2w1 7 Level Pretest 1 Of 2

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| By MikeKennedy

MikeKennedy

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 534

Questions: 60 | Attempts: 233 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions taken directly from Unit Review Exercises

Questions and Answers

1.

(001) Which document(s) is locally developed to represent authorized munitions configurations?
- A.
  
  Operations plan
- B.
  
  Standard conventional Load (SCL)
- C.
  
  Unit committed munitions list
- D.
  
  Standard air munitions packages
Correct Answer
B. Standard conventional Load (SCL)

Explanation
The correct answer is "Standard conventional Load (SCL)". The SCL is a locally developed document that represents the authorized munitions configurations. It provides guidance on the types and quantities of munitions that can be loaded onto aircraft for specific missions. This document ensures that the correct munitions are available and properly configured for use in operations.

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2.

(001) Who establishes maintenance priorities that the weapons expediter must respond to?
- A.
  
  Weapons NCOIC
- B.
  
  Squadron commander
- C.
  
  Production superintendent
- D.
  
  Wing weapons manager
Correct Answer
C. Production superintendent

Explanation
The production superintendent is responsible for establishing maintenance priorities that the weapons expediter must respond to. They oversee the production process and ensure that maintenance tasks are prioritized based on operational needs and resource availability. The production superintendent works closely with the weapons expediter to coordinate and allocate resources effectively, ensuring that maintenance tasks are completed in a timely manner.

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3.

(002) Which document provides guidance on which aircraft systems are required for specific missions?
- A.
  
  Approved mission subset listing.
- B.
  
  Critical mission systems list.
- C.
  
  Mission critical systems list
- D.
  
  Mission essential subsystem list.
Correct Answer
D. Mission essential subsystem list.

Explanation
The mission essential subsystem list provides guidance on which aircraft systems are required for specific missions. This list helps to identify the subsystems that are crucial for the successful completion of a mission. It assists in determining the necessary equipment and systems that should be present in an aircraft to ensure its effectiveness and capability in carrying out specific missions.

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4.

(002) What is the benchmark time for standard aircraft repairs?
- A.
  
  2 hours
- B.
  
  8 hours
- C.
  
  12 hours
- D.
  
  24 hours
Correct Answer
B. 8 hours

Explanation
The benchmark time for standard aircraft repairs is 8 hours. This means that it is expected that standard repairs on aircraft should be completed within 8 hours. This benchmark time allows for efficient and timely repairs, ensuring that aircraft can be back in service as quickly as possible.

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5.

(003) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration?
- A.
  
  21–101
- B.
  
  91–201
- C.
  
  90–1001
- D.
  
  20–2001
Correct Answer
C. 90–1001

Explanation
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 90-1001 describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration. This AFI provides guidance on integrating the different components of the Air Force, including active duty, reserve, and civilian personnel, to achieve mission success. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of each component and emphasizes the importance of collaboration and cooperation among them. By following the guidelines in AFI 90-1001, the Air Force can effectively integrate its total force and maximize its operational capabilities.

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6.

(003) Which term gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign tasks, and provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission?
- A.
  
  Tactical direction
- B.
  
  Tactical command
- C.
  
  Operational direction
- D.
  
  Operational command
Correct Answer
D. Operational command

Explanation
Operational command gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign tasks, and provide direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission. This term refers to the authority and responsibility of a commander to direct and coordinate actions within their assigned area of responsibility. It involves making decisions and giving orders to ensure the successful execution of the mission. Tactical direction and tactical command may involve similar responsibilities but at a smaller scale, focusing on specific tactical objectives rather than overall mission accomplishment.

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7.

(003) When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it must be assigned to what type of organizational structure.
- A.
  
  Title 6, Domestic Security
- B.
  
  Title 10, Armed Forces
- C.
  
  Title 32, National Guard
- D.
  
  Title 540, War and national Defense
Correct Answer
B. Title 10, Armed Forces

Explanation
When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it means that the unit is being assigned to the organizational structure of the Armed Forces. Title 10 of the United States Code outlines the role and responsibilities of the Armed Forces, including the National Guard when it is operating under federal authority. Therefore, when an ANG unit is in Title 10 status, it is operating as part of the larger Armed Forces structure.

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8.

(004) Which type of commander appoints impoundment officials?
- A.
  
  Base
- B.
  
  Wing
- C.
  
  Group
- D.
  
  Squadron
Correct Answer
C. Group

Explanation
Impoundment officials are typically appointed by the Group commander. The Group commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of multiple squadrons within a base or wing. Impoundment officials are responsible for enforcing impoundment policies and procedures, such as the impoundment of vehicles or equipment. Therefore, it is the Group commander who appoints these officials to ensure proper implementation and enforcement of impoundment measures within the Group.

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9.

(004) What level of command has the authority to develop procedures for identifying impounded aircraft or equipment and specify impoundment release authority?
- A.
  
  Squadron
- B.
  
  Group
- C.
  
  Wing
- D.
  
  MAJCOM
Correct Answer
D. MAJCOM

Explanation
MAJCOM, or Major Command, is the correct answer because it is the level of command that has the authority to develop procedures for identifying impounded aircraft or equipment and specify impoundment release authority. This level of command is responsible for overseeing multiple wings and groups, and has the highest level of authority and decision-making power in the Air Force.

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10.

(004) Who is responsible for ensuring only authorized personnel have access to impounded aircraft or equipment?
- A.
  
  Production superintendent
- B.
  
  Aircraft crew chief
- C.
  
  Impoundment official
- D.
  
  Quality assurance (QA) personnel
Correct Answer
C. Impoundment official

Explanation
The impoundment official is responsible for ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to impounded aircraft or equipment. This role involves maintaining strict control over who is allowed to enter the impoundment area and ensuring that proper documentation and procedures are followed. The impoundment official plays a crucial role in safeguarding impounded assets and preventing unauthorized access or tampering.

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11.

(004) Who has the authority to grant a “one time” flight of an impounded aircraft according to technical order (TO) 00–20–01?
- A.
  
  Group commander.
- B.
  
  Impoundment official
- C.
  
  Quality assurance (QA)
- D.
  
  Squadron commander.
Correct Answer
B. Impoundment official

Explanation
According to the technical order (TO) 00-20-01, the impoundment official has the authority to grant a "one time" flight of an impounded aircraft.

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12.

What process generates aircraft in a minimum amount of time, through concurrent operations that may include refueling, munitions loading/unloading, aircraft reconfiguration, and –6 inspections?
- A.
  
  Sortie generation operation (SGO)
- B.
  
  Sortie surge procedures (SSP)
- C.
  
  Integrated combat turnaround (ICT)
- D.
  
  Hot pit turn
Correct Answer
A. Sortie generation operation (SGO)

Explanation
Sortie generation operation (SGO) is the process that generates aircraft in a minimum amount of time through concurrent operations such as refueling, munitions loading/unloading, aircraft reconfiguration, and inspections. This process ensures that all necessary tasks are completed efficiently and effectively, allowing for a quick turnaround time and maximizing the number of sorties that can be generated. By coordinating and synchronizing these operations, SGO enables the rapid deployment and readiness of aircraft for combat or other missions.

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13.

(005) Which aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)?
- A.
  
  Oxygen servicing.
- B.
  
  Aircraft towing.
- C.
  
  Munitions loading/downloading
- D.
  
  Aircraft fueling.
Correct Answer
D. Aircraft fueling.

Explanation
Aircraft fueling requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS) because it involves handling hazardous materials and ensuring the safe and proper fueling of the aircraft. The CSS is responsible for overseeing the fueling process, monitoring safety protocols, and coordinating with fueling personnel to ensure compliance with regulations and procedures. This is necessary to prevent accidents, minimize the risk of fuel spills or fires, and ensure the aircraft is fueled correctly for safe operation.

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14.

(005) Which guidance is the primary method for rapid munitions loading or unloading on bomber aircraft?
- A.
  
  Dual loading operation (DLO).
- B.
  
  Concurrent servicing operation (CSO).
- C.
  
  Sortie generation operation (SGO).
- D.
  
  Sortie surge procedures (SSP).
Correct Answer
A. Dual loading operation (DLO).
15.

(005) Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations (DLO)?
- A.
  
  Quality assurance (QA).
- B.
  
  Wing weapons safety flight.
- C.
  
  Maintenance group (MXG).
- D.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. Major command (MAJCOM).

Explanation
The functional area that can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations (DLO) is the Major command (MAJCOM). This is because the MAJCOM has the authority and responsibility to oversee and coordinate the operations of multiple units within a specific command. They have the knowledge and expertise to determine whether a fighter unit is capable and qualified to perform dual loading operations, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the mission.

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16.

(006) What is the primary form that’s used to list every job to be completed and the technicians assigned to perform the work?
- A.
  
  AF IMT 2434, Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document
- B.
  
  AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log.
- C.
  
  AF IMT 2407, Weekly/Daily Flying Schedule Coordination
- D.
  
  AF IMT 2403, Weekly Aircraft Utilization/Maintenance Schedule.
Correct Answer
B. AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log.

Explanation
The primary form used to list every job to be completed and the technicians assigned to perform the work is the AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log.

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17.

(006) Who is the approval authority for locally produced versions of the AF IMT 2434, Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document?
- A.
  
  Squadron commander
- B.
  
  Wing weapons manager
- C.
  
  Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
- D.
  
  Maintenance group commander
Correct Answer
B. Wing weapons manager

Explanation
The Wing weapons manager is the approval authority for locally produced versions of the AF IMT 2434, Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document.

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18.

(006) After munitions reconciliation is completed all expenditure documents are distributed to what agency(s)?
- A.
  
  Weapons standardization section
- B.
  
  Weapons system database section
- C.
  
  Munitions flight and plans & scheduling section
- D.
  
  Munitions flight’s munitions management & distribution section
Correct Answer
C. Munitions flight and plans & scheduling section

Explanation
After munitions reconciliation is completed, all expenditure documents are distributed to the Munitions flight and plans & scheduling section. This section is responsible for managing and scheduling the distribution of munitions. By receiving the expenditure documents, they can ensure that the correct amount of munitions is distributed and accounted for.

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19.

(006) Which records keeping function is performed after an aircraft is removed from cannibalization status (CANN)?
- A.
  
  Expediter forms review.
- B.
  
  Aircraft document review (ADR).
- C.
  
  Data integrity team (DIT) forms review.
- D.
  
  Quality assurance records review (QARR).
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft document review (ADR).

Explanation
After an aircraft is removed from cannibalization status (CANN), the records keeping function that is performed is the Aircraft Document Review (ADR). This involves reviewing the aircraft's documents to ensure that all necessary records are complete and accurate. This step is crucial to ensure proper documentation and traceability of the aircraft's history and maintenance activities.

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20.

(006) Which expediter specific inspections are normally documented as separate inspections?
- A.
  
  Aircraft forms review.
- B.
  
  30-day forms reviews
- C.
  
  Supervisory post loads
- D.
  
  Aircraft document review (ADR).
Correct Answer
C. Supervisory post loads

Explanation
Supervisory post loads are normally documented as separate inspections.

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21.

(007) Which form is published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?
- A.
  
  AFTO Form 245.
- B.
  
  AFTO Form 244a.
- C.
  
  AFTO Form 244 continuation sheet.
- D.
  
  AFTO Form 244 part V continuation sheet
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 245.

Explanation
AFTO Form 245 is the correct answer because it is published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order.

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22.

(007) Which items require an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244?
- A.
  
  Items coded XB3.
- B.
  
  Serially controlled items.
- C.
  
  Items appearing on the custody account.
- D.
  
  Items that require periodic serviceability testing.
Correct Answer
D. Items that require periodic serviceability testing.

Explanation
Items that require periodic serviceability testing require an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244. This form is used to document and track the serviceability and maintenance of these items. It ensures that they are regularly tested and maintained to ensure their operational readiness and effectiveness.

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23.

(008) What information is located in section III of the AF Form 623, On-the Job Training Record?
- A.
  
  Trainee identification data.
- B.
  
  Documented items related to trainee’s training.
- C.
  
  The career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- D.
  
  A list of all completed formal training courses and completion dates.
Correct Answer
D. A list of all completed formal training courses and completion dates.

Explanation
Section III of the AF Form 623, On-the Job Training Record, contains a list of all completed formal training courses and their respective completion dates. This section provides a comprehensive record of the trainee's formal training history, allowing supervisors and administrators to track the trainee's progress and verify their qualifications. It serves as a valuable reference for evaluating the trainee's training needs and determining their readiness for job assignments.

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24.

(008) Who must sign and date all entries in the AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record,
- A.
  
  Supervisor or trainer only
- B.
  
  Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee.
- C.
  
  Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) and supervisor only.
- D.
  
  Commander or supervisor and/or trainer only
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee." In the AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record, all entries must be signed and dated by the supervisor and/or trainer, as well as the trainee. This ensures that all parties involved in the training process acknowledge and verify the completion of the training tasks and progress. It also helps to maintain accountability and transparency in the training records.

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25.

(008) What publication describes an Air Force specialty in terms of tasks and knowledge that an Airman may be expected to perform or to know on the job?
- A.
  
  Airman Specialty Knowledge Skills (ASKS) system.
- B.
  
  Career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- C.
  
  Specialty training standard (STS).
- D.
  
  Course syllabus.
Correct Answer
C. Specialty training standard (STS).

Explanation
The correct answer is the Specialty training standard (STS). This publication describes an Air Force specialty in terms of the tasks and knowledge that an Airman may be expected to perform or know on the job. It provides a comprehensive guide for training and development within a specific career field, outlining the required skills and competencies. The STS serves as a reference for both trainees and supervisors to ensure that training is aligned with the job requirements and standards.

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26.

(001) Who is the weapons expediter directly responsible to for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations?
- A.
  
  Weapons section NCOIC
- B.
  
  Squadron commander
- C.
  
  Production superintendent
- D.
  
  Wing weapons manager
Correct Answer
A. Weapons section NCOIC

Explanation
The correct answer is the Weapons section NCOIC. The Weapons section NCOIC is directly responsible for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations. They oversee and coordinate the activities of the weapons section, ensuring that all weapons are properly maintained and loaded onto aircraft. They work closely with the squadron commander, production superintendent, and wing weapons manager, but ultimately, the NCOIC is the one directly responsible for these operations.

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27.

(002) Who is responsible for making sure the weapons load training aircraft is properly configured?
- A.
  
  Production superintendent
- B.
  
  Weapons expediter
- C.
  
  Weapons load crew chief
- D.
  
  Weapons standardization section
Correct Answer
B. Weapons expediter

Explanation
The weapons expediter is responsible for making sure the weapons load training aircraft is properly configured. They oversee the process of loading and unloading weapons onto the aircraft, ensuring that all equipment is correctly installed and functioning. Their role is crucial in maintaining the safety and effectiveness of the aircraft's weapons systems. The production superintendent, weapons load crew chief, and weapons standardization section may have related responsibilities, but the weapons expediter specifically focuses on the proper configuration of the aircraft's weapons load.

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28.

(004) What constitutes the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations (DLO)?
- A.
  
  A proficiency load only
- B.
  
  Academic training only
- C.
  
  Academic training and a proficiency load
- D.
  
  Academic training, written test, and a proficiency load
Correct Answer
B. Academic training only

Explanation
The correct answer is academic training only. This means that the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations (DLO) is fulfilled by completing academic training, without the need for a proficiency load, written test, or any other additional requirements.

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29.

What form is used for tracking the configuration of aircraft, along with tracking all munitions expenditures?
- A.
  
  AF IMT 2434
- B.
  
  AF IMT 2430
- C.
  
  AF IMT 2407
- D.
  
  AF IMT 2401
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2434

Explanation
The correct answer is AF IMT 2434. This form is used for tracking the configuration of aircraft, as well as tracking all munitions expenditures. It is likely that this form contains fields and sections specifically designed to record and monitor the configuration of aircraft, as well as track the usage and expenditure of munitions.

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30.

What document is sent to the gaining unit when transferring equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units?
- A.
  
  Complete record of logbook entries
- B.
  
  AFTO IMT Form 75 or automated 75
- C.
  
  AFTO IMT Form 95 or automated 95
- D.
  
  Integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) detailed item history (DIH) report
Correct Answer
C. AFTO IMT Form 95 or automated 95

Explanation
The correct answer is AFTO IMT Form 95 or automated 95. This form is used to document and track the transfer of equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units. It serves as a record of the equipment being transferred and provides important information for the gaining unit to properly receive and maintain the equipment. The form ensures accountability and helps to ensure a smooth and accurate transfer process.

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31.

Who reviews the graduate assessment survey (GAS) to make sure the response is directed toward technical training rather than the trainee's personality traits?
- A.
  
  Wing weapons manager or equivalent
- B.
  
  Weapons section NCOIC or eqivalent
- C.
  
  Squadron training manager or equivalent
- D.
  
  Wing maintenance training manager or equivalent
Correct Answer
A. Wing weapons manager or equivalent

Explanation
The Wing weapons manager or equivalent is responsible for reviewing the graduate assessment survey (GAS) to ensure that the response is focused on technical training rather than the trainee's personality traits. This individual has the expertise and knowledge to assess the trainee's technical skills and progress in their training program, and can provide valuable feedback and guidance based on the survey responses. They are specifically tasked with evaluating the trainee's technical abilities and ensuring that their training is effective and aligned with the required standards.

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32.

Within how many days must unit training monitor (UTM) ensure trainees are enrolled in required CDCs?
- A.
  
  15 days of in processing (30 for overseas units)
- B.
  
  30 days of in processing (45 for overseas units)
- C.
  
  45 days of in processing (60 for overseas units)
- D.
  
  60 days of in processing (90 for overseas units)
Correct Answer
C. 45 days of in processing (60 for overseas units)

Explanation
The correct answer is 45 days of in processing (60 for overseas units). This means that the unit training monitor (UTM) must ensure trainees are enrolled in required CDCs within 45 days of their in processing. For overseas units, the timeframe is extended to 60 days. This ensures that trainees have enough time to complete their required CDCs and receive the necessary training within a reasonable timeframe.

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33.

Within how many days after notification of test arrival must the trainee test?
- A.
  
  10 days
- B.
  
  15 days
- C.
  
  30 days
- D.
  
  45 days
Correct Answer
C. 30 days

Explanation
Trainees are required to take the test within a specific timeframe after being notified of its arrival. The correct answer is 30 days, indicating that trainees have a month to complete the test once they receive notification. This allows them a reasonable amount of time to prepare and schedule the test, ensuring that they have ample opportunity to demonstrate their knowledge and skills.

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34.

WIthin how many days from initial notification of the trainee's failure must the unit commander with help from the unit training manager or base training manager, interview the supervisor and trainee to determine the reason for the failure and take corrective action?
- A.
  
  15 days
- B.
  
  30 days
- C.
  
  45 days
- D.
  
  60 days
Correct Answer
B. 30 days

Explanation
Within 30 days from the initial notification of the trainee's failure, the unit commander, with the assistance of the unit training manager or base training manager, must conduct an interview with the supervisor and trainee to identify the cause of the failure and implement necessary corrective measures. This timeframe allows for a prompt assessment of the situation and ensures that appropriate actions can be taken in a timely manner to address any issues and improve the trainee's performance.

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35.

(008) What serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that the formal schools teach?
- A.
  
  Airman Specialty Knowledge Skills (ASKS) system.
- B.
  
  Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
- C.
  
  Specialty training standard (STS).
- D.
  
  Air Force Qualification Training Package (AFQTP).
Correct Answer
C. Specialty training standard (STS).

Explanation
The Specialty training standard (STS) serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that the formal schools teach. It outlines the specific knowledge, skills, and tasks that individuals in that AFSC need to possess in order to perform their duties effectively. The STS provides a standardized framework for training and ensures that all individuals in a particular AFSC receive the same level of training and meet the required standards.

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36.

(008) When a trainee fails the course exam on the first attempt, what is the maximum amount of time allowed for the trainee to retest?
- A.
  
  30 days
- B.
  
  45 days
- C.
  
  60 days
- D.
  
  90 days
Correct Answer
D. 90 days

Explanation
The maximum amount of time allowed for a trainee to retest after failing the course exam on the first attempt is 90 days. This gives the trainee ample time to review the material and adequately prepare for the retest.

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37.

(009) Which level of maintenance includes the following types of repair, munitions up/down loading, inspection, testing, servicing and/or calibration?
- A.
  
  Organizational.
- B.
  
  Intermediate.
- C.
  
  Operational.
- D.
  
  Functional.
Correct Answer
A. Organizational.

Explanation
Organizational level of maintenance includes the repair, munitions up/down loading, inspection, testing, servicing, and calibration of equipment. This level of maintenance is typically performed by the unit or organization that owns and operates the equipment. It involves routine maintenance tasks to ensure the equipment is in proper working order and ready for use. Intermediate level of maintenance is typically performed by specialized maintenance units and involves more complex repairs. Operational and functional levels of maintenance do not typically involve the types of repair and maintenance tasks mentioned in the question.

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38.

(009) Which level of maintenance is primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment (AME)?
- A.
  
  Organizational.
- B.
  
  Intermediate.
- C.
  
  Operational.
- D.
  
  Functional.
Correct Answer
B. Intermediate.

Explanation
Intermediate level of maintenance is primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment (AME). This level of maintenance is performed by specialized technicians who have a deeper understanding of the equipment and can perform more complex repairs and replacements. Organizational level maintenance focuses on basic inspections and servicing, while operational level maintenance involves the use and operation of the equipment. Functional level maintenance is not a recognized level of maintenance.

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39.

(009) In addition to the maintenance operation squadron/maintenance operation flight (MOS/MOF) what other organization must you request depot-level assistance through?
- A.
  
  Logistics group.
- B.
  
  Quality assurance.
- C.
  
  Interim design updates team.
- D.
  
  Item functional manager.
Correct Answer
B. Quality assurance.

Explanation
When requesting depot-level assistance, it is necessary to go through the quality assurance organization. Quality assurance ensures that the maintenance operations are carried out according to established standards and procedures, and they play a crucial role in ensuring the overall quality and effectiveness of the maintenance process. By involving quality assurance, any potential issues or concerns can be addressed and resolved before the depot-level assistance is provided. This helps to maintain the highest level of quality and efficiency in the maintenance operations.

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40.

(009) What maintenance system approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function where possible?
- A.
  
  Two-level maintenance.
- B.
  
  Dual-level maintenance.
- C.
  
  Multi-level maintenance.
- D.
  
  Inter-organizational maintenance.
Correct Answer
A. Two-level maintenance.

Explanation
Two-level maintenance is an approach that modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function where possible. This approach aims to reduce downtime and increase efficiency by allowing maintenance tasks to be performed on the equipment itself, rather than removing it from service and sending it to a separate maintenance facility. By minimizing the need for off-equipment maintenance, two-level maintenance streamlines the maintenance process and ensures that equipment is returned to service quickly.

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41.

(010) Which publication identifies all inspection requirements for each airframe?
- A.
  
  AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
- B.
  
  Each aircraft’s –6 technical order (TO).
- C.
  
  TO 00–20–14, AF Metrology and Calibration Program.
- D.
  
  TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures.
Correct Answer
B. Each aircraft’s –6 technical order (TO).

Explanation
The correct answer is "Each aircraft’s –6 technical order (TO)." This answer is correct because the -6 technical order (TO) is a specific document that provides detailed instructions and requirements for the inspection and maintenance of each individual airframe. It outlines the specific inspection procedures, frequencies, and documentation requirements for each aircraft, ensuring that all inspection requirements are identified and followed. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management provides general guidance for maintenance management, while TO 00–20–14 and TO 00–20–1 address other aspects of maintenance and calibration, but do not specifically identify inspection requirements for each airframe.

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42.

(010) Which inspection concept is based upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable –6 scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manual?
- A.
  
  Phased.
- B.
  
  Periodic.
- C.
  
  Isochronal.
- D.
  
  Programmed depot maintenance.
Correct Answer
B. Periodic.

Explanation
Periodic inspection concept is based on the accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable -6 scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manual. This means that the inspection is conducted after a certain period of time or usage, ensuring that the aircraft is regularly checked for any maintenance or safety issues. Phased inspection, isochronal inspection, and programmed depot maintenance are different types of inspections that may have their own criteria for scheduling.

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43.

(010) Which inspection concept involves consolidation of the basic post flight and/or hourly post flight and the periodic inspection requirements into small packages that have about the same work content and about the same number of clock hours for completion?
- A.
  
  Periodic
- B.
  
  Phased
- C.
  
  Isochronal
- D.
  
  Programmed depot manintenance
Correct Answer
B. Phased

Explanation
The correct answer is Phased. Phased inspection concept involves consolidating the basic post flight and/or hourly post-flight and the periodic inspection requirements into small packages. These packages have approximately the same work content and the same number of clock hours for completion.

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44.

(010) The primary objective of the phased inspection concept is to
- A.
  
  Identify all inspection requirements for the airframe
- B.
  
  . allow for the time an aircraft is programmed to be in inspection status
- C.
  
  Minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for any given scheduled inspection
- D.
  
  Consolidate the basic postflight and/or hourly postflight and periodic inspection requirements into small packages
Correct Answer
C. Minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for any given scheduled inspection

Explanation
The phased inspection concept aims to reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of service for a scheduled inspection. By consolidating the inspection requirements into smaller packages, the aircraft can undergo inspections more efficiently and quickly, minimizing the downtime. This allows the aircraft to return to service sooner, maximizing its availability for operations.

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45.

(010) Who is responsible for ensuring the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance and engineering requirements?
- A.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager
- B.
  
  System program manager
- C.
  
  Plans and scheduling non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)
- D.
  
  Quality assurance (QA) flight chief
Correct Answer
B. System program manager

Explanation
The system program manager is responsible for ensuring that the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance and engineering requirements. They oversee the planning and scheduling of inspections and work closely with the MAJCOM functional manager, the QA flight chief, and the plans and scheduling NCOIC to ensure that the inspections are conducted at the appropriate intervals and meet all necessary standards and regulations.

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46.

(011) Which inspection is the final check for armament personnel of the munitions loaded on the aircraft?
- A.
  
  Postload
- B.
  
  Thruflight
- C.
  
  End-of-runway (EOR)
- D.
  
  Basic postflight
Correct Answer
C. End-of-runway (EOR)

Explanation
The correct answer is End-of-runway (EOR). This inspection is the final check for armament personnel of the munitions loaded on the aircraft. It is conducted at the end of the runway before takeoff to ensure that all armament systems are functioning properly and that all munitions are securely attached and ready for use. This inspection is critical for the safety and effectiveness of the aircraft's armament.

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47.

(011) Which inspection must be accomplished after each flight when a turnaround sortie is scheduled?
- A.
  
  Postload.
- B.
  
  Thruflight.
- C.
  
  End-of-runway (EOR).
- D.
  
  Basic postflight.
Correct Answer
B. Thruflight.

Explanation
Thruflight inspection must be accomplished after each flight when a turnaround sortie is scheduled. This inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is safe for the next flight and to identify any potential issues that may have occurred during the previous flight. It includes a visual inspection of the exterior of the aircraft, checking for any damage or abnormalities, as well as a quick check of the systems and controls. Thruflight inspections are typically shorter and less detailed than postflight inspections, as they are intended to be completed quickly in order to minimize turnaround time.

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48.

(011) Which inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period?
- A.
  
  Postload.
- B.
  
  Thruflight.
- C.
  
  End-of-runway (EOR).
- D.
  
  Basic postflight.
Correct Answer
D. Basic postflight.

Explanation
The basic postflight inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period. This inspection is a thorough examination of the aircraft to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that there are no signs of damage or wear that could affect the safety of future flights. It includes checking the aircraft's overall condition, inspecting the engine and other critical components, and verifying that all required documentation is in order. This inspection is an important part of regular maintenance and helps to ensure the continued airworthiness of the aircraft.

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49.

(011) Which inspection includes end-of-firing day inspections on aircraft weapons stations that have expended munitions and/or aircraft gun systems?
- A.
  
  Postload.
- B.
  
  Thruflight.
- C.
  
  End-of-runway (EOR).
- D.
  
  Basic postflight.
Correct Answer
D. Basic postflight.

Explanation
Basic postflight inspections include end-of-firing day inspections on aircraft weapons stations that have expended munitions and/or aircraft gun systems. This inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed its flight and is done to ensure that all weapons systems are safe, secure, and in proper working condition. The other options mentioned, such as postload, thruflight, and end-of-runway inspections, do not specifically involve inspections of aircraft weapons stations after firing munitions.

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50.

(011) Which inspection is an integral part of any loading operation?
- A.
  
  Postload.
- B.
  
  Thruflight.
- C.
  
  End-of-runway (EOR).
- D.
  
  Basic postflight.
Correct Answer
A. Postload.

Explanation
Postload inspection is an integral part of any loading operation because it ensures that the cargo or passengers have been properly loaded and secured. This inspection is conducted after the loading process is complete to check for any irregularities or issues that may have occurred during the loading process. It includes verifying the weight and balance of the aircraft, ensuring that the cargo is properly secured, and checking for any damage or abnormalities. This inspection is crucial for the safety and efficiency of the flight, as any errors or discrepancies can have serious consequences during the flight.

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Jan 14, 2013

Quiz Created by
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2w1 7 Level Pretest 1 Of 2

(001) Which document(s) is locally developed to represent authorized munitions configurations?

(001) Who establishes maintenance priorities that the weapons expediter must respond to?

(002) Which document provides guidance on which aircraft systems are required for specific missions?

(002) What is the benchmark time for standard aircraft repairs?

(003) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration?

(003) Which term gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign tasks, and provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission?

(003) When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it must be assigned to what type of organizational structure.

(004) Which type of commander appoints impoundment officials?

(004) What level of command has the authority to develop procedures for identifying impounded aircraft or equipment and specify impoundment release authority?

(004) Who is responsible for ensuring only authorized personnel have access to impounded aircraft or equipment?

(004) Who has the authority to grant a “one time” flight of an impounded aircraft according to technical order (TO) 00–20–01?

What process generates aircraft in a minimum amount of time, through concurrent operations that may include refueling, munitions loading/unloading, aircraft reconfiguration, and –6 inspections?

(005) Which aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)?

(005) Which guidance is the primary method for rapid munitions loading or unloading on bomber aircraft?

(005) Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations (DLO)?

(006) What is the primary form that’s used to list every job to be completed and the technicians assigned to perform the work?

(006) Who is the approval authority for locally produced versions of the AF IMT 2434, Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document?

(006) After munitions reconciliation is completed all expenditure documents are distributed to what agency(s)?

(006) Which records keeping function is performed after an aircraft is removed from cannibalization status (CANN)?

(006) Which expediter specific inspections are normally documented as separate inspections?

(007) Which form is published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

(007) Which items require an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244?

(008) What information is located in section III of the AF Form 623, On-the Job Training Record?

(008) Who must sign and date all entries in the AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record,

(008) What publication describes an Air Force specialty in terms of tasks and knowledge that an Airman may be expected to perform or to know on the job?

(001) Who is the weapons expediter directly responsible to for all armament systems maintenance and munitions loading operations?

(002) Who is responsible for making sure the weapons load training aircraft is properly configured?

(004) What constitutes the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations (DLO)?

What form is used for tracking the configuration of aircraft, along with tracking all munitions expenditures?

What document is sent to the gaining unit when transferring equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units?

Who reviews the graduate assessment survey (GAS) to make sure the response is directed toward technical training rather than the trainee's personality traits?

Within how many days must unit training monitor (UTM) ensure trainees are enrolled in required CDCs?

Within how many days after notification of test arrival must the trainee test?

WIthin how many days from initial notification of the trainee's failure must the unit commander with help from the unit training manager or base training manager, interview the supervisor and trainee to determine the reason for the failure and take corrective action?

(008) What serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that the formal schools teach?

(008) When a trainee fails the course exam on the first attempt, what is the maximum amount of time allowed for the trainee to retest?

(009) Which level of maintenance includes the following types of repair, munitions up/down loading, inspection, testing, servicing and/or calibration?

(009) Which level of maintenance is primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment (AME)?

(009) In addition to the maintenance operation squadron/maintenance operation flight (MOS/MOF) what other organization must you request depot-level assistance through?

(009) What maintenance system approach modifies or eliminates the intermediate (off-equipment) function where possible?

(010) Which publication identifies all inspection requirements for each airframe?

(010) Which inspection concept is based upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable –6 scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manual?

(010) Which inspection concept involves consolidation of the basic post flight and/or hourly post flight and the periodic inspection requirements into small packages that have about the same work content and about the same number of clock hours for completion?

(010) The primary objective of the phased inspection concept is to

(010) Who is responsible for ensuring the isochronal inspection calendar periods are properly established to meet maintenance and engineering requirements?

(011) Which inspection is the final check for armament personnel of the munitions loaded on the aircraft?

(011) Which inspection must be accomplished after each flight when a turnaround sortie is scheduled?

(011) Which inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period?

(011) Which inspection includes end-of-firing day inspections on aircraft weapons stations that have expended munitions and/or aircraft gun systems?

(011) Which inspection is an integral part of any loading operation?