Clinical Skill Lab Final Test
Hello !
This is Clinical Skill Lab Test :)
41 Question , 1 is Bonus because there is Image ;)
The Password is in the post or you can talk with Shahem Alboni or any one did the exam for it.
You have 45 Mins :) Good Luck
Medical Committee of HU
Questions and Answers
- 1.
One of these statements is NOT TRUE in the beginning of the consultation:
- A.
Maintaining privacy and asking permissions for other staff or student
- B.
Consultation length is 30 minutes for returning outpatients
- C.
Seating to be arranged in a non-confrontational way
- D.
Avoid intrurruption
Correct Answer
B. Consultation length is 30 minutes for returning outpatientsExplanation
In the beginning of the consultation, it is not true that the consultation length is 30 minutes for returning outpatients. This statement is incorrect because the question is asking for the statement that is NOT true. Therefore, the correct answer is that the consultation length is not 30 minutes for returning outpatients.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Patient Profile includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Gender
- B.
Address
- C.
Age
- D.
Education
Correct Answer
D. EducationExplanation
The patient profile is a collection of information about a patient that helps healthcare professionals understand their medical history and make informed decisions about their care. It typically includes details such as gender, address, age, and other relevant personal information. However, education is not typically included in a patient profile as it is not directly related to their medical condition or treatment. Education level may be important in some cases, but it is not a standard component of a patient profile.Rate this question:
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- 3.
"The primary symptom that a patient states as the reason for seeking medical care" known as:
- A.
First impression
- B.
Presenting complaint
- C.
Negotiation of agenda
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
B. Presenting complaintExplanation
The primary symptom that a patient states as the reason for seeking medical care is known as the presenting complaint. This is the initial concern or problem that the patient brings to the attention of the healthcare provider. It serves as the starting point for further evaluation and diagnosis of the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A patient with a vomiting , you should NOT asking them about:
- A.
Site
- B.
Onset
- C.
Associated synptoms
- D.
Timing
Correct Answer
A. SiteExplanation
When a patient is experiencing vomiting, asking about the site of the symptom is not relevant. The site refers to the specific location in the body where the symptom is occurring, but vomiting is a generalized symptom that can originate from various parts of the digestive system. Therefore, asking about the site of vomiting would not provide any useful information for diagnosis or treatment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
"extension of pain from original site to another site with persistence of pain at original site" best describes
- A.
Referred pain
- B.
Shifting pain
- C.
Radiating pain
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Radiating painExplanation
Radiating pain refers to the extension of pain from its original site to another area, while still persisting at the original site. This means that the pain spreads or travels from one location to another. The term "referred pain" is often used interchangeably with radiating pain, as both describe the phenomenon of pain being felt in a different area than the actual source of the problem. Therefore, the correct answer is radiating pain.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When asking about the character of the pain, the right question is:
- A.
What is the character of the pain?
- B.
Can you describe the pain for me?
- C.
Is there any pain?
- D.
A+B
Correct Answer
B. Can you describe the pain for me?Explanation
The correct question to ask when inquiring about the character of the pain is "Can you describe the pain for me?" This question prompts the person to provide a detailed description of the pain they are experiencing, allowing for a better understanding of its nature and characteristics. The other options, "What is the character of the pain?" and "Is there any pain?" are also related to the topic, but they are not as specific and may not elicit as much information as the correct question. The option "A+B" is not a valid question and does not provide any relevant information.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If the patient went through operation before , you should ask him about all of these EXCEPT:
- A.
Duration
- B.
Place
- C.
Date
- D.
Complications
Correct Answer
A. DurationExplanation
When a patient has undergone an operation before, it is important to gather information about various aspects related to the surgery. Asking the patient about the place where the operation took place is crucial to understand the facility and resources available. Inquiring about the date of the operation helps in determining the timeframe and potential relevance to the current condition. Inquiring about any complications during or after the surgery provides insights into the patient's post-operative experience. However, asking about the duration of the operation may not be as relevant as the other factors mentioned, as it does not provide significant information about the patient's current condition or potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
If the patient takes a drug you should notice all the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Indication
- B.
Date of production
- C.
Dose
- D.
Compliance
Correct Answer
B. Date of productionExplanation
When a patient takes a drug, it is important to monitor various factors to ensure proper treatment. The indication refers to the reason or condition for which the drug is prescribed. The dose indicates the amount of medication that should be taken. Compliance refers to the patient's adherence to the prescribed dosage and schedule. However, the date of production is not relevant in this context as it does not impact the patient's response to the drug. Therefore, it is not necessary to notice the date of production when a patient takes a drug.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(Bonus Question because there is an IMAGE) One of these statements is TRUE about that figure:
- A.
Number 9 is a female
- B.
Number 1 and 2 are not divorced
- C.
Number 13 is male carrier of a trait
- D.
Number 13 and 12 are adopted
Correct Answer
B. Number 1 and 2 are not divorced -
- 10.
Patient perspective includes all the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Feelings
- B.
Expectations
- C.
Finance
- D.
Ideas
Correct Answer
C. FinanceExplanation
The patient perspective refers to the viewpoint and thoughts of the patient regarding their healthcare experience. It includes their feelings, expectations, and ideas about their treatment and care. However, finance is not typically considered as part of the patient perspective as it relates more to the financial aspect of healthcare rather than the patient's personal viewpoint.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Active listening includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Utilizing wait time
- B.
Facilitative response
- C.
Empathy
- D.
A+B
Correct Answer
C. EmpathyExplanation
Active listening involves fully engaging with the speaker and understanding their perspective. Utilizing wait time allows the listener to give the speaker time to fully express their thoughts. Facilitative response involves providing feedback and asking clarifying questions to enhance understanding. Empathy, on the other hand, refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. Therefore, empathy is not excluded from active listening, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 12.
"Progress from one section of the medical interview to another by explaining what you want to discuss next" known as:
- A.
Screening
- B.
Signposting
- C.
Clarification
- D.
Summarizing
Correct Answer
B. SignpostingExplanation
Signposting is the practice of guiding the flow of conversation in a medical interview by indicating what topic will be discussed next. It helps to ensure a smooth transition from one section to another and keeps the conversation organized. By explaining what they want to discuss next, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate with patients and ensure that all important topics are covered during the interview.Rate this question:
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- 13.
One of these is an open question:
- A.
Why did you get into medicine?
- B.
Did you eat lunch today?
- C.
Are you enjoying this exam?
- D.
Did you travel by bus yesterday?
Correct Answer
A. Why did you get into medicine?Explanation
The correct answer is "why did you get into medicine?" because it is an open-ended question that prompts the respondent to provide a detailed explanation or personal story about their motivation for pursuing a career in medicine. The other options are closed-ended questions that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" response.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A 70 years woman that has a heart disease , it's most appropriate to ask hir about:
- A.
Sexual history
- B.
Pets
- C.
Current employment
- D.
Stairs
Correct Answer
D. StairsExplanation
In this scenario, it is most appropriate to ask the 70-year-old woman about stairs. This is because she has a heart disease, which suggests that her cardiovascular health may be compromised. Asking about stairs can help assess her physical activity level and determine if she experiences any difficulties or limitations in climbing stairs, which can be indicative of her overall cardiovascular fitness. It is important to gather this information to understand her functional capacity and plan appropriate interventions or accommodations if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Geographic tongue is caused by :
- A.
Inhaled steroids
- B.
Riboflavin deficiency
- C.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
- D.
Alcoholics
Correct Answer
B. Riboflavin deficiencyExplanation
Geographic tongue, also known as benign migratory glossitis, is a condition characterized by irregular patches on the surface of the tongue. The correct answer, riboflavin deficiency, refers to a lack of vitamin B2, which can lead to the development of geographic tongue. Riboflavin is essential for maintaining healthy oral tissues, and its deficiency can cause inflammation and changes in the tongue's appearance. This condition is typically not serious and can be managed by addressing the underlying nutritional deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The correct order of physical examination is :
- A.
Palpation > inspection > percussion > auscultation
- B.
Inspection > palpation > percussion > auscultation
- C.
Inspection > palpation > auscultation > percussioin
- D.
There is no correct order , every doctor has it's own order
Correct Answer
B. Inspection > palpation > percussion > auscultationExplanation
The correct order of physical examination is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. This sequence is followed to ensure a systematic and thorough examination. Inspection involves visually examining the patient for any visible abnormalities or signs. Palpation involves using touch to feel for any abnormalities such as tenderness, masses, or swelling. Percussion involves tapping on the body to assess the density and resonance of underlying structures. Auscultation involves using a stethoscope to listen to internal sounds such as heart and lung sounds. This order allows the healthcare provider to gather information in a logical and organized manner.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Normal respiratory rate is :
- A.
12 - 20
- B.
12 - 19
- C.
11-20
- D.
11-19
Correct Answer
A. 12 - 20Explanation
The normal respiratory rate is the number of breaths a person takes per minute when at rest. The range of 12-20 breaths per minute is considered normal for adults. This means that a healthy adult typically takes between 12 and 20 breaths in one minute.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Normal blood pressure is :
- A.
130 / 80
- B.
130 / 90
- C.
110/80
- D.
120 / 80
Correct Answer
D. 120 / 80Explanation
Normal blood pressure is typically defined as 120/80 mmHg. The first number, 120, represents the systolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood. The second number, 80, represents the diastolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. This blood pressure reading indicates that the individual has a normal and healthy blood pressure level.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Body mass index of someone whose weight is 80 kg and height is 180 cm is :
- A.
25
- B.
21
- C.
32
- D.
28
Correct Answer
A. 25Explanation
The body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. To calculate BMI, the weight in kilograms is divided by the square of the height in meters. In this case, the weight is given as 80 kg and the height as 180 cm. To convert the height to meters, we divide 180 by 100, resulting in 1.8 meters. The BMI is then calculated as 80 divided by (1.8)^2, which equals 24.69. Since the BMI is rounded to the nearest whole number, the correct answer is 25.Rate this question:
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- 20.
One of these statements is TRUE:
- A.
Apathy with pale and buffy skin best indicates a diagnosis of Hypothyrodism
- B.
Weight loss: unintentional loss of more than 10% of body weight in less than 4 months
- C.
Apple shape have lower waist : hip ratio than Pear shape
- D.
Mousy smell of body is related to Uremia
Correct Answer
A. Apathy with pale and buffy skin best indicates a diagnosis of HypothyrodismExplanation
Apathy with pale and buffy skin is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, which can lead to a decrease in metabolism and energy levels. The pale and buffy skin can be a result of decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the skin due to the slowed metabolism. Apathy, or a lack of interest or motivation, can also be a symptom of hypothyroidism due to the overall decrease in energy and mood. Therefore, the statement that apathy with pale and buffy skin best indicates a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is true.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Dehydration is about all of these EXCEPT:
- A.
Sunken orbits
- B.
Peripheral Edema
- C.
Skin subsides abnormally slowly
- D.
Tachycardia
Correct Answer
B. Peripheral EdemaExplanation
Peripheral edema is not a symptom or characteristic of dehydration. It refers to the swelling of the lower extremities, such as the legs and feet, due to the accumulation of fluid in the tissues. Dehydration, on the other hand, is the state of not having enough water in the body, which can lead to symptoms such as sunken orbits, slow skin subsidence, and tachycardia (a fast heart rate). Therefore, peripheral edema is not associated with dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Questions you should ask in blood pressure procedures include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
What's your name?
- B.
Did you drink and Coffee yesterday?
- C.
Which arm do you prefer?
- D.
Have you been smoking in the last half an hour?
Correct Answer
B. Did you drink and Coffee yesterday?Explanation
The question is asking about the questions that should be asked during a blood pressure procedure. The correct answer is "Did you drink any coffee yesterday?" This question is not relevant to the blood pressure procedure as coffee consumption the previous day does not have a direct impact on blood pressure readings. The other three options are important questions to ask during a blood pressure procedure as they can affect the accuracy of the readings.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If there is ulnar deviation at metacarpophalangeal joints this is known as:
- A.
Tobacco staining
- B.
Dupuytren's contracture
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
COPD
Correct Answer
C. Rheumatoid arthritisExplanation
Ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal joints is a characteristic sign of rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing inflammation, pain, and deformity. Ulnar deviation refers to the abnormal sideways movement of the fingers towards the ulnar side of the hand. This deformity is commonly seen in rheumatoid arthritis due to the inflammation and destruction of the joints. Dupuytren's contracture, COPD, and tobacco staining are unrelated conditions and do not cause ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal joints.Rate this question:
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- 24.
If there is "Palmer erythema" this indicates a:
- A.
Liver diseases
- B.
Heart failure
- C.
Systemic illness
- D.
Callosities
Correct Answer
A. Liver diseasesExplanation
The presence of "Palmer erythema" refers to a reddening of the palms of the hands, which is commonly associated with liver diseases. This symptom occurs due to increased estrogen levels and reduced estrogen metabolism in the liver, leading to dilation of blood vessels and subsequent redness in the palms. Therefore, the correct answer is liver diseases.Rate this question:
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- 25.
All of those are TRUE about clubbed nails EXCEPT:
- A.
Nail fold angles is >190
- B.
Interphalangeal depth ratio >1
- C.
Increased nail bed fluctuation
- D.
Schamroth's window present
Correct Answer
D. Schamroth's window presentExplanation
Clubbed nails, also known as digital clubbing, is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the fingertips and nails. It is often associated with various underlying medical conditions. Schamroth's window is a test used to assess the presence of clubbing, where the patient's fingers are placed together and the nail beds are examined for the presence of a diamond-shaped window. In clubbed nails, this window is absent. Therefore, the correct answer is that Schamroth's window is present in clubbed nails.Rate this question:
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- 26.
"In males or females with excess terminal hair growth in a non-androgenic distribution" Then there is :
- A.
Alopecia areata
- B.
Hypertrichosis
- C.
Alopecia totalis
- D.
Hirsutism
Correct Answer
B. HypertrichosisExplanation
Hypertrichosis is the correct answer because it refers to excessive hair growth in areas that are not typically associated with androgenic hair growth, such as the face, back, or chest. This condition can occur in both males and females and is not specific to any particular age group. Alopecia areata, alopecia totalis, and hirsutism are not relevant to the given description as they involve hair loss or excessive hair growth in specific patterns or areas.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A 45 years patient was sleeping , He can't open his eyes only when we pinch him and doing a pain, Also when we ask him about his name he said : no I didn't eat fish yesterday and when we asked him about his age he said that he is married , when we asked him to move his hand he didn't , and when we pinch him there has been no response , The TOTAL score for him is :
- A.
11
- B.
6
- C.
5
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 6 -
- 28.
All of these are signs of inflammation for a lump EXCEPT:
- A.
Redness
- B.
Warmth
- C.
Tenderness
- D.
Large in size
Correct Answer
D. Large in sizeExplanation
Inflammation is a response of the body to injury or infection, characterized by redness, warmth, and tenderness. These signs indicate increased blood flow to the affected area and the activation of the immune system. However, the size of a lump is not typically considered a sign of inflammation. Size may be influenced by various factors such as the type of tissue involved, the duration of the inflammation, or the underlying cause. Therefore, large size is not typically associated with inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Palpation of a lump includes all the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Shape
- B.
Tenderness
- C.
Consistency
- D.
Edge
Correct Answer
A. ShapeExplanation
Palpation of a lump includes assessing its tenderness, consistency, edge, and shape. Shape is not excluded from the palpation process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
We do an Auscultation for a lump or mass for :
- A.
Abnormal sound(Bruit)
- B.
Asses fluidity
- C.
Checking if there is pulsing
- D.
Two of the above
Correct Answer
A. Abnormal sound(Bruit)Explanation
Auscultation is a medical technique used to listen to internal sounds of the body using a stethoscope. In this case, auscultation is done to check for the presence of an abnormal sound called a bruit. A bruit is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow through a narrowed or blocked blood vessel. It can indicate the presence of a lump or mass that is causing the abnormal blood flow. Therefore, auscultation is performed specifically to detect the presence of a bruit, which can help in diagnosing the underlying condition causing the abnormality.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Normal lymph nodes size is :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct Answer
B.Explanation
The normal size of lymph nodes can vary depending on their location in the body. Generally, lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that measure less than 1 centimeter in diameter. However, lymph nodes in certain areas, such as the neck, groin, and armpits, may be slightly larger, measuring up to 2 centimeters in diameter. The size of lymph nodes can also change temporarily due to factors like infection or inflammation. Therefore, it is important to consider the specific location and context when determining if lymph nodes are within the normal size range.Rate this question:
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- 32.
One of these is NOT a cervical node :
- A.
Epitrochlear
- B.
Preauricular
- C.
Tonsillar
- D.
Supraclavicular
Correct Answer
A. EpitrochlearExplanation
The question is asking for the node that is NOT a cervical node. Cervical nodes are lymph nodes located in the neck region. The options given are epitrochlear, preauricular, tonsillar, and supraclavicular. The correct answer is epitrochlear because it is not located in the neck region. Epitrochlear nodes are found in the elbow area, specifically in the groove between the biceps and triceps muscles.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The number of Cervical lymph nodes is :
- A.
13
- B.
10
- C.
8
- D.
15
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The correct answer is 10. Cervical lymph nodes are a group of lymph nodes located in the neck region. They play a crucial role in filtering lymph fluid and trapping pathogens. The cervical lymph nodes are organized into different levels and can vary in number from person to person. However, on average, there are approximately 10 cervical lymph nodes present in the neck area. These nodes are important in the immune response and can become enlarged or tender when fighting off an infection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The pressure at which the sounds disappear on the sphygmomanometer is the:
- A.
Diastolic pressure
- B.
Systolic pressure
- C.
Radial pressure
- D.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. Diastolic pressureExplanation
The pressure at which the sounds disappear on the sphygmomanometer is known as the diastolic pressure. This is the lowest pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. It represents the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is filling with blood. The disappearance of sounds indicates that the blood flow is no longer turbulent and the pressure in the cuff is equal to the diastolic pressure in the arteries.Rate this question:
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- 35.
the blowing noise when measuring Blood Pressure is the:
- A.
Korotkoff sound 1
- B.
Korotkoff sound 2
- C.
Korotkoff sound 3
- D.
Korotkoff sound 4
Correct Answer
B. Korotkoff sound 2Explanation
The blowing noise heard when measuring blood pressure is known as Korotkoff sound 2. This sound occurs when the cuff pressure is gradually released and the blood starts flowing through the partially occluded artery. It is characterized by a distinct swishing or whooshing sound. Korotkoff sound 2 is an important indicator used to determine the systolic blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The pulse that is localized at the angle of the jaw , anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle:
- A.
Radial
- B.
Brachial
- C.
Popliteal
- D.
Carotid
Correct Answer
D. CarotidExplanation
The pulse that is localized at the angle of the jaw, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle is the carotid pulse. The carotid artery is located in the neck and supplies blood to the brain. It is easily palpable and commonly used to assess the heart rate and rhythm.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When you shaked hand with a 45 men patient , you found his hand dry with a coarse skin , his diagnosis might be :
- A.
Regular water exposure
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Callosities
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The patient's dry and coarse skin on his hand could be indicative of regular water exposure, which can cause the skin to become dry and rough. Additionally, hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones, can cause dry skin. Callosities, which are thickened areas of skin caused by repeated friction or pressure, can also contribute to the dry and coarse texture of the patient's hand. Therefore, all of the above options could be possible diagnoses for the patient based on the given symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 38.
"Rhythm" Means :
- A.
If the pulse is strong
- B.
If the pulse is stopped
- C.
If the pulse is regular or not
- D.
If the lump is pulsing
Correct Answer
C. If the pulse is regular or notExplanation
The word "rhythm" refers to the regularity or pattern of something. In the context of this question, "rhythm" specifically refers to the regularity of a pulse. Therefore, the correct answer is "if the pulse is regular or not." This option captures the meaning of "rhythm" in relation to the pulse and accurately defines its significance.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When a patient posture is stopped with head and neck forwards , arms are flexed at elbows , little arm swing , and his steps are short and shuffling and patient is slow in getting started . his diagnosis might be :
- A.
Spastic hemiparesis
- B.
Steppage gait
- C.
Parkinsonian gait
- D.
Sensory or cerebellar ataxia
Correct Answer
C. Parkinsonian gaitExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, such as head and neck forward posture, flexed arms at elbows, little arm swing, short and shuffling steps, and slow initiation of movement, are characteristic of Parkinsonian gait. Parkinsonian gait is commonly seen in patients with Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that affects the basal ganglia and dopamine-producing cells in the brain. This gait pattern is caused by the rigidity and bradykinesia (slowness of movement) associated with Parkinson's disease.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The least score in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is :
- A.
0
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
Correct Answer
D. 3Explanation
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological scale that assesses the level of consciousness in a person. It evaluates three aspects: eye-opening response, verbal response, and motor response. Each aspect is assigned a score ranging from 1 to 4 or 6, with a lower score indicating a more severe impairment. In the GCS, a score of 3 represents the least possible response, meaning the person is only displaying minimal eye-opening, no verbal response, and no motor response. This suggests a deep level of unconsciousness or coma.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A 45 years old Jordanian patient , his BMI is 28.5, So his nutritional status is :
- A.
Underweight
- B.
Normal
- C.
Overweight
- D.
Obese
Correct Answer
C. OverweightExplanation
Based on the patient's BMI of 28.5, it indicates that the patient is overweight. BMI is a measure of body fat based on height and weight, and a BMI between 25 and 29.9 is considered overweight.Rate this question:
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