Genetics Final Exam

100 Questions  I  By ProfGentle
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Genetics Quizzes & Trivia
This is a Cumulative Exam focusing on Genetics

  
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1.  In a pea plant that is heterozygous for seed color, what proportion of gametes will carry the recessive allele?
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2.  A(n)                  gene masks the expression of a different, nonallelic gene.
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3.  The genetic material of eukaryotic cells is duplicated during which stage of cell cycle?
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4.  The appearance of traits expressed by genes in association with environmental influence is referred to as the organism's 
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5.  A man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B could never produce a child with blood type
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6.  In an interacting gene pair, the gene whose expression is masked by another gene is the         gene.
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7.  In human males, genes on the X chromosome are
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8.  A Barr body is an
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9.  The basic structure of nucleotide includes the following components
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10.  Bacterial Recombination requires?
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11.  The two major components of Tobacco Mosaic Virus are?
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12.  Which of the following enzymes initiate chain synthesis on a template during replication? 
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13.  Assume that a cross is made between tall and dwarf tobacco plants.  The F1 generation showed intermediate height, while the F2 generation showed a distribution of height ranging from tall to dwarf, like the original parents, and many heights between the extremes.  These data are consistent with the following mode of inheritance:
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14.  Given the sequence 5’-AGTTACCTGA-3’ what would be the sequence of the complementary DNA strand?
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15.  If the percentage of uracil in a double-stranded RNA molecule is 30%, the percentage of cytosine is?
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16.  In a double-stranded RNA molecule of 10,000 base pairs, the approximate number of complete turns is?
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17.  Hershey and Chase differentiated between DNA and protein by:
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18.  What is the name for the statistical measure used to describe sample variability
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19.  For a species with a diploid number of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in the somatic nuclei of individuals that are tetraploid?
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20.  ________ results when chromatids fail to separate and move to opposite poles during anaphase. 
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21.  The recombination frequency between three genes can be used to calculate
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22.  The phenomenon of crossovers in nearby regions is called
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23.  The mating system in E.coli is known as?
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24.  The transfer of bacterial genes from one cell to another requires?
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25.  Which of the following is a nonhistone protein found in chromatin? 
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26.  Chromatin contains
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27.  Plasmids that can confer the ability to conjugate are known as?
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28.  Which of the following codon pairs specify amino acids
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29.  DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is?
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30.                 actually synthesizes RNA, not DNA. 
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31.                   contains an RNA molecule which is required for function.
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32.                  relieves torsional stress.
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33.                  opens the double helix for replication machinery.
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34.                  removes RNA primer.
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35.  Which of the following is not different between eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription?
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36.  The correct order of activity in replication is
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37.  Before a prokaryotic mRNA can be translated, it must be modified by the 
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38.  Enzyme involved in transcription of tRNA
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39.  Enzyme involved in transcription of mRNA
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40.  DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
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41.  Enzyme that charges tRNAs
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42.  Given the following sequence, how large (# amino acids) is the most likely eukaryotic polypeptide produced?                                       ACGAUGAGGAGGAUGGUCAAUGAUGCUGGCUGUUGAUAUUAACAU
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43.  If the sequence of a nontemplate strand of DNA is 5’-ACCGCATCCGAGTCAC-3’, what is the sequence of the primary product of transcription?
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44.  The genetic code is said to be “degenerate” because 
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45.  When one speaks of a 5' cap, one is usually describing?
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46.  If the sequence of an RNA molecule is 5’-GGCAUCGACG-3’, what is the sequence of the template strand of DNA?
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47.  The primary structure of a protein is determined by
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48.  In the absence of glucose, the CAP protein binds to a DNA sequence adjacent to the promoter of the lac operon.  Binding of CAP helps RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and allows for a high level of transcription of the lac operon.  Regulation of the lac operon by the CAP protein is an example of
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49.  Most genes in prokaryotes and eukaryotes are regulated primarily at which level of expression?
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50.  Which element of the lac operon can act in cis or trans?
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51.  In catabolite repression of the lac operon, glucose affects most directly the
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52.  Which of the following statements about an animal bearing a somatic mutation is true?
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53.  Which of the following is most likely to cause a frameshift mutation?
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54.  Phosphorylation of pRB is carried out by?
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55.  The term used to describe genes that are evolutionarily related is?
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56.  Homologous genes found in different species that evolved from a common ancestor are called?
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57.  Homologous genes in the same organism are called?
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58.  For most protein-encoding genes, the synonymous rate of change is:
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59.      ??      speciation arises in the absence of any geographic barrier to gene flow:
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60.     ??       speciation is initiated by a geographic barrier to gene flow
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61.  Which of the following must exist within a population before evolution can take place?
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62.  Which of the following statements is true:
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63.  A wingless fruit fly is isolated from a population after exposure of the parental generation to EMS.  Eventually the mutation is shown to have occurred within the coding sequence of a gene that changes a 5’-GGC-3’ codon (encoding glycine) to a 5’-AGC-3’ codon (encoding serine).  Which term would not correctly describe this mutation?
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64.  Which of the following groups of proteins is NOT commonly known to include oncogenes?
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65.  Which event is not normally associated with development of cancer?
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66.  Typically, a small subset of genes are expressed in each type of cell within an organism.
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67.  Regulation of the lac operon of E. coli by lactose is both negative and inducible
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68.  In the absence of allolactose, the lac operon is constitutively transcribed.
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69.  In the absence of tryptophan, the genes of the trp operon are not expressed.
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B.
70.  A purine’s being replaced by a different purine is called a transition mutation.
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B.
71.  Frameshift mutations generally have more drastic effects on the phenotype than do substitutions.
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72.  Nonsense mutations do not alter DNA sequence information.
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73.  The presence of a single mutated gene is sufficient for retinoblastoma cancer to develop
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74.  Proto-oncogenes are found in normal, non-cancerous cells and are responsible for normal cell processes.
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75.  Proto-oncogenes cause cancer.
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76.  A eukaryotic promoter contains a Pribnow box
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77.  Introns are removed from precursor mRNAs by spliceosomes
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78.  During replication, primase adds an RNA primer to DNA.
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79.  Messenger RNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes
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80.  Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by 5' - 3' phosphodiester bonds.
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81.  All RNAs are translated.
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82.  The codon for methionine appears only at the beginning of the mRNA for a protein, not in the middle or in the end.
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83.  Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers are red (R1R1), 18 flowers are pink (R1R2), and 1 flower is white (R2R2), the frequency of the R1 allele is 0.9.
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B.
84.  The sugar ribose differs from deoxyribose by an OH group at the 5' C position 
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85.  G and U are present in both DNA and RNA
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86.  Chromosomal inversions result in duplications and deletions
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87.  An allopolyploid consists of more than 2 haploid sets of chromosomes, originating from the same species.
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88.  The ratio of (A+G) to (T+C) in a double-stranded DNA molecule is equal to 1
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89.  The ratio of (A+T) to (G+C) in a double-stranded DNA molecule is equal to 1
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B.
90.  An individual heterozygous for d e f was crossed to a homozygous recessive individual (d/d e/e f/f).  The following offspring were recovered. +  +  +             39 +  e  f               372 d  +  f               7 d  e  f               47 +  e  +              5 d  +  +              412  What is the correct order of these genes?
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91.  That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than apparently "needed" and that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is more typical in
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92.  For any gene with multiple alleles, a diploid organism may have a maximum of ________ alleles for that locus.
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93.  ) If purple (P) is dominant to white (p) and axial (A) is dominant to terminal (a), and in a cross of white, axial to purple, axial the ratio of offspring is   6/16 white, axial;       2/16 white, terminal;       6/16 purple, axial;       2/16 purple, terminal,                                     What is the genotype of the parents?
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94.  Mendel crossed purebred wrinkled, green-seeded plants with purebred round, yellow-seeded plants.  Round seeds are recessive to wrinkled, and yellow seeds are recessive to green. The F1 progeny were self-crossed.  Which of the following numbers are most likely to result from this cross.
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95.  An organism's complete set of genes is called its 
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96.  Crossing over occurs most frequently during which stage of cell division? 
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97.  The chromosome theory of inheritance states that 
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98.  At the conclusion of meiosis, there are ________ cells
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99.  In lilies, white flowers (W) are dominant to purple flowers (w).  If two plants that are heterozygous for flower color are mated, the offspring might have which genotype? 
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100.  A person who is known to have a particular genotype does not show the phenotype specified by the gene. This is an example of 
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E.
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