3DX5X Volume 1

102 Questions | Attempts: 1058
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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz over 3DX5X CDC's (URE's)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
  • 2. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task.

    • B.

      Duty competency.

    • C.

      Core competency.

    • D.

      Duty position task.

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency.
  • 3. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety.

    • B.

      Client Systems.

    • C.

      Cyber Transport.

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations.
  • 4. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety.

    • B.

      Client Systems.

    • C.

      Cyber Transport.

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems.
  • 5. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
  • 6. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radar Systems.
  • 7. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations.

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems.

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems.

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
  • 8. 

    (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
  • 9. 

    (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
  • 10. 

    (002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM)
  • 11. 

    (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
  • 12. 

    (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training.

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys.

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report.

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
  • 13. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
  • 14. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-50
  • 15. 

    (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
  • 16. 

    (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwave

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation
  • 17. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
  • 18. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
  • 19. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
  • 20. 

    (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
  • 21. 

    (006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network.

    • B.

      Tactical data links network.

    • C.

      Strategic data control network.

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition.

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
  • 22. 

    (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
  • 23. 

    (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC).
  • 24. 

    (008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
  • 25. 

    (008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
  • 26. 

    (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
  • 27. 

    (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution.

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution.
  • 28. 

    (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution.

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10.
  • 29. 

    (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution.

    • B.

      Bill of Rights.

    • C.

      Bill of Rights.

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice.

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
  • 30. 

    (010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
  • 31. 

    (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
  • 32. 

    (010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrines.

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets.

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives.
  • 33. 

    (010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets.

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions.

    • C.

      Air Force Publications.

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets.
  • 34. 

    (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts.

    • B.

      Transmissions.

    • C.

      Telecommunications.

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol.

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications.
  • 35. 

    (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal.
  • 36. 

    (011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

    • A.

      MyPay.

    • B.

      E-publishing.

    • C.

      Air Force Portal.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal.
  • 37. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A.

      My base.

    • B.

      Single-sign-on.

    • C.

      Community of practice.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    B. Single-sign-on.
  • 38. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      My base.

    • B.

      Single-sign-on.

    • C.

      Community of practice.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual Military Personnel
  • 39. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

    • A.

      My base.

    • B.

      Single-sign-on.

    • C.

      Community of practice.

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of practice.
  • 40. 

    (013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

    • A.

      AFI 33-118.

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
  • 41. 

    (013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 35-101

    • D.

      AFI 35-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 35-101
  • 42. 

    (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C.

      Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
  • 43. 

    (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A.

      Published doctrines.

    • B.

      Geographical base maps.

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
  • 44. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B.

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released.

    • C.

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed.

    • D.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
  • 45. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D.

      Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released.
  • 46. 

    (015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager
  • 47. 

    (015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager.
  • 48. 

    (015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager.
  • 49. 

    (015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager.

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records.

    • C.

      Command records manager.

    • D.

      Functional area records manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records.
  • 50. 

    (016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an

    • A.

      File

    • B.

      Record

    • C.

      Database

    • D.

      Enterprise

    Correct Answer
    B. Record

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 14, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 01, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    RFTrans
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