Anesthesia Review Test: Trivia Quiz
(129).jpg "Anesthesia Review Test: Trivia Quiz - Quiz")
Do you know that it is quite possible to perform surgery on a person while they are awake and they won’t feel any pain? Such is the joy that comes with anesthesia and the many drugs and techniques at doctor’s disposal. What are some of the tools, drugs used and techniques and effects surrounding anesthesia. This quiz is the perfect way to test out just how much you know about this procedure.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The term Regional Anesthesia refers to:
- A.
Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent proximal to sensory nerves
- B.
Loss of sensation in a small area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic agent in proximity to the area of interest
- C.
Loss of sensation of a localized area produced by administration of a local anesthetic directly to a body surface or to a surgical or traumatic wound
- D.
A drug-induced sleeplike state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately to stimuli
Correct Answer
A. Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent proximal to sensory nervesExplanation
The correct answer is "Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent proximal to sensory nerves." This is the most accurate definition of regional anesthesia, as it involves the use of a local anesthetic or other agent to block sensation in a specific area of the body by targeting the sensory nerves in that area. This can be achieved through various techniques, such as nerve blocks or epidurals, and is commonly used in surgical procedures to provide pain relief and reduce the need for general anesthesia.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A drug-induced state of calm in which the patient is reluctant to move and is aware of but unconcerned about its surroundings.
Correct Answer
Tranquilization
Tranquilizer
TranquilizeExplanation
The given correct answer for this question is "Tranquilization, Tranquilizer, Tranquilize". This is because all three terms are related to the drug-induced state of calm described in the question. "Tranquilization" refers to the state itself, "Tranquilizer" is the drug that induces this state, and "Tranquilize" is the action of administering the drug to achieve the state of calm.Rate this question:
- 3.
The term Balanced Anesthesia refers to:
- A.
The administration of two or more agents in equal volume
- B.
Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given alone
- C.
General anesthesia in which the patient's physiological status remains stable
- D.
The administration of a local and general anesthetic concurrently
Correct Answer
B. Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given aloneExplanation
Balanced anesthesia refers to the administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given alone. This approach allows for a more effective and safer anesthesia by combining different medications that have complementary effects. By using smaller doses of each drug, the risk of side effects and complications can be minimized while still achieving the desired level of anesthesia. This approach also allows for better control and adjustment of the anesthesia throughout the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A sleeplike state from which the patient can be aroused with sufficient stimulation.
Correct Answer
Hypnosis - 5.
With sufficient stimulation, a patient can be aroused from:
- A.
Sedation
- B.
Narcosis
- C.
General anesthesia
- D.
Hypnosis
Correct Answer(s)
A. Sedation
B. Narcosis
D. HypnosisExplanation
With sufficient stimulation, a patient can be aroused from sedation, narcosis, and hypnosis. Sedation refers to the state of reduced consciousness where the patient is relaxed and calm but can still respond to external stimuli. Narcosis is a deeper state of unconsciousness induced by drugs, but the patient can still be awakened with enough stimulation. Hypnosis is a trance-like state where the patient is highly focused and responsive to suggestions, but they can also be brought back to full consciousness with adequate stimulation.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following statements about anesthesia is/are false?
- A.
Anesthetic agents have wide therapeutic indices
- B.
There is always a risk to a patient safety when anesthetics are administered
- C.
Most anesthetics cause significant changes in cardiopulmonary function
- D.
Administration of anesthetics is routine and thus requires no specialized skills
Correct Answer(s)
A. Anesthetic agents have wide therapeutic indices
D. Administration of anesthetics is routine and thus requires no specialized skillsExplanation
Anesthetic agents do not have wide therapeutic indices, meaning that the difference between the minimum effective dose and the toxic dose is relatively small. This implies that there is a risk to patient safety when anesthetics are administered. Additionally, most anesthetics do cause significant changes in cardiopulmonary function. However, the statement that administration of anesthetics is routine and requires no specialized skills is false. Administration of anesthesia requires specialized training and expertise to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In gathering a patient history, which of the following would be the best way to frame a question about a patient's exercise level?
- A.
"Your dog does not exercise much, does he, Mrs. Jones?"
- B.
"Does your dog exercise, Mrs. Jones?"
- C.
"How many times a week does your pet go for a walk or exercise, Mrs. Jones?"
- D.
"You don't give your dog as much exercise as you should, do you Mrs. Jones?"
Correct Answer
C. "How many times a week does your pet go for a walk or exercise, Mrs. Jones?"Explanation
The best way to frame a question about a patient's exercise level is by asking "How many times a week does your pet go for a walk or exercise, Mrs. Jones?" This question is clear and specific, focusing on the patient's pet and their exercise routine. It allows the patient to provide information about the frequency of their pet's exercise, which is important in understanding their overall exercise level. The other options either make assumptions or are not as direct and specific in addressing the patient's exercise level.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following examples of species associations is not correct?
- A.
Horses and cats are more sensitive to opioids than dogs and ruminants.
- B.
The use of anticholinergics is recommended in ruminants to avoid airway occlusion
- C.
Horses may fracture limbs during anesthetic recovery and thus require special attention during the recovery period
- D.
Large animals are prone to respiratory depression and dependent atelectasis and thus often require ventilatory support
Correct Answer
B. The use of anticholinergics is recommended in ruminants to avoid airway occlusionExplanation
The use of anticholinergics is not recommended in ruminants to avoid airway occlusion. Anticholinergics can actually cause airway obstruction in ruminants due to their unique anatomy and physiology. Ruminants have a relatively narrow trachea and a large tongue, which can obstruct the airway when anticholinergics are administered. Therefore, anticholinergics should be used with caution in ruminants and alternative methods should be considered to avoid airway occlusion.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Dehydration increses the risk of hypotension.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Dehydration can lead to a decrease in blood volume, which in turn can cause a drop in blood pressure. When the body loses too much water, it can't maintain an adequate amount of fluid in the blood vessels. This can result in hypotension, or low blood pressure. Therefore, it is true that dehydration increases the risk of hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A dog with a higher body condition score (8/9) indicates that the dog is overweight or obese. In such cases, the dog may have more fat tissue, which does not require as much anesthetic as lean muscle tissue. Therefore, a dog with a body condition score of 8/9 would not require more anesthetic per unit body weight compared to a dog with a body condition score of 5/9.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Since red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues, a decrease in their number or function can lead to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood). Therefore, anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia, making the statement true.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Patients with bruising may be at higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Patients with bruising may be at higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding. This is because bruising indicates damage to blood vessels, which can lead to impaired clotting and increased bleeding during surgery or in the postoperative period. Therefore, patients with bruising should be closely monitored and appropriate measures should be taken to minimize the risk of bleeding complications.Rate this question:
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- 13.
You are evaluating a patient's LOC (level of consciousness) and find the patient in a sleeplike state, nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus but arousable by a painful stimulus. This patient is:
- A.
Lethargic
- B.
Obtunded
- C.
Stuporous
- D.
Comatose
Correct Answer
C. StuporousExplanation
The patient is described as being in a sleeplike state and nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus, but can be aroused by a painful stimulus. This indicates a decreased level of consciousness. The term "stuporous" is used to describe a state of altered consciousness where the patient is only able to be awakened by a strong or painful stimulus. Therefore, the patient's presentation aligns with the description of being stuporous.Rate this question:
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- 14.
You are evaluating a patient's hydration. The skin elasticity is somewhat slowed, the patient's mucous membranes are tacky, the CRT is 1.5 seconds, but the eye is in a normal position in the orbit. Your patient is:
- A.
Approximately 5-6% dehydrated
- B.
Approximately 6-8% dehydrated
- C.
Approximately 8-10% dehydrated
- D.
Approximately 12-15% dehydrated
Correct Answer
B. Approximately 6-8% dehydratedExplanation
Based on the given information, the patient's skin elasticity is somewhat slowed and their mucous membranes are tacky, indicating dehydration. The CRT (capillary refill time) of 1.5 seconds is within the normal range, suggesting that the patient is not severely dehydrated. However, the normal position of the eye in the orbit indicates that the patient is not excessively dehydrated either. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is that the patient is approximately 6-8% dehydrated.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following fasting times is least advisable?
- A.
Dogs: 8-12 hours
- B.
Horse: 2-4 hours
- C.
Cow: 24-48 hours
- D.
Small ruminant: 12-18 hours
Correct Answer
B. Horse: 2-4 hoursExplanation
The least advisable fasting time is for horses, which is 2-4 hours. This short fasting period can disrupt the horse's digestive system and lead to various health issues such as colic. Horses have a sensitive digestive system that requires a continuous intake of food to maintain proper gut function. Fasting for only a few hours can disrupt their digestion and potentially cause discomfort and health problems. Therefore, it is important to ensure that horses have a constant supply of food to meet their nutritional needs and maintain a healthy digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is not a Crystalloid solution?
- A.
Lactated Ringer's solution
- B.
Normal saline solution
- C.
Dextran
- D.
5% Dextrose
Correct Answer
B. Normal saline solutionExplanation
Normal saline solution is not a crystalloid solution because it is a solution of sodium chloride in water, which does not contain any other solutes. Crystalloid solutions, on the other hand, are solutions that contain small molecules that can easily pass through cell membranes and distribute evenly throughout the body's fluid compartments. Lactated Ringer's solution, Dextran, and 5% Dextrose are all examples of crystalloid solutions because they contain additional solutes such as electrolytes or glucose.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following signs of disease in a calm canine patient would be most significant in terms of the potential to increase the risk of anesthesia?
- A.
Increase respiratory effort
- B.
Lethargy
- C.
A body temp of 103.4*F
- D.
A sinus arrhythmia
Correct Answer
A. Increase respiratory effortExplanation
An increase in respiratory effort in a calm canine patient would be the most significant sign of disease in terms of increasing the risk of anesthesia. This is because increased respiratory effort indicates that the patient is having difficulty breathing, which can be a result of underlying respiratory or cardiovascular problems. During anesthesia, the patient's breathing is already compromised, and any additional respiratory issues can further complicate the procedure and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, monitoring and addressing increased respiratory effort before anesthesia is crucial to ensure the safety of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following species or breeds must be watched especially close during any anesthetic procedure to ensure a patent airway?
- A.
Brachiocephalic breeds
- B.
Exotic breeds
- C.
Sighthounds
- D.
Cats and horses
Correct Answer
A. Brachiocephalic breedsExplanation
Brachiocephalic breeds, such as Bulldogs, Pugs, and Boxers, have a higher risk of developing airway obstruction due to their unique facial anatomy. Their short snouts and narrow airways make it more difficult for them to breathe properly, especially under anesthesia. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor these breeds during any anesthetic procedure to ensure that their airway remains open and they are able to breathe adequately.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The fluid type most appropriate to replace moderate losses from dehydration would be:
- A.
Colloids
- B.
Hypertonic saline
- C.
Isotonic crystalloids
- D.
50% Dextrose
Correct Answer
C. Isotonic crystalloidsExplanation
Isotonic crystalloids are the most appropriate fluid type to replace moderate losses from dehydration because they have the same osmolarity as body fluids and can effectively restore fluid balance without causing any shifts in fluid compartments or electrolyte imbalances. Colloids are not recommended for moderate losses as they have larger molecules that may stay in the blood vessels and not effectively replenish the intracellular and interstitial fluid compartments. Hypertonic saline is used for severe cases of dehydration and 50% dextrose is a solution used for specific medical conditions, not for dehydration.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Using the standard fluid infusion rate of 10mL/kg/hr for the first hour, and a macrodrip administration set witht a delivery rate of 15 ggt/mL, a 53-lb patient would require what infusion rate (mL/hr) and drip rate (gtt/sec) (answer: __mL/hr, __ggt/sec)
Correct Answer
240mL/hr, 1gtt/sec
240 mL/hr, 1 ggt/secExplanation
53-lb ( 1kg/2.2 lb ) = 24.09 kg
24.09 ( 10mL/kg/hr ) = 240.91mL/hr
240mL/hr (15 ggt/mL ) = 3613.63 ggt/ hr ( hr/ 60min) = 60.23 ggt/min ( min/ 60sec) = 1 ggt/secRate this question:
- 21.
About two-thirds of the total body water is inside the cells.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because approximately two-thirds of the total body water is found inside the cells. This is known as intracellular fluid and is essential for various cellular processes such as nutrient transport, waste removal, and maintaining cell structure. The remaining one-third of body water is present outside the cells, known as extracellular fluid, which includes blood plasma, lymph, and interstitial fluid.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries various substances such as nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. It makes up approximately 55% of the total volume of blood, while the remaining 45% is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Since blood plasma is a significant portion of the blood, it can be inferred that it also contributes to a certain percentage of the total body weight, which is approximately 5%. Therefore, the statement "Blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight" is true.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The extracellular fluid contains more sodium than intracellular fluid.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The extracellular fluid refers to the fluid outside the cells, while intracellular fluid refers to the fluid inside the cells. Sodium is an electrolyte that plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance and cellular function. In the body, there is a higher concentration of sodium in the extracellular fluid compared to the intracellular fluid. This concentration gradient helps regulate osmotic balance and allows for the proper functioning of cells. Therefore, the statement that the extracellular fluid contains more sodium than intracellular fluid is true.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following statements regarding IV catheter placement in surgery patients is incorrect?
- A.
Choose and administration set with an injection port
- B.
Give all IV drugs slowly unless told otherwise
- C.
Always follow IV injections through a catheter with sterile saline flush
- D.
Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding
Correct Answer
D. Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleedingExplanation
The statement "choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding" is incorrect. The size of the catheter does not directly affect the risk of bleeding. In fact, a larger catheter may be necessary for certain surgical procedures to ensure adequate fluid and medication administration. The risk of bleeding is more dependent on the skill and technique of the healthcare professional performing the catheter placement.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The intracellular fluid contains more potassium than intravascular fluid.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The intracellular fluid refers to the fluid inside the cells, while the intravascular fluid refers to the fluid inside the blood vessels. Potassium is an essential electrolyte that plays a crucial role in maintaining cell function and electrical balance. It is primarily found inside the cells, making the concentration of potassium higher in the intracellular fluid compared to the intravascular fluid. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The intravascular fluid, which includes blood plasma, contains a balanced mixture of positively charged particles (cations) and negatively charged particles (anions). This balance is necessary for maintaining the overall electrical neutrality of the fluid. Therefore, the statement that intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The osmolarity of intracellular fluid is similar to that of extracellular fluid.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The osmolarity of intracellular fluid being similar to that of extracellular fluid is important for maintaining proper cell function and preventing cell damage. If the osmolarity of the intracellular fluid is significantly different from that of the extracellular fluid, water will move across the cell membrane, causing the cell to either swell or shrink. This can disrupt cellular processes and lead to cell death. Therefore, it is crucial for the osmolarity of intracellular fluid to be balanced with that of the extracellular fluid to ensure the normal functioning of cells.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following heart rhythms is not normal in a resting horse?
- A.
NSR
- B.
SA
- C.
Second-degree AV block
- D.
Third-degree AV block
Correct Answer
D. Third-degree AV blockExplanation
A third-degree AV block is not a normal heart rhythm in a resting horse. In a third-degree AV block, there is a complete blockage of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart. This results in a lack of coordination between the two chambers, leading to a slow and irregular heartbeat. In a normal resting horse, the heart rhythm should be regular and coordinated, such as in NSR (normal sinus rhythm) or SA (sinus arrhythmia). Second-degree AV block is also not normal, but the question specifically asks for the rhythm that is "not normal," so the correct answer is third-degree AV block.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The delivery rate of a micro drip administration set is:
Correct Answer
60 ggt/ ml
60ggt/ml
60 ggt/mL
60ggt/mLExplanation
The delivery rate of a micro drip administration set is 60 gtt/mL. The abbreviation "gtt" stands for drops, and "mL" stands for milliliters. This means that for every milliliter of fluid delivered, the administration set will deliver 60 drops. The lowercase "gtt" and "mL" are used to represent the units of measurement in a standardized format.Rate this question:
- 30.
Regarding fluid infusion rates:
- A.
Standard shock doses of fluids are about the same as doses used during routine surgery
- B.
Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids
- C.
Crystalloids are generally given at lower administration rates than colloids
- D.
Hypertonic saline is administered in large volumes to patients in shock
Correct Answer
B. Surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloidsExplanation
Patients who undergo surgery and experience blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids for fluid infusion. Colloids are a type of intravenous fluid that contains larger molecules, such as proteins or starches, which can help to increase blood volume more effectively than crystalloids. This is particularly important in cases of significant blood loss, as colloids can help to restore blood volume and improve circulation more efficiently. Crystalloids, on the other hand, contain smaller molecules and are generally given at lower administration rates compared to colloids. Therefore, in the context of surgery patients with blood loss, colloids may be a more appropriate choice for fluid infusion.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is not a sign of fluid overload?
- A.
Ocular and nasal discharge
- B.
Hypotension
- C.
Increased lung sounds and respiratory rate
- D.
Dyspnea
Correct Answer
B. HypotensionExplanation
Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a sign of fluid overload. In fact, it is more commonly associated with fluid depletion or dehydration. Fluid overload, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as ocular and nasal discharge, increased lung sounds and respiratory rate, and dyspnea (shortness of breath). These symptoms indicate an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body, typically in the lungs or other organs. Therefore, hypotension does not fit the pattern of signs seen in fluid overload.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of:
- A.
An opioid and an anticholinergic
- B.
An anticholinergic and a tranquilizer
- C.
An opioid and a tranquilizer
- D.
An anticholinergic and a benzodiazepine
Correct Answer
C. An opioid and a tranquilizerExplanation
A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer. This combination is used to provide both pain relief and sedation. Opioids are medications that act on the opioid receptors in the brain to reduce pain perception, while tranquilizers, also known as benzodiazepines, are medications that have a calming effect and can help reduce anxiety and induce sleep. By combining these two types of medications, a neuroleptanalgesic can provide a balanced approach to pain management, addressing both the physical and emotional aspects of pain.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Most pre-anesthetic will not cross the placental barrier.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Most pre-anesthetics are able to cross the placental barrier, which is the protective barrier between the mother's bloodstream and the fetus. This means that if a pregnant woman is given a pre-anesthetic, it can potentially affect the fetus as well. Therefore, the statement that most pre-anesthetics will not cross the placental barrier is false.Rate this question:
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- 34.
It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Atropine is a medication that is commonly used to treat bradycardia, or a slow heart rate. It works by blocking certain nerve signals that can slow down the heart rate. Therefore, it would not be recommended to give atropine to an animal that already has tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, as it could potentially exacerbate the condition and further increase the heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Anticholinergic drugs, such as atropine, block the release of acetylcholine a the:
- A.
Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
- B.
Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
- C.
Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system
- D.
Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system
Correct Answer
A. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic systemExplanation
Anticholinergic drugs, like atropine, inhibit the release of acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system. These drugs block the action of acetylcholine, which is a neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting signals in the parasympathetic nervous system. By blocking the muscarinic receptors, anticholinergic drugs reduce the activity of the parasympathetic system, leading to various effects such as relaxation of smooth muscles, decreased glandular secretions, and increased heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 36.
High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression because opioids act on the central nervous system and bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other organs. This binding inhibits the release of certain neurotransmitters, leading to a decrease in heart rate and respiratory drive. As a result, the heart beats slower, and breathing becomes shallow and slow. This can be dangerous and potentially life-threatening, especially if the dose of opioids is too high. Therefore, it is true that high doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with the following drug:
- A.
Atropine
- B.
Naloxone
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Atipamezole
Correct Answer
D. AtipamezoleExplanation
Severe bradycardia is a condition characterized by an abnormally slow heart rate. Dexmedetomidine is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. Atipamezole is a specific antidote for dexmedetomidine and is used to reverse its effects. Therefore, atipamezole is the best drug to treat severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine. Atropine, naloxone, and epinephrine are not specific antidotes for dexmedetomidine and may not be as effective in treating the bradycardia in this case.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Opioids are reversed with:
- A.
Atipamezole
- B.
Naloxone
- C.
Atropine
- D.
Yohimbine
Correct Answer
B. NaloxoneExplanation
Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids. It is an opioid receptor antagonist, meaning it binds to the opioid receptors in the brain and blocks the effects of opioids. By blocking these receptors, naloxone can quickly reverse the respiratory depression and other central nervous system effects caused by opioid overdose. Atipamezole, atropine, and yohimbine are not used to reverse opioids. Atipamezole is used as a reversal agent for certain sedatives, atropine is used to treat bradycardia and other conditions, and yohimbine is used to reverse the sedative effects of certain medications.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions?
- A.
Atropine
- B.
Acepromazine
- C.
Diazepam
- D.
Butorphanol
Correct Answer
C. DiazepamExplanation
Diazepam is the correct answer because it is known to precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions. Precipitation occurs when two or more substances react and form a solid that separates from the solution. In the case of diazepam, it can form insoluble particles or crystals when combined with certain medications or solutions, leading to precipitation. This can affect the drug's effectiveness and may cause complications if administered in this form.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Etomidate is particularly well suited for the induction of dogs with which of the following problems?
- A.
Severe cardiac disease
- B.
Renal failure
- C.
Orthopedic disease
- D.
Pediatric(younger than 4 weeks)
Correct Answer
A. Severe cardiac diseaseExplanation
Etomidate is particularly well suited for the induction of dogs with severe cardiac disease because it has minimal effects on cardiovascular function. It does not cause significant changes in heart rate or blood pressure, making it a safe choice for dogs with compromised cardiac function. This allows for a smoother induction and reduces the risk of further cardiac complications during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?
- A.
Thiopental sodium
- B.
Pentobarbital sodium
- C.
Ketamine hydrochloride
- D.
Propofol
Correct Answer
C. Ketamine hydrochlorideExplanation
Ketamine hydrochloride is an example of a dissociative anesthetic. Dissociative anesthetics are a class of drugs that cause a state of dissociation, where the individual feels detached from their body and surroundings. Ketamine is commonly used in medical and veterinary settings for anesthesia and sedation. It is known for its dissociative effects, causing a trance-like state and hallucinations. This makes it useful for procedures that require anesthesia but do not require complete unconsciousness. Thiopental sodium, pentobarbital sodium, and propofol are examples of other types of anesthetics, but they do not have dissociative properties.Rate this question:
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- 42.
One of the disadvantages of the drug methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Methohexital is a drug used for anesthesia in animals. One of its disadvantages is that animals may show signs of excitement during the recovery period after being anesthetized with it. This means that instead of waking up calmly, they may exhibit restlessness, agitation, or even aggressive behavior. This can be problematic for both the animal and the veterinary staff, as it can increase the risk of injury. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:
- A.
Higher vapor pressure
- B.
Similar vapor pressure
- C.
Lower vapor pressure
Correct Answer
A. Higher vapor pressureExplanation
Isoflurane is considered to have a higher vapor pressure compared to methoxyflurane. Vapor pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the vapor of a substance in equilibrium with its liquid or solid phase. A higher vapor pressure indicates that the substance evaporates more readily at a given temperature. Therefore, isoflurane evaporates more easily than methoxyflurane, making it have a higher vapor pressure.Rate this question:
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- 44.
An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in ____ induction and recovery time.
- A.
Slow
- B.
Moderate
- C.
Fast
Correct Answer
C. FastExplanation
An anesthetic agent with a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in fast induction and recovery time. This is because a low blood-gas partition coefficient means that the anesthetic agent does not stay in the blood for long and quickly moves from the blood to the brain, leading to a fast onset of anesthesia. Similarly, during recovery, the anesthetic agent quickly leaves the brain and is eliminated from the body, resulting in a faster recovery time.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
- A.
Halothane
- B.
Isoflurane
- C.
Methoxyflurane
- D.
Sevoflurane
Correct Answer
D. SevofluraneExplanation
Sevoflurane has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient among the given options. Blood-gas partition coefficient refers to the solubility of an anesthetic in blood compared to its concentration in the gas phase. A lower blood-gas partition coefficient indicates that the anesthetic is less soluble in blood and has a faster onset and offset of action. Sevoflurane is known for its rapid induction and recovery, making it a preferred choice for inhalational anesthesia.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:
- A.
Give by infusion only
- B.
Premedicate with opioids
- C.
Administer intravenously only
- D.
Titrate this drug in several boluses
Correct Answer
D. Titrate this drug in several bolusesExplanation
To avoid transient apnea caused by propofol, the anesthetist should titrate the drug in several boluses. This means administering the drug in smaller, incremental doses rather than giving it all at once. By titrating the drug, the anesthetist can closely monitor the patient's response and adjust the dosage accordingly, reducing the risk of apnea. Infusing the drug only, premedicating with opioids, or administering it intravenously only may not provide the same level of control and monitoring as titrating in boluses.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as:
- A.
Perfusion of the brain
- B.
Lipid solubility of the drug
- C.
Plasma protein levels
- D.
Blood pH
Correct Answer(s)
A. Perfusion of the brain
B. Lipid solubility of the drug
C. Plasma protein levels
D. Blood pHExplanation
The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is influenced by several factors. Perfusion of the brain refers to the blood flow to the brain, and a higher perfusion rate would result in a higher concentration of the drug reaching the brain. The lipid solubility of the drug determines how easily it can pass through the lipid-rich blood-brain barrier, with higher lipid solubility leading to increased entry into the brain. Plasma protein levels can affect the binding of the drug to proteins in the blood, which can impact its distribution and availability to cross into the brain. Blood pH can also influence the ionization of the drug, affecting its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:
- A.
Increased blood pressure
- B.
Increased heart rate
- C.
Increased CSF pressure
- D.
Increased intraocular pressure
- E.
All the above
Correct Answer
E. All the aboveExplanation
After the administration of a dissociative, various effects can be observed. These effects include increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure, and increased intraocular pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."Rate this question:
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- 49.
Adverse effects common with isoflurane include:
- A.
Hepatic toxicity
- B.
Accumulation in body fat stores
- C.
Depression of respiration
- D.
Seizures during recovery
Correct Answer
C. Depression of respirationExplanation
Isoflurane is a volatile inhalation anesthetic commonly used in surgery. One of its known adverse effects is depression of respiration, meaning it can decrease the rate and depth of breathing. This is a concern because it can lead to hypoxia, where the body does not receive enough oxygen. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients under isoflurane anesthesia to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
MAC will vary with:
- A.
Body temperature of the patient
- B.
Age of the patient
- C.
Concurrent use of other drugs
- D.
Anesthetic agent
Correct Answer(s)
A. Body temperature of the patient
B. Age of the patient
C. Concurrent use of other drugs
D. Anesthetic agentExplanation
The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an anesthetic agent is the concentration required to prevent movement in 50% of patients in response to a surgical stimulus. The MAC can vary depending on several factors, including the body temperature of the patient, the age of the patient, the concurrent use of other drugs, and the specific anesthetic agent used. Body temperature can affect the metabolism and distribution of the anesthetic, potentially altering its potency. Age can also impact the response to anesthesia, as older patients may require higher concentrations. Concurrent use of other drugs can interact with the anesthetic, either potentiating or reducing its effects. Finally, different anesthetic agents have varying potencies, which can influence the MAC.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 05, 2012Quiz Created by
Snowtigersrock
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