Eyes Ophthalmology Quiz Questions
Ophthalmology is the branch of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of the eyeball and orbit. The quiz below tests on the subject and it is essential to all opticians. All the best as you try it out.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Source of bleeing in a case of hyphaema due to blunt injury eye is
- A.
Circulus iridis major
- B.
Circulus iridis minor
- C.
Short posterior ciliary vessels
- D.
Iris vessels
Correct Answer
A. Circulus iridis majorExplanation
The correct answer is Circulus iridis major. The circulus iridis major is a circular arterial anastomosis located in the ciliary body of the eye. In cases of hyphaema caused by blunt eye injury, the rupture of blood vessels in the circulus iridis major can lead to bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye. This can cause the accumulation of blood and result in a hyphaema.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Corneal nerves are NOT enlarged in
- A.
Keratoconus
- B.
Leprosy
- C.
Herpes simplex keratitis
- D.
Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer
C. Herpes simplex keratitisExplanation
In Herpes simplex keratitis, the corneal nerves are not enlarged. This is because Herpes simplex keratitis is an infection caused by the herpes simplex virus that affects the cornea, the clear front surface of the eye. It leads to inflammation and can cause painful sores on the cornea. However, it does not cause enlargement of the corneal nerves.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Incorrect statement regarding contact lense wear
- A.
There is a reduction in hemidesmosome density
- B.
Level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced
- C.
There is increased production of CO2 in the epithelium
- D.
There is a reduction in glucose utilization by corneal epithelium
Correct Answer
B. Level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reducedExplanation
The correct answer is that the level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced. This means that there is a decrease in the amount of glucose present in the corneal epithelium, which can have negative effects on the health and function of the cells. Glucose is an important energy source for cells, including those in the cornea, and a reduction in its availability can lead to cellular dysfunction and potential damage.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which is NOT a feature of Horner’s syndrome
- A.
Enophthalmos
- B.
Miosis
- C.
Ptosis
- D.
Anhydrosis
- E.
Loss of ciliospinal reflex
- F.
Exophthalmos
Correct Answer
F. ExophthalmosExplanation
Exophthalmos is not a feature of Horner's syndrome. Horner's syndrome is characterized by a combination of symptoms including enophthalmos (a sunken appearance of the eye), miosis (constriction of the pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), anhydrosis (decreased sweating on the affected side of the face), and loss of the ciliospinal reflex (absence of dilation of the pupil when the back of the neck is pinched). Exophthalmos, on the other hand, refers to bulging of the eyes and is typically associated with conditions such as Graves' disease or thyroid eye disease.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Most common 2nd malignacy in survivors of retinoblastoma is
- A.
Optic glioma
- B.
Thyroid cancer
- C.
Pap CA thyroid
- D.
Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer
D. OsteosarcomaExplanation
Survivors of retinoblastoma, a rare eye cancer that primarily affects children, have an increased risk of developing second malignancies later in life. Osteosarcoma, a type of bone cancer, is the most common second malignancy in these survivors. This is believed to be a result of the genetic mutation that causes retinoblastoma also predisposing individuals to the development of osteosarcoma. Other second malignancies that may occur in retinoblastoma survivors include optic glioma, thyroid cancer, and papillary carcinoma of the thyroid, but osteosarcoma is the most frequently observed.Rate this question:
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- 6.
FALSE regarding phthisis bulbi is
- A.
Calcification of the lens
- B.
Thickened sclera
- C.
Size of the globe is reduced
- D.
I.O.P is increased
Correct Answer
D. I.O.P is increasedExplanation
Phthisis bulbi is a condition characterized by a shrunken and non-functional eye. It is typically associated with chronic inflammation or injury to the eye. In phthisis bulbi, the size of the globe is reduced, the sclera becomes thickened, and calcification of the lens may occur. However, the intraocular pressure (IOP) is not increased in phthisis bulbi. In fact, it is usually decreased or even absent due to the loss of normal eye structures and function. Therefore, the statement that IOP is increased is false.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In which of the following conditions bilateral inferior subluxation of lense is seen ?
- A.
Ocular trauma
- B.
Marfan’s syndrome
- C.
Homocystinuria
- D.
Hyperlysinemia
Correct Answer
C. HomocystinuriaExplanation
In patients with homocystinuria, bilateral inferior subluxation of the lens can be observed. Homocystinuria is a genetic disorder characterized by the body's inability to properly process the amino acid methionine. This leads to the accumulation of homocysteine, which can cause various systemic complications, including ocular manifestations. The lens of the eye may become loose and dislocated, resulting in inferior subluxation. This condition can lead to visual disturbances and may require surgical intervention to correct the position of the lens.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is
- A.
Trauma
- B.
Hypertension
- C.
Diabetes
- D.
Pathological myopia
Correct Answer
C. DiabetesExplanation
Diabetes is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults. This is because diabetes can lead to diabetic retinopathy, which is a complication of diabetes that affects the blood vessels in the retina. When these blood vessels become damaged and weak, they can leak blood into the vitreous humor, causing vitreous hemorrhage. Therefore, diabetes is a major risk factor for developing vitreous hemorrhage in adults.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A physician diagnosed a new case of Type 2 DM. What is the correct time to refer the patient for ophthalmologic examination ?
- A.
As early as possible
- B.
After 5 years
- C.
After 10 years
- D.
Symptomatic
Correct Answer
A. As early as possibleExplanation
The correct time to refer a patient with a new case of Type 2 DM for ophthalmologic examination is as early as possible. This is because diabetes can cause damage to the blood vessels in the eyes, leading to diabetic retinopathy, which can result in vision loss if left untreated. By referring the patient for an ophthalmologic examination early on, any signs of retinopathy can be detected and treated promptly, reducing the risk of complications and preserving the patient's vision.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which anti-glaucoma drug can not be used topically ?
- A.
Latanoprost
- B.
Brimonidine
- C.
Acetazolamide
- D.
Dorzolamide
Correct Answer
C. AcetazolamideExplanation
Acetazolamide cannot be used topically as an anti-glaucoma drug. This is because it is a systemic medication that is usually administered orally or intravenously. Acetazolamide works by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby lowering intraocular pressure. Topical administration is not effective for this drug as it needs to be absorbed into the bloodstream to exert its effects. Therefore, other drugs like Latanoprost, Brimonidine, and Dorzolamide are more suitable for topical use in treating glaucoma.Rate this question:
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- 11.
“morning glory” sign is seen in MRI of patients with
- A.
Retinoblastoma
- B.
Progressive Supranuclear palsy
- C.
Multiple scelerosis
- D.
Retinal coloboma
Correct Answer
B. Progressive Supranuclear palsyExplanation
The "morning glory" sign refers to a characteristic finding on MRI scans of patients with Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP). PSP is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement, balance, and coordination. The "morning glory" sign appears as a central depression in the midbrain on the MRI scan, resembling the appearance of a morning glory flower. This finding is helpful in distinguishing PSP from other conditions listed, such as Retinoblastoma, Multiple Sclerosis, and Retinal Coloboma, which do not typically show this specific MRI finding.Rate this question:
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- 12.
NOT a component of SAFE strategy
- A.
Surgery
- B.
Antifungals
- C.
Facial cleanliness
- D.
Environmental mprovement
Correct Answer
B. AntifungalsExplanation
Antifungals are not a component of the SAFE strategy. The SAFE strategy stands for Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and Environmental improvement, which are all interventions aimed at preventing and treating trachoma, a contagious eye infection caused by bacteria. Antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, not trachoma. Therefore, antifungals do not fit within the context of the SAFE strategy for trachoma control.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Image produced by Indirect ophthalmoscopy is
- A.
Virtual, erect
- B.
Virtual, inverted
- C.
Real, erect
- D.
Real, inverted
Correct Answer
D. Real, invertedExplanation
Indirect ophthalmoscopy is a technique used to examine the interior of the eye. It involves using a condensing lens to focus light onto the retina, which then reflects back and is viewed through the lens. The image produced in indirect ophthalmoscopy is real because it is formed by the actual rays of light that are reflected from the retina. The image is also inverted, meaning that it is upside down compared to the actual position of the retina.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Contraindication for enucleation is
- A.
Painful, blind eye
- B.
Endophthalmitis
- C.
Congenital cystic eye
- D.
Retinoblastoma
Correct Answer
B. EndophthalmitisExplanation
Endophthalmitis is an inflammation of the inner layers of the eye, which can be caused by infection or trauma. It is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss or even loss of the eye. Enucleation, the surgical removal of the eye, is contraindicated in cases of endophthalmitis because it can potentially spread the infection or worsen the condition. Therefore, enucleation should not be performed if endophthalmitis is present.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Substance deposited in Band Shaped Keratopathy is
- A.
Calcium phosphate
- B.
Magnesium phosphate
- C.
Magnesium sulphate
- D.
Iron
Correct Answer
A. Calcium phosphateExplanation
Band Shaped Keratopathy is a condition characterized by the deposition of calcium salts in the cornea, forming a band-like pattern. Calcium phosphate is a common substance that can accumulate in the cornea, leading to this condition. Magnesium phosphate and magnesium sulphate are not typically associated with Band Shaped Keratopathy. Iron deposition in the cornea can occur in a different condition called hemosiderosis, but it is not the substance deposited in Band Shaped Keratopathy.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which is NOT a feature of 3rd Nerve palsy ?
- A.
Ptosis
- B.
Diplopia
- C.
Miosis
- D.
Outwards Deviation of eye
Correct Answer
C. MiosisExplanation
Miosis refers to constriction of the pupil, which is controlled by the pupillary sphincter muscle innervated by the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve. In 3rd nerve palsy, there is dysfunction of the oculomotor nerve, leading to various symptoms such as ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), diplopia (double vision), and outwards deviation of the eye due to unopposed action of the lateral rectus muscle. Miosis, however, is not a feature of 3rd nerve palsy as it involves the parasympathetic pathway and not the oculomotor nerve itself.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Retinoscopy is
- A.
Visualization of retina alone
- B.
Visualization of retina and all other posterior segment contents
- C.
Objective measurement of the refractive error of patient
- D.
Subjective measurement of the refractive error of patient
Correct Answer
C. Objective measurement of the refractive error of patientExplanation
Retinoscopy is a technique used to objectively measure the refractive error of a patient. It involves shining a light into the patient's eye and observing the reflection from the retina. By moving a lens in front of the eye and noting the direction of the reflected light, the optometrist or ophthalmologist can determine the patient's refractive error, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness. This method is particularly useful for patients who may have difficulty providing subjective responses, such as young children or individuals with communication difficulties.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This is an image showing Horner-Trantas Dots. What could be the cause ?
- A.
Trachoma
- B.
Vernal conjuctivitis
- C.
Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Vernal conjuctivitisExplanation
Vernal conjunctivitis is a likely cause of Horner-Trantas Dots. Vernal conjunctivitis is an allergic condition that typically affects young individuals and is characterized by inflammation of the conjunctiva. Horner-Trantas Dots are small, white, elevated dots that form on the conjunctiva and are commonly seen in individuals with vernal conjunctivitis. These dots are composed of eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. Therefore, vernal conjunctivitis is the most probable cause of the Horner-Trantas Dots seen in the image.Rate this question:
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- 19.
False about Bitot spots is
- A.
Accumulation of keratinized epithelial debris
- B.
Appear on the conjunctiva
- C.
Appear on the cornea
- D.
Develop into xerophthalmia if not treated
Correct Answer
C. Appear on the corneaExplanation
Bitot spots are a clinical manifestation of vitamin A deficiency and are characterized by the accumulation of keratinized epithelial debris on the conjunctiva. They typically appear as foamy, triangular, or irregularly shaped patches on the bulbar conjunctiva, but not on the cornea. If left untreated, vitamin A deficiency can progress to xerophthalmia, a condition that causes dryness and damage to the cornea, but Bitot spots themselves do not appear on the cornea.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 24, 2012Quiz Created by
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