2A533A Vol.2 Part 1 (1-37)
Preperation quiz for comm/nav mission systems journeyman.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What structural areas are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
Doors
- B.
Nacelles
- C.
Windows
Correct Answer
A. DoorsExplanation
Doors are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components. They provide access to various areas of the aircraft, including the engine, avionics, and cargo compartments. By opening the doors, maintenance personnel can easily reach and inspect these areas, ensuring that all components are functioning properly and performing any necessary repairs or maintenance tasks. Doors also provide a safe and secure entry point for personnel to access the aircraft for maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is provided on some large doors to provide access for inspections?
- A.
Small hinged doors
- B.
Small inspection inlets
- C.
Small hinged windows
Correct Answer
A. Small hinged doorsExplanation
Large doors often have small hinged doors installed on them to provide access for inspections. These small hinged doors allow individuals to easily open and close a smaller section of the large door, making it convenient for inspections to be carried out without having to open the entire door. This allows for easier access and inspection of the area behind the door without compromising the security or functionality of the larger door.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What componets are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
- A.
Red streamers
- B.
Safety pins
- C.
Initiators
Correct Answer
B. Safety pinsExplanation
Safety pins are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats. They are inserted into specific mechanisms or triggers of the ejection seat system to prevent unintentional activation. These pins act as a physical barrier, ensuring that the ejection seat can only be deployed when intentionally and deliberately removed. By requiring a deliberate action to remove the safety pins, the risk of accidental firing is significantly reduced, enhancing the overall safety of the ejection seat system.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How do independent positioning determining subsystems function?
- A.
By calculating aircraft attitude
- B.
Independent of inertial navigation
- C.
Independent of ground equipment
Correct Answer
C. Independent of ground equipmentExplanation
Independent positioning determining subsystems function by calculating aircraft attitude and position without relying on any external ground equipment. These subsystems use other methods, such as satellite navigation systems or inertial navigation, to determine the aircraft's position and attitude. This allows for more reliable and accurate positioning information, even in remote or unfamiliar areas where ground equipment may not be available.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
Fuel low
- B.
Oil quantity
- C.
Water temperature
Correct Answer
C. Water temperatureExplanation
The water temperature is not part of an engine indicating system. Engine indicating systems typically include indicators for fuel level and oil quantity, which are important for monitoring the engine's performance and maintenance. However, the water temperature is usually monitored by a separate system, such as a coolant temperature gauge, as it is crucial for preventing the engine from overheating.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Ejection seats in military aircraft are particulary dangerous because
- A.
People do not get the proper training on them
- B.
The system contains an explosive charge
- C.
Checklists are not always availble
Correct Answer
B. The system contains an explosive chargeExplanation
Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because the system contains an explosive charge. This explosive charge is designed to propel the seat and the pilot out of the aircraft in case of an emergency. While it is crucial for the safety of the pilot, if not handled properly, the explosive charge can cause serious injuries or even fatalities. Therefore, proper training and strict adherence to safety protocols are essential to minimize the risks associated with ejection seats.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
- A.
25ft to the front and sides of the engine intake
- B.
25ft to the front and 10ft to the sides of the engine intake
- C.
50ft to the front and 25ft to the sides of engine intake
Correct Answer
A. 25ft to the front and sides of the engine intakeExplanation
A minimum safe distance of 25ft to the front and sides of the engine intake is considered necessary to ensure safety when operating a jet engine. This distance is important to prevent any accidents or injuries that could occur due to the high-speed intake air and potential debris being sucked into the engine. By maintaining this distance, individuals can avoid the risk of being too close to the engine and its powerful intake.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
From the side of the wheel
- B.
At a 45 degree angle to the wheel
- C.
From the front of or behind the wheel
Correct Answer
C. From the front of or behind the wheelExplanation
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, it is recommended to approach from the front of or behind the wheel. This is because approaching from the side of the wheel can put the person at risk of being struck by any debris or fragments that may be expelled from the wheel due to the high temperature. Approaching from the front or behind the wheel allows for a safer distance and reduces the risk of injury.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What happens when radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Heat if produced
- C.
Your heart beats irregularly
Correct Answer
B. Heat if producedExplanation
When radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body, it generates heat. This is because the energy is converted into thermal energy, causing an increase in temperature in the surrounding tissue. The production of heat is a common effect of radio-frequency energy absorption and can have various implications depending on the intensity and duration of exposure.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the minimum safe distance from an ultra-high frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
Correct Answer
A. 1 footExplanation
The minimum safe distance from an ultra-high frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is 1 foot. This distance is necessary to ensure that individuals are not exposed to excessive levels of electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful to health. It is important to maintain this distance to minimize any potential risks associated with the antenna's radiation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The minimum safe distance from high-frequency antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
1 foot
- B.
3 feet
- C.
5 feet
Correct Answer
C. 5 feetExplanation
The correct answer is 5 feet because high-frequency antennas emit electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful to human health. To minimize the risk of exposure to this radiation, it is recommended to maintain a safe distance of at least 5 feet from the antenna when the transmitter is active. This distance helps to reduce the intensity of the radiation and protect individuals from potential health hazards.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend do not include the
- A.
Strength of emission
- B.
Time (length) of exposure
- C.
Experience of the operator
Correct Answer
B. Time (length) of exposureExplanation
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend include the strength of emission and the experience of the operator. The strength of emission refers to the intensity or power of the radiation being emitted, which can determine the level of exposure and potential harm. The experience of the operator is also crucial as it determines their knowledge and ability to handle radiation safely. However, the time (length) of exposure does not directly affect the hazards of radiation. Whether a person is exposed for a short or long duration, the strength of emission and the operator's experience remain the primary factors in determining the risk.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
- A.
75dBA
- B.
84dBA
- C.
96dBA
Correct Answer
B. 84dBAExplanation
The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is 84dBA. This level is considered safe because it falls within the range of noise levels that are not likely to cause immediate harm to the human ear. Noise levels above 85dBA can cause hearing damage with prolonged exposure, so 84dBA is just below that threshold. It is important to note that even at this level, long-term exposure can still have negative effects on hearing, so it is best to minimize exposure to loud noises whenever possible.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
- A.
Wearing loose, comforting clothing
- B.
Buttoning your shirt cuffs
- C.
Taking off your watch
Correct Answer
A. Wearing loose, comforting clothingExplanation
Wearing loose, comforting clothing is not a required action when working around moving machinery. Loose clothing can easily get caught in the machinery, leading to serious injuries or accidents. It is important to wear properly fitted clothing that is not loose or baggy to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Preflight
Correct Answer
C. PreflightExplanation
Preflight is not an Air Force inspection concept. Phase and periodic inspections are routine inspections conducted at specific intervals to ensure the overall readiness and safety of the aircraft. Preflight, on the other hand, refers to the inspection conducted by the pilot or crew before each flight to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working condition and ready for takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which statement does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concpet?
- A.
May use contingency inspection work cards decks for a limited period of time
- B.
Applies to all units in the Air Force, reguard less of type of aircraft
- C.
Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept
Correct Answer
C. Applies only to units under the periodic inspection conceptExplanation
The programmed depot maintenance inspection concept applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of the type of aircraft. It does not apply only to units under the periodic inspection concept.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What type of inspeciton is a fight perparedness check?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Preflight
- C.
End-of-runway
Correct Answer
B. PreflightExplanation
A fight preparedness check is a type of inspection that is conducted before a flight takes place. This inspection is known as a preflight inspection, where the aircraft is thoroughly checked to ensure that it is in proper working condition and ready for flight. This includes checking the fuel levels, engine, control surfaces, instruments, and other important components to ensure that everything is functioning correctly and there are no issues that could affect the safety of the flight.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert
- C.
Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
Correct Answer
C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stopsExplanation
Thruflight inspection is performed prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops. This means that before the aircraft departs from any intermediate stop during its journey, a thorough inspection is conducted to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and airworthy condition. This inspection helps identify any potential issues or damages that may have occurred during the flight or while the aircraft was on the ground. By conducting this inspection, any necessary maintenance or repairs can be addressed before the aircraft continues its journey, ensuring the safety of the passengers and crew.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
Major
- B.
Minor
- C.
Periodic
Correct Answer
C. PeriodicExplanation
The correct answer is periodic. Periodic inspections are more extensive than hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections. They cover certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection. These inspections are typically carried out at regular intervals, such as monthly, quarterly, or annually, to ensure the overall airworthiness and safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which inspetion is designed to reduce that time an aircraft is out of commission ofr any given inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Major
- C.
Preflight
Correct Answer
A. PhaseExplanation
The correct answer is "phase." During an aircraft phase inspection, specific components or systems of the aircraft are inspected and maintained. These inspections are scheduled at regular intervals and are designed to minimize the amount of time the aircraft is out of service. By dividing the inspection into phases, only certain parts of the aircraft need to be taken out of commission at a time, allowing the rest of the aircraft to remain operational. This helps to reduce the overall downtime of the aircraft for inspections.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When the home staion check inspection becomes due druing a mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
To which the aircraft belongs
- B.
Where the first intermediate stop is made
- C.
Form which the mission is being performed
Correct Answer
A. To which the aircraft belongsExplanation
The correct answer is "to which the aircraft belongs." This means that when the home station check inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base where the aircraft is registered or belongs to. This ensures that the inspection is carried out by the appropriate personnel who are familiar with the aircraft and its maintenance requirements.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which inspecton includes a freview of the forms for cureent status, an visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Special
- B.
Operator
- C.
Acceptance
Correct Answer
B. OperatorExplanation
This question is asking about a type of inspection that involves reviewing forms for current status, visually inspecting equipment for defects, and providing adequate servicing. The correct answer is "operator," as this type of inspection is typically performed by the operator of the equipment or machinery.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Acceptance inspection aare performed when
- A.
Directed by the major command or local policy
- B.
Newly assigned support equipment arrives
- C.
Directed by the applicable technical order
Correct Answer
B. Newly assigned support equipment arrivesExplanation
Acceptance inspections are performed when newly assigned support equipment arrives. This means that when support equipment is assigned to a particular entity or organization, an acceptance inspection is conducted to ensure that the equipment is in good condition, meets the required standards, and is ready for use. This inspection is necessary to verify that the equipment is suitable for the intended purpose and to address any potential issues or defects before it is put into operation.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Malfunctions documented on AFTO Form 244, industrial/support equipment record, are the responsibility of
- A.
Aerospace ground equpment mechanics
- B.
Avionics backshop personnel
- C.
Propulsion mechanics
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace ground equpment mechanicsExplanation
Malfunctions documented on AFTO Form 244, which is an industrial/support equipment record, are the responsibility of aerospace ground equipment mechanics. This indicates that these mechanics are responsible for maintaining and repairing the equipment used in aerospace operations on the ground. Avionics backshop personnel are responsible for avionics systems, and propulsion mechanics are responsible for the propulsion systems of aircraft. However, in this case, the specific form mentioned suggests that aerospace ground equipment mechanics are the ones responsible for addressing malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The AFTO Form 245 is used
- A.
To document quality assurance evaluations
- B.
To document scheduled maintenace on aircraft
- C.
As a continuation sheet for part V oif the afto form 244
Correct Answer
C. As a continuation sheet for part V oif the afto form 244Explanation
The AFTO Form 245 is used as a continuation sheet for part V of the AFTO Form 244. This means that it is used to provide additional information or details that cannot fit within the space provided on the AFTO Form 244. It allows for a more comprehensive documentation of maintenance activities or evaluations, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded accurately.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The AFTO form 781-series are not used to document aircraft
- A.
Inspections
- B.
Flight records
- C.
Component repair
Correct Answer
C. Component repairExplanation
The AFTO form 781-series is a set of forms used in the United States Air Force to document maintenance actions on aircraft. These forms are not used to document aircraft inspections or flight records, as there are separate forms for those purposes. However, the AFTO form 781-series is used specifically for documenting component repair on aircraft. This form allows maintenance personnel to track and record any repairs or replacements made to individual components of the aircraft, ensuring proper maintenance and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO form
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
Correct Answer
A. 781AExplanation
Each discrepancy discovered, excluding battle damage, is recorded on an AFTO form. The AFTO form 781A is specifically used for documenting discrepancies found during inspections or maintenance activities. The other options (781B and 781K) may be used for different purposes or types of discrepancies, but the 781A is the correct form to use for documenting discrepancies other than battle damage.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which information is rquired int he corrective aciton block on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Detailed descriptioin of the corrective action
- B.
Technical order reference(s)
- C.
Technician's signature
Correct Answer
B. Technical order reference(s)Explanation
The correct answer is "technical order reference(s)". In the corrective action block on the AFTO Form 781A, it is necessary to include the technical order reference(s) that provide guidance on how to perform the corrective action. This ensures that the technician has access to the appropriate instructions and procedures needed to complete the required action accurately and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 29.
If you find a malfunction during an op check, how do you document the malfunction on the AFTO form 781A?
- A.
Leave op chk open until malfunction cleared
- B.
Sign off as op chk ok and enter new write up
- C.
Sign off as ops chk bad and enter new malfunction
Correct Answer
C. Sign off as ops chk bad and enter new malfunctionExplanation
When a malfunction is found during an operational check, it is important to document it accurately on the AFTO form 781A. By signing off as "ops chk bad" and entering the new malfunction, it ensures that the malfunction is properly recorded and can be addressed for necessary repairs or further investigation. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a comprehensive record of the equipment's performance and any issues encountered during operational checks.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which AFTO form is used to document maintenace status and servicing information?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781H
Correct Answer
C. 781HExplanation
The AFTO form 781H is used to document maintenance status and servicing information. This form is specifically designed for recording maintenance actions and inspections performed on an aircraft. It includes sections for recording the date, time, and type of maintenance performed, as well as any discrepancies or corrective actions taken. The 781H form is essential for maintaining accurate records of the aircraft's maintenance history and ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles of an AFTO form 781H?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Engine technician
Correct Answer
A. PilotExplanation
The pilot is responsible for documenting engine cycles of an AFTO form 781H. This is because the pilot is directly involved in operating the aircraft and has the necessary knowledge and experience to accurately record the engine cycles. The pilot is responsible for monitoring and documenting various aspects of the aircraft's performance, including engine cycles, to ensure proper maintenance and safety protocols are followed.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time?
- A.
781A
- B.
781J
- C.
781K
Correct Answer
B. 781JExplanation
The correct answer is 781J. The 781J is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking the usage and maintenance of aerospace vehicles and their engines. It provides a comprehensive record of the vehicle's operational history, including flight hours, engine cycles, and any maintenance performed. The 781J form is an essential tool for ensuring the safety and reliability of aerospace vehicles.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who is responsible for maknig entries on the aerospace vehicle-engine flight form?
- A.
Pilot
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Maintenance technician
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance technicianExplanation
The maintenance technician is responsible for making entries on the aerospace vehicle-engine flight form. This is because the maintenance technician is in charge of inspecting and maintaining the aircraft's engine, ensuring its proper functioning and safety. They are also responsible for documenting any repairs or maintenance performed on the aircraft, including recording the details on the flight form. This information is crucial for tracking the maintenance history of the aircraft and ensuring compliance with regulations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which AFTO Form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenace data?
- A.
781A
- B.
781B
- C.
781K
Correct Answer
C. 781KExplanation
AFTO Form 781K allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Block C on the AFTO form 781K is used to document
- A.
Inspeciton items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calender period
- B.
All immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders upon compliance
- C.
The status of depot inspecitons
Correct Answer
A. Inspeciton items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calender periodExplanation
Block C on the AFTO form 781K is used to document inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period. This means that any items that need to be inspected or tested regularly, either based on a specific number of hours or a set calendar period, will be recorded in Block C. This helps ensure that these inspections or tests are conducted on time and in accordance with the specified schedule.Rate this question:
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- 36.
AFTO form 781L is used to
- A.
Document engine cycle times
- B.
Provide compliance technical order record of completion
- C.
Record the removal or installation fo controlled cryptographic items
Correct Answer
C. Record the removal or installation fo controlled cryptographic itemsExplanation
The correct answer is to record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items. AFTO form 781L is specifically designed for this purpose, allowing personnel to document any instances where controlled cryptographic items are either removed or installed. This helps to maintain an accurate record of these items and ensures that proper procedures are followed during their handling.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
Using proper insulating materials
- B.
Dehumidified air
- C.
Humid air
Correct Answer
C. Humid airExplanation
Humid air helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges. When the air is humid, it contains moisture which can conduct electricity. This conductivity helps to neutralize any built-up static charges and prevent them from causing damage or interference. In contrast, dry air can exacerbate electrostatic discharges as it lacks moisture and is a poor conductor of electricity. Therefore, maintaining a humid environment can be beneficial in reducing the impact of electrostatic discharges.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 11, 2011Quiz Created by
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