AST Practice Test - Part 1 Of 2

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AST Practice Test - Part 1 Of 2 - Quiz

250 question practice exam for AST certification. Topics covered are basic sciences, preoperative patient care, preoperative case management, intraoperative case management, postoperative case management, surgical specialties/procedures, and ancillary functions.
Part 1: questions 1-135


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In an inguinal herniorrhaphy the spermatic cord is

    • A.

      Ligated with a hemoclip

    • B.

      Retracted witha Penrose drain

    • C.

      Incised for ease of access

    • D.

      Clamped with a Kelly

    Correct Answer
    B. Retracted witha Penrose drain
    Explanation
    In an inguinal herniorrhaphy, the spermatic cord needs to be retracted in order to access and repair the hernia. This is typically done using a Penrose drain, which is a soft, flexible tube that is placed around the spermatic cord to gently retract it out of the surgical field. The use of a Penrose drain allows for better visualization and manipulation of the hernia, making the procedure easier and more effective.

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  • 2. 

    Polyglycolic acid sutures are

    • A.

      Absorbed by an enzyme action

    • B.

      Absorbed by the process of hydrolysis

    • C.

      Nonabsorbable

    • D.

      Encapsulated by body tissue

    Correct Answer
    B. Absorbed by the process of hydrolysis
    Explanation
    Polyglycolic acid sutures are absorbed by the process of hydrolysis. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction in which a compound is broken down by reacting with water. In the case of polyglycolic acid sutures, they are broken down into smaller molecules by the action of water molecules, allowing for their absorption by the body. This process is different from enzyme action or encapsulation by body tissue, as it involves the breakdown of the sutures through a chemical reaction with water.

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  • 3. 

    The pounds of pressure necessary in a flash steam sterilizer set at 270F is

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      17

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      27

    Correct Answer
    D. 27
    Explanation
    Flash steam sterilizers are used to sterilize medical equipment and supplies. The temperature at which the sterilizer is set determines the pounds of pressure necessary for proper sterilization. In this case, the sterilizer is set at 270F, which requires a pounds of pressure of 27. This means that the steam inside the sterilizer needs to reach a pressure of 27 pounds per square inch (psi) in order to effectively sterilize the items.

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  • 4. 

    A patient is having elective surgery.  The nurse notes that her white cell count is 14,000 cu mm.  This would indicate

    • A.

      There may be an inflammation or infection present

    • B.

      The count is within normal range, and surgery can proceed

    • C.

      The count is below normal

    • D.

      There may be an anemic condition present, and surgery should be canceled

    Correct Answer
    A. There may be an inflammation or infection present
    Explanation
    A white cell count of 14,000 cu mm is higher than the normal range, which typically falls between 4,500 and 11,000 cu mm. This elevated count suggests that there may be an inflammation or infection present in the patient's body. Inflammation and infection can cause an increase in white blood cells as the body's immune system responds to fight off the invader. It is important to note this finding before proceeding with elective surgery, as the presence of inflammation or infection may increase the risk of complications during the procedure.

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  • 5. 

    Distal refers to

    • A.

      Closer to the body

    • B.

      Away from the body

    • C.

      In the center of the body

    • D.

      Toward the feet

    Correct Answer
    B. Away from the body
    Explanation
    Distal refers to a position or location that is farther away from the body. It is the opposite of proximal, which means closer to the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "away from the body".

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  • 6. 

    Meckel's diverticulum is found in the

    • A.

      Esophagus

    • B.

      Sigmoid colon

    • C.

      Ileum

    • D.

      Duodenum

    Correct Answer
    C. Ileum
    Explanation
    Meckel's diverticulum is an abnormal pouch-like structure that is present in the small intestine, specifically in the ileum. It is a congenital condition that occurs due to incomplete closure of the omphalomesenteric duct during fetal development. This diverticulum can cause various complications such as intestinal obstruction, bleeding, and inflammation. It is important to identify and surgically remove Meckel's diverticulum if it causes symptoms or complications. Therefore, the correct answer is ileum.

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  • 7. 

    In which case would a Frazier suction be used?

    • A.

      Eye

    • B.

      Ear

    • C.

      Gynecology

    • D.

      General

    Correct Answer
    B. Ear
    Explanation
    A Frazier suction would be used in the case of ear procedures. The Frazier suction is a specialized tool designed for delicate and precise suctioning in the ear. It has a fine, slender tip that allows for accurate suctioning of fluids or debris from the ear canal during procedures such as ear surgeries or ear cleanings. This suction is specifically designed for ear procedures and is not commonly used in other medical specialties.

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  • 8. 

    Airborne contamination is reduced by recirculation of filtered outside air at a rate of

    • A.

      12 air exchanges per minute

    • B.

      12 air exchanges per hour

    • C.

      20 air exchanges per minute

    • D.

      25 air exchanges per hour

    Correct Answer
    D. 25 air exchanges per hour
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 25 air exchanges per hour. This means that the air inside a space is completely replaced with filtered outside air 25 times in one hour. This high rate of air exchange helps to reduce airborne contamination by constantly bringing in fresh, clean air and removing any pollutants or contaminants that may be present in the indoor environment. The more air exchanges per hour, the more effective the reduction of airborne contamination.

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  • 9. 

    The purpose of OSHA is to

    • A.

      Ensure safe and healthful working conditions

    • B.

      Provide a mechanism for peer review

    • C.

      Establish quality assurance

    • D.

      Provide standards of patient care

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure safe and healthful working conditions
    Explanation
    The purpose of OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions. OSHA is responsible for developing and enforcing regulations that protect workers from hazards in the workplace. They set standards for safety and health, conduct inspections, provide training and education, and promote research to improve workplace safety. By ensuring safe and healthful working conditions, OSHA aims to prevent workplace accidents, injuries, and illnesses, and protect the well-being of workers.

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  • 10. 

    Body heat in pediatric patients is controlled with all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Wrapping child in plastic materials

    • B.

      Warming blanket

    • C.

      Increasing room temperature

    • D.

      Hot water bottles

    Correct Answer
    D. Hot water bottles
    Explanation
    Hot water bottles are not used to control body heat in pediatric patients. They can potentially cause burns or injuries to the child's skin. Therefore, hot water bottles are not a recommended method for regulating body temperature in pediatric patients.

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  • 11. 

    If a family is contacted but cannot come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, the surgeon should

    • A.

      Wait until they arrive

    • B.

      Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication

    • C.

      Ask another physician to sign

    • D.

      Refuse to do the case

    Correct Answer
    B. Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication
    Explanation
    If a family is contacted but cannot come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, the surgeon should accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication. This is because emergency surgery may be a matter of life or death, and waiting for the family to arrive may cause unnecessary delays and put the patient's life at risk. Accepting permission through alternative means ensures that the necessary medical intervention can be carried out promptly while still respecting the family's wishes.

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  • 12. 

    Unwrapped instruments are sterilized at 270F (132C) for a minimum of

    • A.

      3 minutes

    • B.

      5 minutes

    • C.

      7 minutes

    • D.

      10 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 minutes
    Explanation
    In order to sterilize unwrapped instruments, they need to be exposed to a high temperature for a specific amount of time. The correct answer is 3 minutes. This means that the instruments should be subjected to a temperature of 270F (132C) for at least 3 minutes to ensure effective sterilization.

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  • 13. 

    A retention suture passes through all fo the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Mesentary tissue

    • B.

      Rectus muscle

    • C.

      Fascial tissue

    • D.

      Subcutaneous tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesentary tissue
    Explanation
    A retention suture is a type of surgical suture used to hold tissues together and prevent them from separating. It is typically used in cases where there is a risk of wound dehiscence or tissue separation. The suture passes through various layers of tissue to provide strong support. In this case, the correct answer is mesentery tissue. The mesentery is a fold of tissue that attaches the intestines to the abdominal wall and contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics. It is not typically included in a retention suture as it is not directly involved in holding the tissues together.

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  • 14. 

    A hernia that passes through the inguinal ring into the inguinal canal is termed

    • A.

      Direct

    • B.

      Indiret

    • C.

      Pantaloon

    • D.

      Sliding

    Correct Answer
    B. Indiret
    Explanation
    An indirect hernia occurs when a portion of the intestine or other abdominal tissue pushes through the inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. The inguinal ring is a natural opening in the abdominal wall, and the inguinal canal is a passage that extends from the inguinal ring to the scrotum in males or the labia majora in females. In an indirect hernia, the herniated tissue follows the same pathway as the descent of the testes during fetal development. This type of hernia is more common in males and is typically congenital or acquired due to weakness in the abdominal wall.

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  • 15. 

    Dead space is the space

    • A.

      That has no blood supply

    • B.

      Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximated

    • C.

      Where the tissue has been approximated with sutures

    • D.

      Where the suture line has broken down

    Correct Answer
    B. Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximated
    Explanation
    Dead space is the space that occurs when the edges of a wound are not properly brought together or approximated. This can happen when the wound edges are separated and not closely aligned, leading to a gap or space between them. This can result in a lack of blood supply to the area, as well as hinder the healing process.

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  • 16. 

    Wrapped tubing can be sterilized at 250F for a minimum of

    • A.

      5 minutes

    • B.

      10 minutes

    • C.

      20 minutes

    • D.

      30 minutes

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 minutes
    Explanation
    Wrapped tubing needs to be sterilized at a higher temperature and for a longer duration compared to other sterilization methods to ensure complete elimination of microorganisms. Sterilizing it at 250°F for 30 minutes allows for sufficient heat penetration and exposure time to effectively kill any potential pathogens present on the tubing's surface or within its layers. This extended sterilization process helps maintain a sterile environment and prevents contamination during medical procedures or other applications where the tubing is used.

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  • 17. 

    Funnel chest is also known as

    • A.

      Pectus carinatum

    • B.

      Pectus excavatum

    • C.

      Atresia

    • D.

      Ramstedt-Fredet

    Correct Answer
    B. Pectus excavatum
    Explanation
    Funnel chest, also known as pectus excavatum, is a condition where the breastbone sinks into the chest, causing a noticeable indentation. This is the correct answer because the other options, pectus carinatum, atresia, and Ramstedt-Fredet, do not refer to funnel chest. Pectus carinatum is a condition where the breastbone protrudes outwards, atresia refers to a blockage or absence of a body opening or passage, and Ramstedt-Fredet is a surgical procedure used to treat pyloric stenosis.

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  • 18. 

    Which term denotes low or decreased blood volume?

    • A.

      Anoxia

    • B.

      Hypovolemia

    • C.

      Hypoxia

    • D.

      Hypocapnia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypovolemia
    Explanation
    Hypovolemia is the correct answer because it refers to a decreased or low blood volume. Anoxia refers to a lack of oxygen, hypoxia refers to low oxygen levels in tissues, and hypocapnia refers to low carbon dioxide levels in the blood. However, only hypovolemia specifically relates to a decrease in blood volume.

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  • 19. 

    Injection of contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery to study the intracranial vessels is called

    • A.

      Myelography

    • B.

      Pneumoencephalography

    • C.

      Computed axial tomography (CAT) scan

    • D.

      Angiography

    Correct Answer
    D. Angiography
    Explanation
    Angiography is the correct answer because it involves the injection of contrast media into arteries to visualize the blood vessels. This procedure is commonly used to study the intracranial vessels by injecting contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery. Myelography is a different procedure that involves the injection of contrast media into the spinal canal to study the spinal cord and nerves. Pneumoencephalography is an outdated procedure that involves the injection of air into the brain to visualize the ventricles. Computed axial tomography (CAT) scan is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

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  • 20. 

    Instruments and other items sterilized together in the flash autoclave require

    • A.

      3 minutes at 270F

    • B.

      53 minutes at 250F

    • C.

      10 minutes at 270F

    • D.

      30 minutes at 250F

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 minutes at 270F
    Explanation
    Instruments and other items that are sterilized together in the flash autoclave require 10 minutes at 270F because this combination of time and temperature is necessary to effectively kill any microorganisms present on the items. The higher temperature of 270F helps to ensure that the sterilization process is thorough, while the shorter time of 10 minutes allows for a quicker turnaround and more efficient use of the autoclave.

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  • 21. 

    Suture material that becomes encapsulated with fibrous tissue during the healing process is

    • A.

      Nonabsorbable suture

    • B.

      Absorbable suture

    • C.

      Synthetic absorbable suture

    • D.

      Gut suture

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonabsorbable suture
    Explanation
    Nonabsorbable sutures are made of materials that are not broken down by the body and therefore do not dissolve or absorb over time. Instead, they remain in the body indefinitely. During the healing process, nonabsorbable sutures become encapsulated with fibrous tissue, which helps to secure the wound and promote healing. This encapsulation prevents the suture from causing irritation or infection and provides long-term support to the wound.

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  • 22. 

    A right hemicolectomy is performed to remove pathology of the

    • A.

      Descending colon

    • B.

      Ascending colon

    • C.

      Sigmoid colon

    • D.

      Mesocolon

    Correct Answer
    B. Ascending colon
    Explanation
    A right hemicolectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove pathology or disease in the ascending colon. The ascending colon is the part of the large intestine that connects the cecum (the first part of the colon) to the transverse colon. By removing the affected portion of the ascending colon, the surgeon aims to treat the underlying condition and improve the patient's health. This procedure is commonly used for conditions such as colorectal cancer, diverticulitis, and Crohn's disease that specifically affect the ascending colon.

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  • 23. 

    Dacryo refers to

    • A.

      Eyelid

    • B.

      Eyeball

    • C.

      Cornea

    • D.

      Lacrimal gland

    Correct Answer
    D. Lacrimal gland
    Explanation
    Dacryo refers to the lacrimal gland. The lacrimal gland is responsible for producing tears, which help to lubricate and protect the surface of the eye. Tears are important for maintaining proper eye health and preventing dryness and irritation. The lacrimal gland is located in the upper outer corner of the eye socket and secretes tears that are spread across the eye when we blink.

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  • 24. 

    When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed

    • A.

      At stretcher level

    • B.

      Below stretcher level

    • C.

      Above stretcher level

    • D.

      Optionally

    Correct Answer
    B. Below stretcher level
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed below stretcher level. This is because gravity will help the drainage system to function properly and prevent any backflow of fluids. Placing the drainage system below stretcher level ensures that any fluids or waste will flow downwards and away from the patient, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection. Additionally, positioning the drainage system below stretcher level makes it easier to monitor and manage the system during transportation.

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  • 25. 

    The maximum size of a linen pack must not exceed

    • A.

      8x10x16 in

    • B.

      10x14x18 in

    • C.

      12x12x20 in

    • D.

      14x16x36 in

    Correct Answer
    C. 12x12x20 in
    Explanation
    The maximum size of a linen pack must not exceed 12x12x20 inches. This means that the length should not exceed 12 inches, the width should not exceed 12 inches, and the height should not exceed 20 inches. This size limit ensures that the linen pack can be easily stored and transported without taking up too much space.

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  • 26. 

    Another name for a stay suture is a(n)

    • A.

      Tension suture

    • B.

      Retention suture

    • C.

      Interrupted suture

    • D.

      Buried suture

    Correct Answer
    B. Retention suture
    Explanation
    A stay suture is commonly known as a retention suture. This type of suture is used to hold tissues in place during a surgical procedure, providing support and preventing them from slipping or retracting. It is typically placed away from the primary incision site and is used to maintain tension on the tissue. The term "retention" refers to the purpose of the suture, which is to retain or keep the tissues in position. Therefore, the correct answer for another name for a stay suture is a retention suture.

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  • 27. 

    Which two anatomic structures are ligated and divided to effect a cholecystectomy?

    • A.

      Common hepatic duct, common bile duct

    • B.

      Cystic duct, cystic artery

    • C.

      Common bile duct, cystic artery

    • D.

      Cystic duct, hepatic artery

    Correct Answer
    B. Cystic duct, cystic artery
    Explanation
    During a cholecystectomy, the surgeon ligates and divides the cystic duct and cystic artery. The cystic duct connects the gallbladder to the common bile duct, and the cystic artery supplies blood to the gallbladder. Ligating and dividing these structures is necessary to remove the gallbladder and ensure proper bile flow.

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  • 28. 

    Adeno means

    • A.

      Lymph

    • B.

      Gland

    • C.

      Joint

    • D.

      Bone

    Correct Answer
    B. Gland
    Explanation
    The term "adeno" is derived from the Greek word "aden" which means gland. Therefore, "adeno" refers to something related to glands.

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  • 29. 

    When the patient is being transferred fromt he OR table after surgery, the action should be

    • A.

      Swift but cautious in order to get the patient to the recovery room as quickly as possible

    • B.

      Performed with comfort of the patient as the prime concern

    • C.

      Gentle and rapid so that the paitent does not wake up

    • D.

      Gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depression

    Correct Answer
    D. Gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depression
    Explanation
    When the patient is being transferred from the OR table after surgery, the action should be gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depression. This is because sudden movements or rough handling can cause a drop in blood pressure and circulation, which can be detrimental to the patient's recovery. By taking a gentle and slow approach, healthcare professionals can ensure the patient's safety and well-being during the transfer process.

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  • 30. 

    In steam sterilization, the function of pressure is to

    • A.

      Destroy microorganisms

    • B.

      Increase the temperature of the steam

    • C.

      Lower the exposure time

    • D.

      Create condensation

    Correct Answer
    B. Increase the temperature of the steam
    Explanation
    In steam sterilization, the function of pressure is to increase the temperature of the steam. When pressure is applied to steam, it raises the boiling point of water, allowing the steam to reach higher temperatures. This increased temperature is crucial for effective sterilization as it helps to kill microorganisms by denaturing their proteins and destroying their cellular structures. Therefore, pressure plays a vital role in ensuring that the steam reaches the required temperature for effective sterilization.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following suture materials is not generally used in the presence of infection?

    • A.

      Silk

    • B.

      Surgical gut

    • C.

      Polypropylene

    • D.

      Stainless steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Silk
    Explanation
    Silk is not generally used in the presence of infection because it is a natural material that can harbor bacteria and promote infection. In contrast, surgical gut, polypropylene, and stainless steel are synthetic materials that are more resistant to bacterial colonization and are therefore preferred in infected wounds.

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  • 32. 

    Radical surgery done for lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy is a(n)

    • A.

      Wertheim's procedure

    • B.

      Abdominal perineal resection

    • C.

      Whipple procedure

    • D.

      Pelvic exenteration

    Correct Answer
    B. Abdominal perineal resection
    Explanation
    Abdominal perineal resection is the correct answer because it is a surgical procedure used to remove the lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy. It involves removing the rectum, anus, and part of the sigmoid colon through an incision in the abdomen, followed by the creation of a permanent colostomy. This procedure is typically performed when the cancer is located in the lower part of the rectum or anus, and it allows for complete removal of the tumor while preserving the anal sphincter. The other options listed (Wertheim's procedure, Whipple procedure, and pelvic exenteration) are not specifically used for lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy.

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  • 33. 

    The term for fluid or water in the ventricles of the brain is

    • A.

      Hydrophobia

    • B.

      Hydrocephalus

    • C.

      Hydrocele

    • D.

      Hydronephrosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydrocephalus
    Explanation
    Hydrocephalus is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of fluid or water in the ventricles of the brain. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as blockage of the cerebrospinal fluid flow or overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid. Hydrophobia is a term used to describe an irrational fear of water, while hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. Hydronephrosis, on the other hand, is the swelling of the kidneys due to the buildup of urine.

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  • 34. 

    The patient may be left on the transport stretcher unattended

    • A.

      Under no circumstances

    • B.

      If he or she is alert and responsible

    • C.

      If her or she is sound asleep

    • D.

      If he or she can be observed by passing personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Under no circumstances
    Explanation
    Under no circumstances should the patient be left on the transport stretcher unattended. This means that regardless of the situation or condition of the patient, it is absolutely not acceptable to leave them alone on the stretcher. This is important for the safety and well-being of the patient, as they may require assistance or monitoring at any given time. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that someone is always present with the patient to provide necessary care and support.

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  • 35. 

    212 F is equivalent to

    • A.

      32 C

    • B.

      98.6 C

    • C.

      100 C

    • D.

      175 C

    Correct Answer
    C. 100 C
  • 36. 

    An anti-inflammatory drug whose effect is useful in reversing early rejection of organ transplants is

    • A.

      Cyclosporine

    • B.

      Polyclonal

    • C.

      Prednisone

    • D.

      Orthoclone

    Correct Answer
    C. Prednisone
    Explanation
    Prednisone is an anti-inflammatory drug that is commonly used to treat various conditions, including organ transplant rejection. It works by suppressing the immune system, which helps to prevent the body from rejecting the transplanted organ. By reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response, prednisone can effectively reverse early rejection of organ transplants. Cyclosporine is also commonly used for this purpose, but prednisone is a more widely used and well-known drug in the context of organ transplant rejection. Polyclonal and orthoclone are not typically used in this context and do not have the same anti-inflammatory effects as prednisone.

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  • 37. 

    A congenital abnormality of the musculature between the stomach and the duodenum is called

    • A.

      Esophageal atresia

    • B.

      Pyloric stenosis

    • C.

      Intestinal atresia

    • D.

      Duodenal atresia

    Correct Answer
    B. Pyloric stenosis
    Explanation
    Pyloric stenosis is a congenital abnormality that occurs when the muscles of the pylorus (the opening between the stomach and the duodenum) become thickened, leading to a narrowing or blockage. This condition typically presents in infants and is characterized by symptoms such as projectile vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. Surgical intervention is often required to correct the abnormality. Esophageal atresia, intestinal atresia, and duodenal atresia are all different congenital abnormalities that affect different parts of the digestive system, but they do not involve the musculature between the stomach and the duodenum.

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  • 38. 

    A fossa is a

    • A.

      Ridge

    • B.

      Basin-like depression

    • C.

      Projection

    • D.

      Seam

    Correct Answer
    B. Basin-like depression
    Explanation
    A fossa is a basin-like depression. This means that it is a low-lying area or hollow that resembles a basin in shape. A fossa is typically formed through geological processes such as erosion or tectonic activity. It is often found in areas where there has been a subsidence or sinking of the Earth's crust, creating a depressed area. The term "basin-like" is used to describe the shape of the fossa, emphasizing its concave or bowl-like appearance.

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  • 39. 

    A procedure performed to treat myasthenia gravis is a(n)

    • A.

      Adrenalectomy

    • B.

      Splenectomy

    • C.

      Thymectomy

    • D.

      Parathyroidectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Thymectomy
    Explanation
    A thymectomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and is caused by the production of antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors in the muscles. The thymus gland, located in the chest, plays a role in the development of these antibodies. Removing the thymus gland through a thymectomy can help alleviate the symptoms of myasthenia gravis and improve muscle strength. Therefore, thymectomy is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 40. 

    The purpose of lidocaine installation during a tracheotomy is to

    • A.

      Extend anesthesia

    • B.

      Decrease coughing

    • C.

      Decrease gag reflex

    • D.

      Reduce edema

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease coughing
    Explanation
    Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that can be used to numb the area around the tracheotomy site. By decreasing the sensation in the throat and airway, lidocaine can help reduce coughing during the procedure. Coughing can be a reflex response to the irritation caused by the tracheotomy, and by decreasing coughing, lidocaine can make the procedure more comfortable for the patient and help prevent complications.

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  • 41. 

    A procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation is

    • A.

      Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

    • B.

      Right hemicolecomty

    • C.

      Anterior sigmoid resection

    • D.

      Temporary colostomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Temporary colostomy
    Explanation
    A temporary colostomy is a procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation. It involves creating an opening in the abdomen called a stoma, through which a portion of the colon is brought to the surface and attached to a bag. This allows waste to bypass the inflamed or diseased part of the bowel, giving it time to heal. Once the inflammation subsides, the colostomy can be reversed and normal bowel function can be restored.

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  • 42. 

    A forceps used to grasp lung tissue is

    • A.

      Crile

    • B.

      Adson

    • C.

      Duval

    • D.

      Walton

    Correct Answer
    C. Duval
  • 43. 

    Heath-sensitive items that can be completely immersed can be processed via the _____ in 30 minutes.

    • A.

      Ethylene oxide (ETO) sterilizer

    • B.

      Endoflush

    • C.

      Gravity displacement sterilizer

    • D.

      STERIS

    Correct Answer
    D. STERIS
    Explanation
    The STERIS sterilizer can process heat-sensitive items that can be completely immersed in just 30 minutes.

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  • 44. 

    The maximum recommended dosage of local anesthetic drug per hour is

    • A.

      10 mL of 1% solution

    • B.

      50 mL of 1% solution

    • C.

      150 mL of 1% solution

    • D.

      250 mL of 1% solution

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 mL of 1% solution
    Explanation
    The maximum recommended dosage of local anesthetic drug per hour is 50 mL of 1% solution. This dosage is considered safe and effective for providing anesthesia. Higher dosages may increase the risk of systemic toxicity and adverse reactions. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended dosage to ensure patient safety during procedures requiring local anesthesia.

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  • 45. 

    Ischemia can be defined as

    • A.

      Excessive blood supply to a part

    • B.

      Deficient blood supply to a part

    • C.

      Abnormal condition of the hipbone

    • D.

      Abnormal condition of the ischium and the anus

    Correct Answer
    B. Deficient blood supply to a part
    Explanation
    Ischemia is a medical term that refers to a deficient blood supply to a specific part of the body. This condition occurs when there is a restriction or blockage in the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the affected area. As a result, the tissue or organ may not receive enough blood flow, leading to potential damage or dysfunction.

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  • 46. 

    The person transporting the patiet on a stretcher should

    • A.

      Push the stretcher from the head

    • B.

      Pull the stretcher by the foot

    • C.

      Guide the stretcher from either side

    • D.

      Guide the stretcher from any position that is comfortable

    Correct Answer
    A. Push the stretcher from the head
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient on a stretcher, it is important to push the stretcher from the head. This is because pushing from the head allows the person transporting the patient to have better control and visibility of the patient's body and any potential obstacles in their path. It also ensures that the patient's head is properly supported and protected during the transportation process.

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  • 47. 

    Activated gluteraldehyde

    • A.

      Is corrosive to instruments

    • B.

      Causes damage to lenses or the cement on lensed intruments

    • C.

      Is absorbed by rubber and plastic

    • D.

      Can be reused

    Correct Answer
    D. Can be reused
    Explanation
    Activated gluteraldehyde can be reused because it is a chemical disinfectant that can be replenished and reused multiple times before it loses its effectiveness. Unlike other disinfectants that may lose their potency after one use, activated gluteraldehyde can be used repeatedly without significant degradation. This makes it a cost-effective option for healthcare facilities and laboratories that require frequent disinfection of instruments and equipment.

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  • 48. 

    A Weitlaner is a

    • A.

      Dissector

    • B.

      Grasper

    • C.

      Forceps

    • D.

      Retractor

    Correct Answer
    D. Retractor
    Explanation
    A Weitlaner is a type of surgical instrument known as a retractor. Retractors are used to hold back tissues or organs during surgical procedures, allowing the surgeon to have better access to the area being operated on. Weitlaner retractors have self-retaining properties, meaning they can be locked in place once positioned, making them particularly useful in procedures where the surgeon requires both hands free.

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  • 49. 

    Which part of the pancreas is the most common site of malignant tumors?

    • A.

      Head

    • B.

      Body

    • C.

      Tail

    • D.

      Splenic portion

    Correct Answer
    A. Head
    Explanation
    The head of the pancreas is the most common site of malignant tumors. This is because the head of the pancreas is located near the bile duct and the duodenum, which are areas where cancer can easily spread from. Additionally, the head of the pancreas contains a higher concentration of cells compared to other parts of the pancreas, making it more susceptible to tumor growth.

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  • 50. 

    The purpose of the two-way stopcock on a Varres needle is

    • A.

      To deflate pneumoperitoneum

    • B.

      To control gas flow

    • C.

      To release excess gas

    • D.

      To permit passage of accessory items

    Correct Answer
    B. To control gas flow
    Explanation
    The purpose of the two-way stopcock on a Varres needle is to control gas flow. This stopcock allows the user to regulate the amount of gas that flows through the needle. By adjusting the stopcock, the user can increase or decrease the flow of gas as needed. This is important in procedures where precise control of gas flow is required, such as in laparoscopic surgeries. The stopcock helps maintain a steady and controlled flow of gas throughout the procedure, ensuring optimal conditions for the surgeon and patient.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Heather Balthrop
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