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ACE Personal Trainer Test

50 Questions  I  By Kbclawson
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ACE personal trainer test
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Question Excerpt

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1.  _________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  A personal trainer who is seeking clarification from a client by trying to restate the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of effective listening?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  What is the BEST method for ensuring that all aspects of a client-personal trainer relationship are properly established? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  No assessments are recommended during aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training.
A.
B.
6.  Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement patterns during the movement training phase? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  A key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae. 
A.
B.
9.  Once a client can perform two sets of 10 reps of glute bridges, which exercise would provide the MOST appropriate progression? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Which of the following techniques will reduce the balance challenge of an exercise? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15-60 seconds? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Which of the following is a critical indicator that someone is suffering from heat stroke and in need of emergency treatment? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely be due to ________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  What business structure puts a personal trainer at the GREATEST risk for losing personal assests in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women is hight than that of men? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  What causes cardiovascular drift? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  A male client brings a form from his PCP reporting the following test results:  waist circumference: 41 inches Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL HDL cholestoral: 38 mg/dL Blood pressue: 128/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose: 93 mg/dL  This client currently has metabolic syndrome. 
A.
B.
19.  In which zone of the the 3 zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold? 
A.
B.
C.
20.  You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Before progressing this client to performance training (phase 4), what criteria should he meet to allow for a safe and effective transition to this type of training? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  "Shoulder girdle" is the formal term for the ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding exercise for people who have low-back pain? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _____________. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Which of the following postural deviations indicates that a client has medially (internally) rated shoulders? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT the ____________
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  The affective and neurendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA) and results in a decreased prodiction of which hormones that are associated with stress?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Which of the following is a characteristic of mind-body exercise programs that is helpful to those with stable chronic disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Which type of corporation is most typically used by personal -training business? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT Model, a client has mastered the stablity and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer needs to include them in each workout. 
A.
B.
37.  During the hurdle step screen, you observe a client exhibiting an anterior pelvic tilt and a forward torso lean as he steps forward. What is the compesation MOST indicative of? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  A client comes to you with reccomendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses of her training should be strengthening which of the following muscle groups? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscle surrounding the injury begin? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  What exercises would be MOST important to include for a clinet who has recovered from Achillies tendinitis and wants to prevent it from returning? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  Which of the following progressions is LEAST recommended for clients who have osteoarthritis? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Whhich of the following steps would be MOST appropriate for personal trainers to take to reduce the risk of exercise-induced asthma (EIA) episodes when working with clients who have asthma? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  During cardiorespiratory exercise with progressively increasing intensity, the need for additional oxygen is met initially through linear increases in minute ventilation (Ve). The point at which the increased demands for oxygen can no longer be met by this linear increase, causing a nonlinear increase in ventilation is known as ______________________ and can be measure via a ___________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice
A.
B.
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