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ACE Personal Trainer Test

50 Questions  I  By Kbclawson
ACE personal trainer test
Master the Manual 

  
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1.  Which assessment does not use predicted maximum HR or predicted VO2max, but instead provides an actual measured heart rate that corresponds to the client's unique metabolic response to exercise? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-rep max of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise in ___________. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  A new personal -training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise, but has signed up for 8 weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  While on an airplane, you are talking with the man next to you and tell him that you are a personal trainer. This opens up a conversation during which the mans ask you a number of questions about things he has read recently regarding exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thiking about joing a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, in what stage of behavior change would he be categorized? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  What is the MOST common heart rythum during cardia arrest? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  Which progression follows the part-to whole teaching strategy in helping a client learn proper technique for the bedn and lift squatting movements? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  During which phase of the functional and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle. 
A.
B.
12.  Which of these assessments meausres a client's anaerobic capacity? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  During the bend and lift screen, which observation would indicate that the client has tight planterflexors? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which of the following business structures has double taxation as one of its primary disadvantages? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which contemporary form of mind-body exercises includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  ______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  A client comes to you with reccomendations from her doctor regarding exercise with greater trochanteric bursitis. One of the focuses of her training should be strengthening which of the following muscle groups? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Providing a more detailed description of the process by which resistance training helps to preserve bone desity would be MOST effective with which personality style? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  You are designing an exercise program for a new client who has type 2 diabetes and a physician's release for exercise as tolerated to lose weight and improve blood glucose regulation. During the initial session, you learn that she has been sedentary for the past few years. What initial cardiorespiratory program would be most appropriate for her? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  In most caes, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat diet where fat intake is below 15% of total calories.
A.
B.
26.  Individuals who are short in statue may not be good candidates for which type of testing? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of ___ hours of continuing education credtis and maintain a current certification in _____________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  Which of the following program modifications would be MOST important when teaching yoga to a client who is deconditioned or has chronic disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completeing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands, the risks associated with being active? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first 6 months. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  A regular group exercise participant with no competitive goals would be classified in which phase of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT Model? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  What type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop-out rate? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Which treatment of soft-tissue injuries is within the personal trainer scope of practice? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  In which scenario is the personal trainer MOST likely to be found guilty of negligence? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  Which of the following observations would be notes as a postural deviation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  A skilled performace athlete who has established good flexibility would like to address functional flexibility during his pre-exercise stretching routine. What two types of stretching would be the BEST choices for this client? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  After proximal stability is established in the lumbar spine, the focus of the stability and mobility training phase shifts to establishing _____________. 
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  What is the primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool-down? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  What is a metabolic benefit of practicing yoga and tai chi on a regular basis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  A client should be reffered to his or her physician if whcih of the following is found during assessments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a workout? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  A loud, tense voice communicates and professionalism when speaking to a new client.
A.
B.
49.  Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice
A.
B.
50.  What form is used to have the client acknowledge that he or she has been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which hor or she is about to engage? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
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