Stallings CDC Z3dx7x Cyberspace Support Craftsman Volume 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces are required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans and evaluate COA’s?
- A.
Action Planning
- B.
Deliberate Planning
- C.
Mont'e python
- D.
Noodleboegie
Correct Answer
B. Deliberate PlanningExplanation
Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves the development of predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and evaluating courses of action (COAs). This process is typically conducted in advance and involves careful analysis and consideration of various factors to ensure effective and efficient deployment of forces.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 2
- B.
Volume 1
- C.
Volume 5
- D.
Volume 10
Correct Answer
B. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
AFPC AEF Center
- B.
Installation deployment office
- C.
Joint staff
- D.
UDM
Correct Answer
A. AFPC AEF CenterExplanation
The AFPC AEF Center is responsible for initiating the requirements or deployment sourcing process. They are in charge of managing the Air Force's Expeditionary Force requirements and ensuring that the necessary resources and personnel are available for deployment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of JET tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?
- A.
ILO
- B.
Unit type code UTC
- C.
Joint Force/ Capability
- D.
AD HOC ARRANGEMENTS
Correct Answer
C. Joint Force/ CapabilityExplanation
Joint Force/Capability is the correct answer because it refers to a type of JET tasking where one service provides a force or capability to perform another service's core mission. This means that one service will temporarily take on the responsibilities and tasks of another service in order to fulfill their core mission. This type of tasking allows for flexibility and collaboration between different services within a joint force.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)
- A.
Training
- B.
Mannning
- C.
Facility Condition
- D.
Personell
Correct Answer
C. Facility ConditionExplanation
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports various areas related to resources and training. Facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS focuses on areas such as training, manning, and personnel, but does not include facility condition in its reporting.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool? (ART)
- A.
Training
- B.
Off Station Training
- C.
Home Station Mission
- D.
Equipment condition
Correct Answer
C. Home Station MissionExplanation
The correct answer is "Home Station Mission" because the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories, and "Home Station Mission" is not one of them. The tool is designed to assess the readiness of air and space expeditionary forces, and it measures categories such as Training, Off Station Training, and equipment condition. However, the readiness of the home station mission is not included in the measurement.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The governing guidance for Air and Space expeditionary force reporting tool (ART) reporting is AFI
- A.
AFI 10-201
- B.
AFI 10-220
- C.
AFI 11-3309
- D.
AFI 10-244
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10-244Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 10-244. This Air Force Instruction provides the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force reporting tool (ART) reporting. It outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting and documenting the activities and capabilities of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10-244
- B.
AFI 10-201
- C.
AFI 10-255
- D.
AFI 10-200
Correct Answer
B. AFI 10-201Explanation
AFI 10-201 is the correct answer because it provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements. It is likely that this document outlines the specific requirements and guidelines for creating and implementing DOC statements within the context of the Air Force. The other options, AFI 10-244, AFI 10-255, and AFI 10-200, may be related to other topics or procedures within the Air Force but do not specifically address DOC statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s
- A.
EOD
- B.
Pilot Units
- C.
Logistics SQ
- D.
LOGDET manager
Correct Answer
B. Pilot UnitsExplanation
Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)s.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is NOT an initial capability of the Open The Airbase Force Module?
- A.
AOC operations
- B.
Force accountability
- C.
Trailer park boyz
- D.
EOD
Correct Answer
D. EODExplanation
The Open The Airbase Force Module does not have the initial capability of EOD (Explosive Ordnance Disposal). This means that the module does not include the capability to handle and dispose of explosive devices or materials. EOD is a specialized field that deals with the identification, assessment, and disposal of explosive hazards, and it is not one of the initial capabilities provided by the Open The Airbase Force Module.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Secure communications and intelligence
- B.
Airbase functional Support
- C.
Secure comm and fire support units
- D.
Secure Communications and Force Accountability
Correct Answer
A. Secure communications and intelligenceExplanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. This means that in order to effectively establish control, it is crucial to have a secure communication system in place to ensure that information is transmitted safely and accurately. Additionally, having access to intelligence allows for better decision-making and understanding of the situation, enabling effective control to be established.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Establish the airbase
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Operate the forklift
- D.
Generate the mission
Correct Answer
A. Establish the airbaseExplanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase". This force module is responsible for setting up and preparing the airbase for operations, including tasks such as constructing infrastructure, establishing communication systems, and coordinating logistics. By successfully establishing the airbase, the necessary foundation is created for the airfield to generate air support and carry out its mission effectively.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
10 days arrival 114 days delivery complete
- B.
20 days arrival 140 days delivery complete
- C.
400 days arrival 1 day delivery complete
- D.
2 days arrival 14 days delivery complete
Correct Answer
D. 2 days arrival 14 days delivery completeExplanation
The airbase force module arrives within 2 days after the airbase is opened, and the delivery is estimated to be complete within 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Robust the airbase
- B.
Establish the airbase
- C.
Conclude this airbase
- D.
Dont touch the airbase
Correct Answer
A. Robust the airbaseExplanation
The force module "Robust the airbase" contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established. This suggests that the forces in this module are meant to provide long-term support and reinforcement to the airbase, rather than being immediately available upon establishment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing HQ is located at
- A.
Beale AFB, CA
- B.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ.
- C.
Hanscom AFB, MA
- D.
Donald J Trump Air Force Station
Correct Answer
B. Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ.Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location where the Contingency Response Wing HQ is situated.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group Commander?
- A.
O-6
- B.
O-7
- C.
O-5
- D.
O-No
Correct Answer
A. O-6Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group Commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which Force module supported by TDC is established within 48 Hrs and supports 50 to 150 users in a Cafe' environment?
- A.
Operate the Airbase
- B.
Command and Control
- C.
Force multipliers
- D.
Mummified remains
Correct Answer
B. Command and ControlExplanation
The correct answer is Command and Control. In a Cafe' environment, where there are 50 to 150 users, the Command and Control Force module is established within 48 hours to support the operations. This module helps in coordinating and managing the activities and resources of the users in an efficient manner. It ensures effective communication, decision-making, and overall control of the operations in the Cafe' environment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the operate the airbase module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D)?
- A.
16 km
- B.
8 km
- C.
12 km
- D.
66 km
Correct Answer
A. 16 kmExplanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center (NCC-D) in the operate the airbase module is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy
- B.
Combat Plans
- C.
Combat Operations
- D.
Combat Support
Correct Answer
D. Combat SupportExplanation
Combat Support is NOT a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The Air and Space Operations Center typically consists of divisions such as Strategy, Combat Plans, and Combat Operations, which are responsible for developing and executing military strategies, planning combat operations, and overseeing ongoing combat activities. However, Combat Support, which involves providing logistical and administrative support to combat operations, is not typically considered a division within the Air and Space Operations Center.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)
- A.
RQ-11B RAVEN
- B.
RQ-4 Global HawK
- C.
MQ-9 Reaper
- D.
TOP SECRET SHIT
Correct Answer
A. RQ-11B RAVENExplanation
The RQ-11B RAVEN is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and compact drone that is typically used for short-range surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be easily deployed and operated by a small team, making it suitable for tactical operations. The other options, RQ-4 Global Hawk and MQ-9 Reaper, are larger and more advanced UAS that are used for long-range and high-altitude missions. "TOP SECRET SHIT" is not a valid option and does not provide any relevant information.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is NOT a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3 Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X7 Cable and Antenna Systems
- D.
3D1X3 RF transmission Systems
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3 Cyber SuretyExplanation
The career field 3D0X3 Cyber Surety is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields (3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X7 Cable and Antenna Systems, and 3D1X3 RF transmission Systems) are all related to engineering installation units.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Engineering installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports 72hr rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 EIS
- B.
82 (EIS)
- C.
85 (EIS)
- D.
69 Engineering installation squadron
Correct Answer
C. 85 (EIS)Explanation
The correct answer is 85 (EIS). The question asks which Engineering installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72hr rapid response force during a crisis, providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. The answer 85 (EIS) indicates that this particular unit is responsible for this role.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1997
- B.
1998
- C.
1996
- D.
2017
Correct Answer
B. 1998Explanation
In 1998, all armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger allowed for a unified broadcasting service for the armed forces, providing consistent and reliable news, entertainment, and information to military personnel stationed around the world. The merger aimed to streamline operations, improve efficiency, and enhance the quality of programming for the armed forces community.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00-33A-1000
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1002
- C.
MPTO 00-33A-401
- D.
MPTO 00-33A-1001
Correct Answer
D. MPTO 00-33A-1001 -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are Initiate,
- A.
Plan, Execute, Monitor, and Control
- B.
Plan, Execute, Close, and Control
- C.
Plan, Do, Act, Murder
- D.
Plan, Operate, Close
Correct Answer
B. Plan, Execute, Close, and ControlExplanation
The correct answer is "Plan, Execute, Close, and Control". In project management, the first phase is planning, where the project objectives, scope, and timeline are defined. The next phase is execution, where the project plan is put into action. After the project is completed, the closing phase involves finalizing and delivering the project deliverables. Finally, the control phase involves monitoring and controlling the project progress to ensure it stays on track and meets the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does the project management provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Answers, Guidance and Education
- B.
Funding
- C.
Answers, Guidance and Questions
- D.
Requirements Management Plan
Correct Answer
A. Answers, Guidance and EducationExplanation
In the Initiate Phase of project management, answers, guidance, and education are provided. This phase involves setting the project's objectives, defining its scope, and identifying stakeholders. It is crucial to gather information, seek guidance from experts, and educate the team members about the project's goals and requirements. This helps in ensuring a clear understanding of the project's purpose and sets the foundation for successful project execution.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
Technical Orders
- B.
Technical Solutions
- C.
Priorities
- D.
Requirements
Correct Answer
D. RequirementsExplanation
The source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called "Requirements." These documents outline the specific criteria and specifications that must be met in order to fulfill the necessary capabilities within the cyberspace infrastructure. They serve as a guide for developing and implementing the required components and functionalities to support the infrastructure's objectives.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these items in contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost Management Plan
- B.
Allied support plan
- C.
Nostradamus Plan
- D.
Material plan
Correct Answer
A. Cost Management PlanExplanation
The correct answer is Cost Management Plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the objectives, scope, deliverables, and strategies for managing a project. It includes various plans that are essential for successful project execution, such as the Cost Management Plan. This plan outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout its lifecycle. It includes information on cost estimating techniques, cost baseline, cost tracking, and cost control procedures. The Cost Management Plan is crucial for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that financial resources are effectively managed.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
- A.
The status
- B.
A milestone
- C.
A deliverable
- D.
The final result of a project
Correct Answer
C. A deliverableExplanation
A deliverable refers to the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It is something tangible that can be delivered to the stakeholders upon completion of the project. A deliverable can be a document, a software application, a physical product, or any other work product that meets the project objectives. It represents the final result of the project and is usually agreed upon with the stakeholders during the project planning phase.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of a project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
BLM
- B.
Status Report
- C.
Preventative Actions
- D.
Defect Repairs
Correct Answer
D. Defect RepairsExplanation
Defect Repairs is the correct answer because it refers to a type of change request that is used to fix a portion of a project that does not meet the specified requirements. This could include resolving any errors, bugs, or faults in the project deliverables or addressing any non-compliance with the stated requirements. It aims to rectify the identified defects and ensure that the project aligns with the desired specifications.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 747
- B.
AFTO Form 757
- C.
AFTO Form 780-0-WA
- D.
AF Form 1747
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 747Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is commonly used in the United States Air Force to document the completion and validation of a project, specifically the installation of a communications system. This form serves as a record of the final inspection and ensures that all necessary steps have been taken to successfully complete the project. It is a crucial document that marks the end of the project and verifies the successful installation of the communications system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
- A.
MINOR
- B.
Major and Minor
- C.
MAJOR
- D.
Critical
Correct Answer
C. MAJORExplanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "MAJOR" because major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's functionality and ability to meet the specified requirements. These exceptions are more severe than minor exceptions and may require immediate attention and resolution in order to ensure the system's proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up
- B.
Controller
- C.
Organization
- D.
Documenting
Correct Answer
A. Follow-upExplanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves regularly checking and monitoring the project's progress, addressing any issues or obstacles that arise, and taking necessary actions to keep the project on track. By providing timely follow-up, project managers can ensure that tasks are completed on time, resources are allocated effectively, and any deviations from the project plan are addressed promptly. This helps to maintain project momentum and increase the chances of successful project delivery.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1156
- B.
AF Form 1146
- C.
AF form 1122
- D.
AFTO MTU-1001
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1146Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1146. This form is used to request changes during a project. It is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for submitting change requests. The other forms listed are not intended for this specific use and may not have the necessary fields or information required for requesting changes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Implementing Organization
- B.
COMM SQ
- C.
I-NOSC
- D.
Project Manager
Correct Answer
A. Implementing OrganizationExplanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are the ones who actually carry out the necessary steps and actions to put the solution into place. The other options, such as COMM SQ, I-NOSC, and Project Manager, may have roles or involvement in the process, but they are not specifically tasked with implementing the solution.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Program Coordinator
- B.
Project Monitor
- C.
Project Manager
- D.
Program Action Officer
Correct Answer
D. Program Action OfficerExplanation
A Program Action Officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing program activities, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget, and providing support to the program manager in decision-making and planning. They act as a liaison between different teams and stakeholders, ensuring effective communication and collaboration. The Program Action Officer plays a crucial role in the successful execution of the program and helps in achieving its objectives.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The Five Key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycles are service strategy,
- A.
Service Design, service status, service capabilities, and continual service improvement
- B.
Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- C.
Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service commitment
- D.
Service architecture, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
Correct Answer
B. Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvementExplanation
The correct answer is "Service Design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement." This is because these stages represent the key components of the ITIL service life cycle. Service Design involves designing new or changed services to meet business requirements. Service Transition is the process of moving services from the development stage to the live environment. Service Operation is the stage where services are delivered and managed on a day-to-day basis. Continual Service Improvement is an ongoing process of analyzing and improving the performance of services.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In what (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principals used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service Strategy
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Design
- D.
Service Improvement
Correct Answer
A. Service StrategyExplanation
In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle. This stage focuses on understanding and defining the organization's overall business objectives and how IT services can support them. It involves analyzing the market, identifying customer needs, and creating a strategy to deliver value to customers. By determining the underlying principles, Service Strategy ensures that the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes align with the organization's overall strategy and goals.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In what (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented
- A.
Service Design
- B.
Service Life
- C.
Service Transition
- D.
Service Operation
Correct Answer
C. Service TransitionExplanation
Service Transition is the correct answer because this stage in ITIL is responsible for planning, coordinating, and implementing changes to the IT infrastructure, including the introduction of new services. It involves creating the framework to ensure that the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented, including activities such as testing, training, and managing the release of the service into the live environment.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Engineering Support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
Tier 3
- B.
Tier 4
- C.
Tier 2
- D.
Tier 1
Correct Answer
C. Tier 2Explanation
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator at Tier 2. This means that the support is provided at a level where the Cyberspace Systems Integrator is responsible for integrating and managing the engineering efforts for the MAJCOMs. Tier 2 support typically involves more complex issues that require specialized knowledge and expertise.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)
- A.
AFI 33-150
- B.
AFI 33-140
- C.
AFI 33-155
- D.
AFI 33-401
Correct Answer
A. AFI 33-150Explanation
AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides the guidance for the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-150 is the Air Force Instruction that specifically outlines the policies and procedures for managing and operating cyberspace infrastructure. It covers topics such as network planning, configuration management, and security measures. Therefore, AFI 33-150 is the appropriate guidance for the use of CIPS.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which CIPS functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order.
- A.
Work Orders
- B.
Trouble Tickets
- C.
Requests
- D.
Snorlax
Correct Answer
A. Work OrdersExplanation
Work Orders are the correct answer because they support enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in the form of a maintenance task order. Work Orders are typically completed within a short timeframe of less than 30 days, making them suitable for addressing maintenance and improvement needs quickly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local CS implement using base level support resourses?
- A.
PMP cert
- B.
Contract
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Self-Help
Correct Answer
D. Self-HelpExplanation
The local CS implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support resources. This means that they rely on their own efforts and resources to fund their projects or initiatives, rather than seeking external funding sources. Self-Help funding allows the local CS to be self-sufficient and independent in carrying out their activities, without relying on external contracts or inorganic sources of funding like grants or loans.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00-33D-2002
- B.
TO 00-33D-3003
- C.
TO 00-33D-1001
- D.
CIPS
Correct Answer
B. TO 00-33D-3003Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00-33D-3003. This is because TO 00-33D-3003 is listed along with other technical order numbers, while the other options (TO 00-33D-2002 and TO 00-33D-1001) are also listed but do not pertain to the specific question of finding a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. CIPS is not mentioned in relation to the question at all.Rate this question:
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- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
PM
- B.
Base Civil engineer
- C.
Infected work center
- D.
AIDS
Correct Answer
B. Base Civil engineerExplanation
A Base Civil engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because a Base Civil engineer typically focuses on the design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects, such as roads, bridges, and buildings. While they may provide input or expertise related to technical solutions in their specific field, their primary role is not to review and validate technical solutions across all areas.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requires additional funding
- B.
Requires additional manpower
- C.
Mobility deployment eqmt
- D.
Requires services from outside agencies
Correct Answer
A. Requires additional fundingExplanation
One of the causes for requirements to be considered special is when they require additional funding. This means that the project or task at hand needs extra financial resources to be completed successfully. However, the other options listed (requires additional manpower, mobility deployment equipment, requires services from outside agencies) can also be considered causes for requirements to be considered special, as they all involve additional resources or external assistance.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
A. Concept PlanExplanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only provide a summary of the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan outlines the overall strategy and approach to achieve the mission, it does not go into detail about the specific logistical and mobility needs that will be required to execute the plan.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Functional plan
- B.
Operational Plan
- C.
Concept Plan
- D.
Supporting Plan
Correct Answer
D. Supporting PlanExplanation
When tasked by the supported combatant commander, a supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans. A supporting plan is a detailed plan that provides specific guidance and resources to assist in the execution of the overall contingency plan. It outlines the specific actions, tasks, and responsibilities of various units or organizations involved in the operation. This plan helps to coordinate and synchronize the efforts of different entities, ensuring that they work together effectively to achieve the mission objectives.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
- A.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
- B.
Programming Plan (PPLAN)
- C.
Program Action Directive (PAD)
- D.
Time Phased Force and Development Data (TPFDD)
Correct Answer
A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraphExplanation
The correct answer is the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because if the instructions provided are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, the information on base functional area support is included in the OPLAN major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. It provides guidance and direction for the execution of the operation and includes information on various aspects, including base functional area support. Therefore, the OPLAN major paragraph is the appropriate place to include this information.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the comm systems under contract during Peacetime?
- A.
Logistics
- B.
Assumptions
- C.
Administration
- D.
Special Measures
Correct Answer
A. LogisticsExplanation
The correct answer is Logistics. In the Annex K, the area that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communication systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on the logistical support required to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of communication systems during wartime, such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and personnel support.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 21, 2016Quiz Created by
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