeping the scene undisturbed allows for a thorough examination by forensic experts, who can analyze the area for any potential clues or traces that may assist in the investigation.

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  • 43. 

    When should you begin taking crime scene notes?

    • A.

      As soon as dispatched

    • B.

      When a checklist item has been completed

    • C.

      You have completed collecting all evidence

    • D.

      An investigator relieves you from the scene

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as dispatched
    Explanation
    As soon as dispatched means that you should start taking crime scene notes immediately after receiving the dispatch call or notification. This is important because it allows you to document all the relevant information and observations from the scene as soon as possible, ensuring accuracy and preventing any potential loss or alteration of crucial details. Starting the note-taking process as soon as dispatched helps to maintain the integrity of the crime scene investigation and provides a solid foundation for further analysis and documentation.

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  • 44. 

    What should you do if you move evidence prematurely form its original position when securing the scene?

    • A.

      Disregard it completely

    • B.

      Just wipe you prints off

    • C.

      Inform the shift supervisor

    • D.

      Record its original position in your notes

    Correct Answer
    D. Record its original position in your notes
    Explanation
    If you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, you should record its original position in your notes. This is important because the original position of the evidence can provide crucial information and context for the investigation. By documenting its original position, you ensure that this information is preserved and can be used later in the investigation or in court proceedings if necessary.

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  • 45. 

    What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?

    • A.

      Time is not important element to consider when dealing with fragile evidence

    • B.

      Do not try to keep extraneous articles out of the photographs

    • C.

      Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched

    • D.

      Take at least two photographs of each item of evidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched
    Explanation
    When audio-visual personnel are not available to document a crime scene, a basic rule is to photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This is important because it preserves the scene as it was initially found, ensuring that no crucial details or evidence are lost or altered. By capturing photographs of the evidence before any disturbance occurs, investigators can provide a visual record of the scene and the position of items, which can be crucial for later analysis and courtroom presentation.

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  • 46. 

    What type of evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?

    • A.

      Real

    • B.

      Direct

    • C.

      Documentary

    • D.

      Circumstantial

    Correct Answer
    D. Circumstantial
    Explanation
    Circumstantial evidence is a type of evidence that indirectly implicates a person in an offense. It is based on inference and suggests a person's involvement in a crime based on surrounding circumstances and facts. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on logical deductions and can be used to build a case against a suspect. This type of evidence may include things like motive, opportunity, behavior, or physical evidence that indirectly links a person to the offense.

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  • 47. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence?

    • A.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • B.

      Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Military law

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) establishes the rules of evidence. This document provides guidelines and regulations that govern the admission and use of evidence in military courts. It outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during court-martial proceedings. The MCM ensures that evidence is presented and evaluated fairly and consistently, ensuring a just and orderly legal process within the military justice system.

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  • 48. 

    What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements?

    • A.

      Posse Comitatus Act of 1878

    • B.

      Manual for Courts Martial (MCM)

    • C.

      US Constitution

    • D.

      Jencks Act

    Correct Answer
    D. Jencks Act
    Explanation
    The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires the government to provide defendants in criminal cases with any statements made by government witnesses that relate to the subject matter of their testimony. It does not require individuals to save field notes, rough drafts, and statements. Therefore, the given correct answer is incorrect and does not provide a valid explanation.

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  • 49. 

    An item of evidence is considered fragile if

    • A.

      The item contains bodily fluids

    • B.

      You drop the item of evidence it would break

    • C.

      You have small trace evidence on an item of evidence

    • D.

      Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value." This means that the fragility of an item of evidence is determined by the presence of factors or circumstances that could potentially compromise or ruin its value as evidence. It could be due to environmental conditions, contamination, degradation, or any other factor that could render the evidence unreliable or unusable in a legal investigation or proceeding.

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  • 50. 

    How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?

    • A.

      Physical injury only

    • B.

      Emotional disturbance

    • C.

      Psychological battery

    • D.

      Physical injury or emotional disturbance

    Correct Answer
    D. Physical injury or emotional disturbance
    Explanation
    Abuse, in the context of family violence, is defined as either physical injury or emotional disturbance. This means that abuse can manifest in the form of physical harm inflicted on a family member, such as hitting or punching, as well as causing emotional distress through actions like verbal insults or manipulation. Both physical injury and emotional disturbance are considered forms of abuse within the context of family violence.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Likawa8764
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