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Molecular Biology Exam Iii

66 Questions  I  By Ekanye
Molecular Biology Exam III
This exam cover chapters 14,15,17, 18 and 24

  
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1.  Which of the following experiments was useful in determing the existence of introns in the adenovirus genome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2.  You have isolated a new species of mRNA using an oligo-dT column. You then perform an R-looping experiment to determine if the gene encoding for your mRNA contains introns. Below is a representation of the electron micrograph results. Which of the followign can you conclude from your experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3.  The first two bases and the last two bases in the splicing signal consensus sequence are
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.  Which of the following is the name for the YEAST 40s particle where mRNA splicing takes place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5.  "Snurps" or snRNPs are composed of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.  The catalytic center of the spliceosome appears to include
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7.  Which of the following is the first snRNP to bind during the assembly stage of the spliceosome cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.  Which of the following snRNP is mismatched with its function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
9.  The binding of which of the following snRNPs to spliceosome requires ATP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10.  Spliceosomal lariat is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
11.  Please put the following steps of Cap synthesis in the correct order. (1) N7 of the capping guanine is methylated (2) The terminal phosphate is removed from the pre-mRNA(3) A capping GMP is added to the pre-mRNA(4) The 2'-O-methyl group of the penultimate nucleotide is methylated
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
12.  Which of the following is NOT a function of the mRNA Cap?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
13.  Although snRNA U1 fucntions in the nucleus, it receives a 5' Cap to enhances its
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
14.  Which of the following is the mRNA polyadenylation signal motif found in mammalian cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
15.  When does capping of the pre-mRNA occur?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
16.  Which of the following is not required for mammalian cell polyadenylation of pre-mRNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
17.  Uncapped mRNA is much more stable than capped mRNA.
A.
B.
18.  The 5' cap of mRNA has no effect on the translatability of the mRNA
A.
B.
19.  Poly (A) tails are added to the 5' end of the mRNA molecule
A.
B.
20.  The additon of poly (A) to mRNA seems to be important for its translatability.
A.
B.
21.  RNA polymerase II transcription of a gene usually stops at the polyadenylation site.
A.
B.
22.  Pre-mRNA must be cleaved before it is polyadenylated
A.
B.
23.  Once a mRNA loses its poly (A) tail, it is imported back into the nucleus
A.
B.
24.  Polyadenylation is not required for efficient transport of mRNA out of the nucleus
A.
B.
25.  Once the poly (A) tail is added to the mRNA it is very difficult to remove
A.
B.
26.  Pre-mRNA processing begins during transcription.
A.
B.
27.  Experiment using yeast as a model have shown that cleavage of the poly (A) tail is necessary for transcription termination.
A.
B.
28.  The Shine-Dagarno sequence can be found in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
29.  The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
30.  Put the following steps on prokaryotic translation initiation in the correct order. (1) Binding of IF1, IF2, and GTP to the 30 S subunit (2) Binding of IF3 to the 30S subunit. (3) Binding of the 50S subunit and loss of IF1 and IF3(4) Dissociation of the 70S ribosome. (5) Formation of the 70S initiation complex by dissociation of IF2 and GTP hydrolysis. (6) Formation of the 30S initiantion complex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
31.  Which of the following initiation factors prevents reassociation of the 70s ribosome by binding to the free 30s subunit? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
32.  Which of the following is not part of the 30s initiation complex? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
33.  Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function?  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6 This initiation factor is involved in binding tRNA to the ribosome. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
34.  Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function?  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6This initiation factor binds to the 40s subunit and inhibits re-association of the 40s and 60s subunits
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
35.  Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function?  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6This initiation factor is a Cap binding protein.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
36.  Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function?  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6This initiation factor binds to the 60S subunit and inhibits re-association of the 40S and 60S subunits
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
37.  Match the following eukaryotic translation initiation factors with their correct function?  A. eIF2 B. eIF1 C. eIF3 D. eIF4F E. eIF6This initiation factor aids in ribosome scanning to locate the initiation codon.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
38.  Which of the following is the best definition of translation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
39.  Which is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
40.  Which of the following statements is not true concerning the genetic code?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
41.  Genetic code has all EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
42.  Direction of translation
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
43.  EF-Tu is an important protein in cells whose function is to
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
44.  Please place the steps of translation elongation in the correct order. (1) Peptidyl transferase forms a peptide bond between the peptide in the P site and the newly arrived aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site. (2) EF-G, with GTP, translocates peptidyl-tRNA to the P site (3) Ef-Tu, with GTP, binds an aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosomal A site
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
45.  Termination codons include three nonsense codons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
46.  Which of the following are the three naturally occurring stop codons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
47.  Which of the following molecules does not resemble a tRNA molecule?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
48.  Misfolded proteins can be toxic to cells and lead to serious dieases in humans. Which of the following diseases is caused by a misfolded protein?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
49.  Which is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
50.  Which of the following enzymes is used to search for CpG islands? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
51.  How were the genetic markers that are linked to Huntington disease genes screened originally? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
52.  Regarding to identifying the gene for Huntington disease (HD), which is not correct? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
53.  How were Huntington disease genes identified? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
54.  Which of the following processes was used to locate the gene responsible for Huntington disease? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
55.  With respect to human genome project, which approach is wrong to take? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
56.  Which of the following was the first free living organism to have its genome sequenced? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
57.  Which of the following free living organisms has the smallest genome, containing about only 470 genes? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
58.  Which is not correct about annotated genes? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
59.  Which is wrong? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
60.  Which of the following is not a finding from analysis of the complete DNA sequence of human chromosome 22? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
61.  The estimated total number of genes in the human genome is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
62.  DNA microarrays can be used to study 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
63.  Which of the following are techniques used for genomic functional profiling? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
64.  Why proteomics is useful? Because of 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
65.  Bioinformatics databases include all EXCEPT 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
66.  Genomic sequence information can be applied to study which of the following? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
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