Genetics Final Exam

100 Questions  I  By ProfGentle
Genetics Quizzes & Trivia
This is a Cumulative Exam focusing on Genetics

  
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1.  The chromosome theory of inheritance states that 
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B.
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2.                  opens the double helix for replication machinery.
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B.
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D.
E.
3.  A man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B could never produce a child with blood type
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B.
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E.
4.  For a species with a diploid number of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in the somatic nuclei of individuals that are tetraploid?
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B.
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D.
E.
5.  Bacterial Recombination requires?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.  Assume that a cross is made between tall and dwarf tobacco plants.  The F1 generation showed intermediate height, while the F2 generation showed a distribution of height ranging from tall to dwarf, like the original parents, and many heights between the extremes.  These data are consistent with the following mode of inheritance:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7.  Which element of the lac operon can act in cis or trans?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.  The sugar ribose differs from deoxyribose by an OH group at the 5' C position 
A.
B.
9.  The basic structure of nucleotide includes the following components
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B.
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D.
E.
10.  Which of the following is most likely to cause a frameshift mutation?
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B.
C.
D.
E.
11.  Proto-oncogenes are found in normal, non-cancerous cells and are responsible for normal cell processes.
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B.
12.  In human males, genes on the X chromosome are
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13.  Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by 5' - 3' phosphodiester bonds.
A.
B.
14.  Frameshift mutations generally have more drastic effects on the phenotype than do substitutions.
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B.
15.  If the sequence of a nontemplate strand of DNA is 5’-ACCGCATCCGAGTCAC-3’, what is the sequence of the primary product of transcription?
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B.
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16.  Chromosomal inversions result in duplications and deletions
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B.
17.  The primary structure of a protein is determined by
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18.  Which of the following is a nonhistone protein found in chromatin? 
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B.
C.
D.
19.  The codon for methionine appears only at the beginning of the mRNA for a protein, not in the middle or in the end.
A.
B.
20.  Most genes in prokaryotes and eukaryotes are regulated primarily at which level of expression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
21.  The mating system in E.coli is known as?
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22.  Proto-oncogenes cause cancer.
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B.
23.  The correct order of activity in replication is
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24.  An individual heterozygous for d e f was crossed to a homozygous recessive individual (d/d e/e f/f).  The following offspring were recovered. +  +  +             39 +  e  f               372 d  +  f               7 d  e  f               47 +  e  +              5 d  +  +              412  What is the correct order of these genes?
A.
B.
C.
25.  The term used to describe genes that are evolutionarily related is?
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B.
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D.
E.
26.  Regulation of the lac operon of E. coli by lactose is both negative and inducible
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B.
27.  In a pea plant that is heterozygous for seed color, what proportion of gametes will carry the recessive allele?
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B.
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D.
E.
28.  In the absence of glucose, the CAP protein binds to a DNA sequence adjacent to the promoter of the lac operon.  Binding of CAP helps RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and allows for a high level of transcription of the lac operon.  Regulation of the lac operon by the CAP protein is an example of
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29.  Mendel crossed purebred wrinkled, green-seeded plants with purebred round, yellow-seeded plants.  Round seeds are recessive to wrinkled, and yellow seeds are recessive to green. The F1 progeny were self-crossed.  Which of the following numbers are most likely to result from this cross.
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B.
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D.
E.
30.  Plasmids that can confer the ability to conjugate are known as?
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31.  Messenger RNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes
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B.
32.  An organism's complete set of genes is called its 
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33.  For any gene with multiple alleles, a diploid organism may have a maximum of ________ alleles for that locus.
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34.  Given the following sequence, how large (# amino acids) is the most likely eukaryotic polypeptide produced?                                       ACGAUGAGGAGGAUGGUCAAUGAUGCUGGCUGUUGAUAUUAACAU
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35.  In an interacting gene pair, the gene whose expression is masked by another gene is the         gene.
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36.  Which of the following statements is true:
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B.
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37.  In the absence of tryptophan, the genes of the trp operon are not expressed.
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B.
38.  Hershey and Chase differentiated between DNA and protein by:
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39.  DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is?
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40.  What is the name for the statistical measure used to describe sample variability
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41.  DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
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42.  The phenomenon of crossovers in nearby regions is called
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43.  The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop
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B.
44.  A Barr body is an
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45.  A(n)                  gene masks the expression of a different, nonallelic gene.
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46.  ) If purple (P) is dominant to white (p) and axial (A) is dominant to terminal (a), and in a cross of white, axial to purple, axial the ratio of offspring is   6/16 white, axial;       2/16 white, terminal;       6/16 purple, axial;       2/16 purple, terminal,                                     What is the genotype of the parents?
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47.  Which of the following codon pairs specify amino acids
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D.
48.  At the conclusion of meiosis, there are ________ cells
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49.  Phosphorylation of pRB is carried out by?
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50.  The ratio of (A+T) to (G+C) in a double-stranded DNA molecule is equal to 1
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B.
51.  The appearance of traits expressed by genes in association with environmental influence is referred to as the organism's 
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52.  Enzyme involved in transcription of tRNA
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D.
53.  Which of the following enzymes initiate chain synthesis on a template during replication? 
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54.  If the percentage of uracil in a double-stranded RNA molecule is 30%, the percentage of cytosine is?
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55.  If the sequence of an RNA molecule is 5’-GGCAUCGACG-3’, what is the sequence of the template strand of DNA?
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56.  During replication, primase adds an RNA primer to DNA.
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B.
57.     ??       speciation is initiated by a geographic barrier to gene flow
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58.  Which of the following is not different between eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription?
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59.  The genetic material of eukaryotic cells is duplicated during which stage of cell cycle?
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60.  Which of the following groups of proteins is NOT commonly known to include oncogenes?
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61.  In a double-stranded RNA molecule of 10,000 base pairs, the approximate number of complete turns is?
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62.  In lilies, white flowers (W) are dominant to purple flowers (w).  If two plants that are heterozygous for flower color are mated, the offspring might have which genotype? 
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63.  For most protein-encoding genes, the synonymous rate of change is:
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64.  Before a prokaryotic mRNA can be translated, it must be modified by the 
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65.  The genetic code is said to be “degenerate” because 
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66.  Which of the following statements about an animal bearing a somatic mutation is true?
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67.  G and U are present in both DNA and RNA
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B.
68.                  relieves torsional stress.
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69.  A purine’s being replaced by a different purine is called a transition mutation.
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B.
70.      ??      speciation arises in the absence of any geographic barrier to gene flow:
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71.  A person who is known to have a particular genotype does not show the phenotype specified by the gene. This is an example of 
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72.  All RNAs are translated.
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B.
73.  Which event is not normally associated with development of cancer?
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E.
74.  The recombination frequency between three genes can be used to calculate
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75.  Given the sequence 5’-AGTTACCTGA-3’ what would be the sequence of the complementary DNA strand?
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76.  ________ results when chromatids fail to separate and move to opposite poles during anaphase. 
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77.  In catabolite repression of the lac operon, glucose affects most directly the
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E.
78.  The transfer of bacterial genes from one cell to another requires?
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E.
79.  A wingless fruit fly is isolated from a population after exposure of the parental generation to EMS.  Eventually the mutation is shown to have occurred within the coding sequence of a gene that changes a 5’-GGC-3’ codon (encoding glycine) to a 5’-AGC-3’ codon (encoding serine).  Which term would not correctly describe this mutation?
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B.
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E.
80.  Nonsense mutations do not alter DNA sequence information.
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B.
81.  Chromatin contains
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E.
82.  Crossing over occurs most frequently during which stage of cell division? 
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C.
D.
E.
83.  The ratio of (A+G) to (T+C) in a double-stranded DNA molecule is equal to 1
A.
B.
84.  Enzyme involved in transcription of mRNA
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.                   contains an RNA molecule which is required for function.
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B.
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D.
E.
86.  Which of the following must exist within a population before evolution can take place?
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B.
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E.
87.                 actually synthesizes RNA, not DNA. 
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E.
88.  That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than apparently "needed" and that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is more typical in
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89.  An allopolyploid consists of more than 2 haploid sets of chromosomes, originating from the same species.
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B.
90.  Introns are removed from precursor mRNAs by spliceosomes
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B.
91.  In the absence of allolactose, the lac operon is constitutively transcribed.
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B.
92.  Homologous genes in the same organism are called?
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E.
93.  Typically, a small subset of genes are expressed in each type of cell within an organism.
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B.
94.                  removes RNA primer.
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95.  When one speaks of a 5' cap, one is usually describing?
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E.
96.  A eukaryotic promoter contains a Pribnow box
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B.
97.  The two major components of Tobacco Mosaic Virus are?
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B.
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E.
98.  Homologous genes found in different species that evolved from a common ancestor are called?
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E.
99.  Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers are red (R1R1), 18 flowers are pink (R1R2), and 1 flower is white (R2R2), the frequency of the R1 allele is 0.9.
A.
B.
100.  Enzyme that charges tRNAs
A.
B.
C.
D.
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