Management Quiz

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Management Quizzes & Trivia

URE'S Volume 1 for 2A672 AGE career field.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the simplest form of matter?

    • A.

      Element

    • B.

      Mixture

    • C.

      Electrons

    • D.

      Compound

    Correct Answer
    A. Element
  • 2. 

    In the atom, what electrons contain the most energy?

    • A.

      The energy is shared equally by all electrons

    • B.

      Orbiting electrons

    • C.

      Valence electrons

    • D.

      K shell electrons

    Correct Answer
    C. Valence electrons
  • 3. 

    Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as

    • A.

      Insulators

    • B.

      Conductors

    • C.

      Stable atoms

    • D.

      Semiconductors

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulators
  • 4. 

    The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move

    • A.

      Inward

    • B.

      Outward

    • C.

      Inward, then outward

    • D.

      Outward, then inward

    Correct Answer
    B. Outward
  • 5. 

    What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?

    • A.

      Area, weight, and state of material

    • B.

      Area, temperature, and type of material

    • C.

      Temperature, weight, and state of material

    • D.

      Temperature, type of material, and state of material

    Correct Answer
    B. Area, temperature, and type of material
  • 6. 

    What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and the total current is 2 amps?

    • A.

      40 ohms

    • B.

      20 ohms

    • C.

      10 ohms

    • D.

      0.5 ohms

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 ohms
  • 7. 

    Convert 500 milliamps to standard amperage.

    • A.

      .005 amps

    • B.

      .05 amps

    • C.

      .5 amps

    • D.

      50 amps

    Correct Answer
    C. .5 amps
  • 8. 

    In a series-parallel circuit, find RT if series resister R1 = 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3 = 8 ohms.

    • A.

      23 ohms

    • B.

      15 ohms

    • C.

      11 ohms

    • D.

      8 ohms

    Correct Answer
    C. 11 ohms
  • 9. 

    In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm's law to find the value of I3 and IT.

    • A.

      I3 = 5 amps and IT = 14 amps

    • B.

      I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps

    • C.

      I3 = 4 amps and IT = 18 amps

    • D.

      Not enough information to solve

    Correct Answer
    B. I3 = 4 amps and IT = 9 amps
  • 10. 

    What is the difference between an open and a short?

    • A.

      An open causes resistance to decrease; a short causes resistance to increase

    • B.

      Excessive current flow in an open circuit; no current flow in a shorted component

    • C.

      No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component

    • D.

      Minimum voltage development across the open component; maximum voltage development across the shorted component

    Correct Answer
    C. No current flow in an open circuit; excessive current flow in a shorted component
  • 11. 

    Voltage induced into a conductor by the expanding and collapsing of a magnetic field is

    • A.

      Magnetism

    • B.

      Reluctance

    • C.

      Direct current

    • D.

      Electromagnetic induction

    Correct Answer
    D. Electromagnetic induction
  • 12. 

    In an inductor, what happens to the magnetic lines of force if the diameter of the core is increased in size?

    • A.

      Permeability decreases

    • B.

      Magnetic field decreases

    • C.

      Induction of the coil increases

    • D.

      Induction of the coil decreases

    Correct Answer
    C. Induction of the coil increases
  • 13. 

    What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?

    • A.

      Mutual induction

    • B.

      Magnetic induction

    • C.

      Counterelectromotive force

    • D.

      Primary and secondary induction

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutual induction
  • 14. 

    What type of transformer contains more turns in the primary winding than in the secondary winding?

    • A.

      Current

    • B.

      Step up

    • C.

      Rectifier

    • D.

      Step down

    Correct Answer
    D. Step down
  • 15. 

    If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?

    • A.

      Capacitance increases

    • B.

      Capacitance decreases

    • C.

      Electrons are distorted and scattered

    • D.

      Electrostatic force between the plates decreases

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacitance increases
  • 16. 

    What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?

    • A.

      Current leads applies voltage by 90 degrees.

    • B.

      Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees.

    • C.

      Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.

    • D.

      Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.

    Correct Answer
    A. Current leads applies voltage by 90 degrees.
  • 17. 

    How many electrons does the valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor have?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
  • 18. 

    What are the minority carriers in P-type material?

    • A.

      Holes

    • B.

      Protons

    • C.

      Neutrons

    • D.

      Electrons

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrons
  • 19. 

    The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as

    • A.

      Dielectric region

    • B.

      Depletion region

    • C.

      Depletion field

    • D.

      PN region

    Correct Answer
    B. Depletion region
  • 20. 

    A junction diode has how many PN junction(s)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 21. 

    In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2
  • 22. 

    If a zener diode is installed in the forward bias mode in a circuit, it acts as a

    • A.

      Regular diode

    • B.

      Spike protector

    • C.

      Voltage reference

    • D.

      Voltage regulator

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular diode
  • 23. 

    How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?

    • A.

      In parallel to the load

    • B.

      In series with the load

    • C.

      In parallel to the resistor

    • D.

      In seriees with the resistor

    Correct Answer
    A. In parallel to the load
  • 24. 

    If a schematic diagram doesn't list a reference for the zener diode, the diode is probably being used as a

    • A.

      Reference

    • B.

      Normal diode

    • C.

      Spike protector

    • D.

      Voltage regulator

    Correct Answer
    C. Spike protector
  • 25. 

    How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?

    • A.

      In parallel to the resistor

    • B.

      In series with the load

    • C.

      In parallel to the load

    • D.

      Forward biased

    Correct Answer
    C. In parallel to the load
  • 26. 

    What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?

    • A.

      Electronic switch

    • B.

      Voltage regulator

    • C.

      Circuit amplifier

    • D.

      Spike protector

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic switch
  • 27. 

    The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
  • 28. 

    If a small potential is applied to the gate of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the

    • A.

      Middle junction of the SCR is reverse biased and the SCR turns off

    • B.

      Middle junction of the SCR id forward biased and the SCR turns on

    • C.

      Depletion region increases in size and blocks current flow

    • D.

      Depletion region decreases in size and stops current flow

    Correct Answer
    B. Middle junction of the SCR id forward biased and the SCR turns on
  • 29. 

    What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?

    • A.

      A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator

    • B.

      An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch

    • C.

      Direction of current flow

    • D.

      Number of junctions

    Correct Answer
    C. Direction of current flow
  • 30. 

    If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transistor is it?

    • A.

      N-type

    • B.

      P-type

    • C.

      NPN

    • D.

      PNP

    Correct Answer
    C. NPN
  • 31. 

    The circuit in a bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the

    • A.

      Base circuit

    • B.

      Load circuit

    • C.

      Control circuit

    • D.

      Emitter-collector circuit

    Correct Answer
    D. Emitter-collector circuit
  • 32. 

    What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?

    • A.

      Resistance decreases and current through the load circuit decreases

    • B.

      Current decreases through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit

    • C.

      Resistance increases and current flow decreases

    • D.

      Current increases through the E-C circuit

    Correct Answer
    D. Current increases through the E-C circuit
  • 33. 

    How many junctions are in a uni-junction transistor (UJT)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 34. 

    What are the three leads in a uni-junction transistor (UJT) called?

    • A.

      Anode, cathode, and gate

    • B.

      Emitter, base 1, and base 2

    • C.

      Emitter, collector, and base

    • D.

      Common emitter, common collector, and common base

    Correct Answer
    B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2
  • 35. 

    The emitter in a uni-junction transistor always points toward the

    • A.

      Base 1 lead

    • B.

      Collector

    • C.

      Emitter

    • D.

      Gate

    Correct Answer
    A. Base 1 lead
  • 36. 

    The amount of voltage it takes for a uni-junction transition (UJT) to fire is determined by the position

    • A.

      The emitter is placed on the N-type material

    • B.

      The emitter is placed on the P-type material

    • C.

      Of B1 and B2 on the P-type material

    • D.

      Of the UJT in the circuit

    Correct Answer
    A. The emitter is placed on the N-type material
  • 37. 

    What controls the firing time of the uni-junction transistor (UJT)?

    • A.

      Intrinsic standoff ratio

    • B.

      Resistance in the circuit

    • C.

      Capacitance in the circuit

    • D.

      Resistance and capacitance in the circuit

    Correct Answer
    D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuit
  • 38. 

    In what position must the line drop switch be placed when adjustments are made to a voltage regulator?

    • A.

      ON

    • B.

      OFF

    • C.

      Adjust

    • D.

      Regulator

    Correct Answer
    A. ON
  • 39. 

    What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?

    • A.

      Load rheostat

    • B.

      No load rheostat

    • C.

      Line drop switch

    • D.

      Voltage adjustment rheostat

    Correct Answer
    A. Load rheostat
  • 40. 

    The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer

    • A.

      (T1) and rectifier (B3)

    • B.

      (T3) and rectifier (B2)

    • C.

      (T2) and rectifier (B1)

    • D.

      (T1) and rectifier (CR26)

    Correct Answer
    D. (T1) and rectifier (CR26)
  • 41. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). After performing an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow. What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S46 open

    • B.

      S48 open

    • C.

      S46 closed

    • D.

      S48 closed

    Correct Answer
    D. S48 closed
  • 42. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). During operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      M4 is open

    • B.

      S53 is open

    • C.

      K23 is open

    • D.

      K16 is open

    Correct Answer
    B. S53 is open
  • 43. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). You are operating an A/M32A-86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up. What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S1 is in the automatic position

    • B.

      R61 is turned fully clockwise

    • C.

      K16 contacts are closing

    • D.

      K23 contacts are open

    Correct Answer
    D. K23 contacts are open
  • 44. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). During an operational check of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S48 open

    • B.

      S46 open

    • C.

      S49 shorted

    • D.

      S22 stuck open

    Correct Answer
    C. S49 shorted
  • 45. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). During the operation of the A/M32A-86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down. What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      A2

    • B.

      DS50

    • C.

      S55 is closed

    • D.

      S48 is closed

    Correct Answer
    A. A2
  • 46. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). Which statement best reflects what happens if S46 shorts during operation of an A/M32A-86D generator?

    • A.

      12 volts direct current (VDC) would be present at terminal A of S55

    • B.

      There would be no change to unit operation

    • C.

      M5 would go into an overspeed condition

    • D.

      S55 would cause L6 to de-energize

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 volts direct current (VDC) would be present at terminal A of S55
  • 47. 

    What component controls the strength of the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field L2?

    • A.

      Excitation relay K16

    • B.

      Time delay relay K14

    • C.

      Voltage regulator VR1

    • D.

      Automatic manual switch S1

    Correct Answer
    C. Voltage regulator VR1
  • 48. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). Where is the best point to check voltage to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field?

    • A.

      J8, terminal D-F

    • B.

      J8, terminal V-X

    • C.

      VR1, terminal C-R

    • D.

      Automatic-manual switch S1

    Correct Answer
    A. J8, terminal D-F
  • 49. 

    An A/M32A-86D is operating and the alternating current (AC) voltmeter is reading 200 volts alternating current (VAC) on all three phases. What do you do?

    • A.

      Adjust VR1

    • B.

      Adjust R61

    • C.

      Adjust VR1 or R61

    • D.

      Switch S15 to the L-N position

    Correct Answer
    D. Switch S15 to the L-N position
  • 50. 

    Refer to foldout 1 (volume 1). An A/M32A-86D generator set is sent to the shop on a red X for "will not apply power to the aircraft." During the operational check, you place S5 in the closed position and the contactor light illuminates. When you release the switch, the contactor opens. What is the probable cause of this trouble?

    • A.

      S2 is open

    • B.

      R46 is open

    • C.

      K2 is closed

    • D.

      K17 is closed

    Correct Answer
    B. R46 is open

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 10, 2016
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
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