ACE Personal Trainer Test

50 Questions  I  By Kbclawson
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1.  Which of the following repetition ranges is recommended to stimulate bone changes in clients who have osteopenia and/or osteoporosis? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  During the Thomas test, you observe that your client can easily lower her right thigh to about 10 degrees above the table with the knee flexed at about 90 degrees. Based on these observations, which of the following noted would you makes? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which contemporary form of mind-body exercises includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  "I will perform a full-body resistance-training workout twice every week" is an example of which type of goal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be wokring at an RPE of 3-4? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  _________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Which of the following business practices would be MOST liekly to put a facility at risk for imporperly categorizing personal trainers as independent contractors? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  When  trying to meet the objective of the stability and mobility training phase by reestablishing appropriate levels of stability and mobility through the kinetic chain, a personal trainer should begin by trageting which region of the body? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate progression for a client who can successfully perform a predetermined number of vertical jumps and single linear jumps? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Sending personal-training appointment reminder emails to clients would be an example of which behavior-changes strategy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  "When do you experience your low-back soreness?" is an example of what type of interviewing technique? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  The resistance training program you have design for a client has her performing 8-12 reps during each set, using a double prgressive training protocol for advancing workload. She was able to perform 2 sets of 12 reps on the leg press with 200 lbs. Based on this info, what would be the MOST appropriate progression for her on the leg press exercise? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Which of the following would be contraindicated for a client who has an acute hamstring strain? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k  and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born 2 years ago. Now that they are in daycare 3 days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnany to meeting with you today. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first steps each morning, which then dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause of this pain? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Which of the following is a characteristic of mind-body exercise programs that is helpful to those with stable chronic disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which of the following is a SMART goal? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  What has been shown to be the BEST predictor of back health? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat.
A.
B.
26.  What is a personal trainer MOST likely to give up when switching from working as an independent contractor to working as an employee of a fitness facility?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Active listening allows a personal trainer to do which of the following effectively? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Which of the following statements is true about the role of type I muscle fibers during resistance-training exercies? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  What is the PRIMARY reason people give for not attempting CPR in a cardiac emergency? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  In the process of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which response would warrant immediate termination of exercise testing? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the _____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Which of the following MUST be consumed in the diet? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady-state exercise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  During cardiorespiratory exercise with progressively increasing intensity, the need for additional oxygen is met initially through linear increases in minute ventilation (Ve). The point at which the increased demands for oxygen can no longer be met by this linear increase, causing a nonlinear increase in ventilation is known as ______________________ and can be measure via a ___________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Which of these assessments meausres a client's anaerobic capacity? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  During which phase of the functional and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  When working with a client who has a history of IT band syndrome, which muscle group acting on the hip joint is MOST likely to be weak? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  When training in a client's home, a personal trainer must use recording produced specifically for sue in fitness facilities or risk being in violation of copyright law.
A.
B.
43.  Which of the following weekly training plans would have a session RPE of 450 points? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.
A.
B.
45.  To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of ___ hours of continuing education credtis and maintain a current certification in _____________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Which ratio from McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery would be indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  The middle layer of torso muscles that are commonly refered to as "the core" consists of the __________________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  A lack of hip-joint mobility is MOST likely to lead to which of the following? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
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