NCCT - Practice Test #2

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 NCCT - practice test #2
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  • 1. 
    To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Reorder point

    • B. 

      Inventory control log

    • C. 

      Order quantity

    • D. 

      All answers are correct


  • 2. 
    A(n) __________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.
    • A. 

      Inventory control tag

    • B. 

      Packing slip

    • C. 

      Purchase order

    • D. 

      Invoice


  • 3. 
    Periodically, the medical assistant should check all electrical equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) __________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.
    • A. 

      Inventory log

    • B. 

      Maintenance log

    • C. 

      Quality control log

    • D. 

      No answers are correct


  • 4. 
    When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a __________.
    • A. 

      Transcriptionist

    • B. 

      Stenographer

    • C. 

      Decoder

    • D. 

      Receptionist


  • 5. 
    Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of hospitalizing a patient by a process known as __________.
    • A. 

      Procedure review

    • B. 

      Admissions review

    • C. 

      Appropriateness review

    • D. 

      Transfer review


  • 6. 
    Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?
    • A. 

      Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse

    • B. 

      Treating a 16 year old girl who is pregnant without parental consent

    • C. 

      The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research

    • D. 

      Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient


  • 7. 
    A physician must have the patient’s permission in writing to reveal any confidential information, except for which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Gunshot wound

    • B. 

      Anorexia

    • C. 

      Drug addiction

    • D. 

      Pregnancy


  • 8. 
    Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ health information?
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      CLIA

    • C. 

      CMS

    • D. 

      HIPAA


  • 9. 
    A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________.
    • A. 

      Right justified

    • B. 

      Indented 5 spaces

    • C. 

      Equally spaced vertically

    • D. 

      At the left hand margin


  • 10. 
    When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?
    • A. 

      Comma

    • B. 

      Semicolon

    • C. 

      Asterisk

    • D. 

      Colon


  • 11. 
    When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
    • A. 

      If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level and s/he will calm down.

    • B. 

      Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.

    • C. 

      Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining; the doctor should handle them.

    • D. 

      No correct answer


  • 12. 
    Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of __________.
    • A. 

      Non-verbal communication

    • B. 

      Verbal communication

    • C. 

      Written communication

    • D. 

      All answers are correct


  • 13. 
    What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?
    • A. 

      Erase the entry and write in the new appointment.

    • B. 

      Put “white-out” over the entry and write on top.

    • C. 

      Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials.

    • D. 

      Mark through the entry with a single red line.


  • 14. 
    The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the __________.
    • A. 

      Covered amount

    • B. 

      Deductable

    • C. 

      Explanation of benefits

    • D. 

      Co-pay


  • 15. 
    Instructions to an insurance company about where to make payment and to whom are called __________.
    • A. 

      Payment agreements

    • B. 

      Assignment of benefits

    • C. 

      Benefit accommodations

    • D. 

      Assignment of payments


  • 16. 
    The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) __________ to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.
    • A. 

      Social Security number

    • B. 

      Federal tax identification number

    • C. 

      State tax number

    • D. 

      Insurance ID number


  • 17. 
    An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment, but must also indicate the __________.
    • A. 

      Duration of the appointment

    • B. 

      Relationship to the patient

    • C. 

      Social Security number of the patient

    • D. 

      Insurance provider’s contact information


  • 18. 
    A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) __________ year.
    • A. 

      Fiscal

    • B. 

      Financial

    • C. 

      Fiduciary

    • D. 

      Accounting


  • 19. 
    Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician’s signature and a(n) __________ registration number.
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      CDC


  • 20. 
    Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e. surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient’s insurance policy contract involves a process known as __________.
    • A. 

      Pre-certification

    • B. 

      Pre-authorization

    • C. 

      Pre-determination

    • D. 

      Pre-existing


  • 21. 
    In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never __________.
    • A. 

      Be facing the file cabinets

    • B. 

      Be able to be viewed by patients

    • C. 

      Be turned on

    • D. 

      Be viewed by medical personnel


  • 22. 
    The temperature taken at the armpit is the __________.
    • A. 

      Lymphatic temperature

    • B. 

      Axillary temperature

    • C. 

      Deltoid temperature

    • D. 

      Delta temperature


  • 23. 
    What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?
    • A. 

      Open fracture

    • B. 

      Spiral fracture

    • C. 

      Greenstick fracture

    • D. 

      Closed fracture


  • 24. 
    The abbreviation for three times a day is __________.
    • A. 

      Tid

    • B. 

      Bid

    • C. 

      Qid

    • D. 

      Qh


  • 25. 
    The abbreviation for as needed is __________.
    • A. 

      Prn

    • B. 

      Ppn

    • C. 

      An

    • D. 

      Add


  • 26. 
    The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is __________.
    • A. 

      NPO

    • B. 

      NBM

    • C. 

      NM

    • D. 

      Nom


  • 27. 
    Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?
    • A. 

      Insulin syringe

    • B. 

      Tuberculin syringe

    • C. 

      Hypodermic syringes

    • D. 

      A closed injection system


  • 28. 
    When you have finished using a reagent, you should __________.
    • A. 

      Refrigerate it for further use

    • B. 

      Pour it back in the bottle

    • C. 

      Discard it

    • D. 

      Incubate it


  • 29. 
    When you make a solution, be sure you label and __________.
    • A. 

      Date it

    • B. 

      Store it

    • C. 

      Freeze it

    • D. 

      Color it


  • 30. 
    The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol be given to a patient. The concentration available is 100mg/ml. How may cc’s of Demerol will be injected?
    • A. 

      0.5 cc

    • B. 

      1.0 cc

    • C. 

      1.5 cc

    • D. 

      0.25 cc


  • 31. 
    A drug that causes urination is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Diuretic

    • B. 

      Hypertensive

    • C. 

      Gestational drug

    • D. 

      Narcotic


  • 32. 
    A drug used to relieve a cough is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Antitussive

    • B. 

      Antiemetic

    • C. 

      Antiseptic

    • D. 

      Antitoxin


  • 33. 
    A drug used to control temperature is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Antipyretic

    • B. 

      Antidote

    • C. 

      Antiemetic

    • D. 

      Analgesic


  • 34. 
    A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Vasodilator

    • B. 

      Vasoconstrictor

    • C. 

      Bronchodilator

    • D. 

      Dilatemetic


  • 35. 
    A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Suppressant

    • B. 

      Decongestant

    • C. 

      Antihistamine

    • D. 

      Inebronchodilator


  • 36. 
    A drug that increases cough output is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Miotic

    • B. 

      Diuretic

    • C. 

      Cytotoxin

    • D. 

      Expectorant


  • 37. 
    A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Solution

    • B. 

      Emulsion

    • C. 

      Elixir

    • D. 

      Tincture


  • 38. 
    Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?
    • A. 

      Narcotic overdose

    • B. 

      Inflammation

    • C. 

      Angina pectoris

    • D. 

      Anxiety


  • 39. 
    Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress __________.
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Appetite

    • C. 

      Swelling

    • D. 

      Excretion of urine


  • 40. 
    Schedule I drugs include __________.
    • A. 

      Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs

    • B. 

      Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse

    • C. 

      Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse

    • D. 

      No correct answer


  • 41. 
    A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Transdermal system

    • B. 

      Reservoir system

    • C. 

      Ointment system

    • D. 

      Epidermis system


  • 42. 
    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 17.
    • A. 

      Superior Vena Cava

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Pulmonary vein


  • 43. 
    Refer to illustration #5 and identify number 18.
    • A. 

      Inferior vena cava

    • B. 

      Superior vena cava

    • C. 

      Right atrium

    • D. 

      Right ventricle


  • 44. 
    A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________.
    • A. 

      Cystitis

    • B. 

      Urethral stricture

    • C. 

      Chronic renal failure

    • D. 

      Pyelonephritis


  • 45. 
    A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called __________.
    • A. 

      High blood pressure

    • B. 

      Type 1 diabetes

    • C. 

      Pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Type 2 diabetes


  • 46. 
    The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called __________.
    • A. 

      Enema

    • B. 

      Colostomy

    • C. 

      Constipation

    • D. 

      Peristalsis


  • 47. 
    The prolonged retention and accumulation of fecal material in the rectum is called __________.
    • A. 

      Peristalsis

    • B. 

      Anal incontinence

    • C. 

      Fecal impaction

    • D. 

      Feces


  • 48. 
    The frequent passage of liquid stools is called __________.
    • A. 

      Flatus

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Peristalsis

    • D. 

      Blockage


  • 49. 
    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 69.
    • A. 

      Nasal

    • B. 

      Zygomatic

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Radius


  • 50. 
    Refer to Illustration #1 and identify the number 70.
    • A. 

      Clavicle

    • B. 

      Sternum

    • C. 

      Scapula

    • D. 

      Ilium


  • 51. 
    A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a __________.
    • A. 

      Non-pathogen

    • B. 

      Spore

    • C. 

      Flora

    • D. 

      Pathogen


  • 52. 
    The most important initial step in the performance of a blood draw is __________.
    • A. 

      Selecting the correct needle gauge

    • B. 

      Using 70% alcohol prep pads

    • C. 

      Identifying the patient

    • D. 

      Using the correct tourniquet


  • 53. 
    Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?
    • A. 

      Both venipuncture and microsampling involve skill.

    • B. 

      It doesn’t really matter which direction you lancet a finger.

    • C. 

      Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect.

    • D. 

      “Getting blood” is not the only goal of good blood drawing.


  • 54. 
    To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ needle bore.
    • A. 

      Longer

    • B. 

      Smaller

    • C. 

      Larger

    • D. 

      Shorter


  • 55. 
    A centrifuge works by __________.
    • A. 

      Freezing blood specimens

    • B. 

      Heating blood specimens

    • C. 

      Incubating blood at body temp

    • D. 

      Separating cells and serum


  • 56. 
    A tourniquet should be on the patient’s arm no longer than __________.
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      Three minutes

    • D. 

      Four minutes


  • 57. 
    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and __________.
    • A. 

      Work in a circle from the center to the periphery

    • B. 

      Wipe carefully back and forth

    • C. 

      Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • D. 

      Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin


  • 58. 
    On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the __________.
    • A. 

      Start

    • B. 

      Amplitude

    • C. 

      Gain

    • D. 

      B and c


  • 59. 
    Conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called __________.
    • A. 

      Defribrillation

    • B. 

      Shock treatment

    • C. 

      V tach

    • D. 

      Scintillation


  • 60. 
    The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is __________.
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Ground electrode

    • C. 

      Direction or shape

    • D. 

      Polarization


  • 61. 
    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________.
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

    • D. 

      S wave


  • 62. 
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called __________.
    • A. 

      Uniform

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Fused

    • D. 

      Bigeminy


  • 63. 
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should __________ the first drop.
    • A. 

      Collect

    • B. 

      Use

    • C. 

      Wipe away

    • D. 

      Wash off


  • 64. 
    When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated.

    • B. 

      Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box.

    • C. 

      Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter.

    • D. 

      All answers are correct


  • 65. 
    An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the __________ required for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Route

    • C. 

      Muscles

    • D. 

      Heart structures


  • 66. 
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading, it is called __________.
    • A. 

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B. 

      Absolutely regular

    • C. 

      Essentially regular

    • D. 

      Totally irregular


  • 67. 
    When applying leads, apply the V1 lead __________.
    • A. 

      Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • B. 

      On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border

    • C. 

      Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • D. 

      On the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line


  • 68. 
    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as a(n) __________.
    • A. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • B. 

      Arrhythmia

    • C. 

      Aneurysm

    • D. 

      Embolism


  • 69. 
    Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________.
    • A. 

      Catheter

    • B. 

      Cannula

    • C. 

      Tent

    • D. 

      All answers are correct


  • 70. 
    How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection?
    • A. 

      At body temperature

    • B. 

      In a refrigerator

    • C. 

      At room temperature

    • D. 

      In a freezer


  • 71. 
    A positive urine dipstick test for albumin indicates the patient has __________ in his/her urine.
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Protein

    • D. 

      Ketones


  • 72. 
    Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine?
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Ketones

    • C. 

      Protein

    • D. 

      PH


  • 73. 
    Which of the following stains classify bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative?
    • A. 

      PAP

    • B. 

      Gram

    • C. 

      Hematoxylin

    • D. 

      Wright’s


  • 74. 
    Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture?
    • A. 

      Back of the throat and tonsillar area

    • B. 

      Nasopharynx and epiglottis

    • C. 

      Cheeks and tongue

    • D. 

      Gums and tongue


  • 75. 
    A drug that helps to decrease appetite is called an __________.
    • A. 

      Appetite modifier

    • B. 

      Appetite stimulant

    • C. 

      Anitspasmodic

    • D. 

      Appetite suppressant


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