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Wfm Vol. 4

100 Questions  I  By Airforce1747
WFM Vol. 4

  
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1.  Which reverse osmosis water purification units are specifically designed for the US Air Force? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries filtered water? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries product water? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.   How many gallons per hour does the H–9518–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit produce (on the average)? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  What is the capacity of the reverse osmosis water purification unit raw water pump? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.   The movement of water through a permeable membrane from an area of lesser concentration to an area of higher concentration is called 
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.   What percent of organic materials in water is removed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.   Unless otherwise directed by medical authorities, how many parts per million of chlorine residual must you keep in the product water produced by the reverse osmosis water purification unit? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process? Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process?Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process?  
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Sodium hex is fed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit chemical feed pump at the
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  Sodium hex is fed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit chemical feed pump at the a. multimedia filter pump.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What type of valve is used to backwash the multimedia filter on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  The multimedia filter pressure gauge on the reverse osmosis water purification unit indicates
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  What tests are taken utilizing the color comparator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  In which order do the high-pressure safety devices on the WPES–20 reverse osmosis water purification unit activate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Technically speaking, what physical impact does the choice of a clear water source have on the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  How far away from the campsite should you set up the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Where are the two deionization cartridges packed in the H–9518–2 model reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  What is the maximum total dissolved solids (TDS) the factory calibrated in-line TDS monitor can read?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  What initial action drives the ocean intake wellpoint into the ocean floor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which technical order do you use when operating the H–9581–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  During initial start up of the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU), all chemical feed valves must be set to
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  What is the initial setting of all the chemical pump control knobs on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  What is the maximum reverse osmosis pump pressure that should never be exceeded when operating the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  What component of the reverse osmosis water purification unit controls the backwash procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  What is the purpose of feeding citric acid into the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU) during the production run?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  At what point do you set the citric acid chemical feed valve back to the prime position?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Which reverse osmosis water purification unit pump is used to recirculate the citric acid solution during the reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Once initiated, when do you stop the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  Cartridge filter replacement is indicated on the reverse osmosis water purification unit when the
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  What should you do just before you loosen the eyebolts of the reverse osmosis water purification unit cartridge filter cover?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  You must replace the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis elements when the
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  What occurs when the end connectors or the interconnectors of the reverse osmosis water purification unit get damaged by high pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  What is the best way to protect hardwall piping from solar radiation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Under normal conditions, what are the proper parts per million and hours needed for chlorine to disinfect the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  The chlorine residual of a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system should never be lower than
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  How many reverse osmosis water purification units (ROWPU) make up the 1500gph ROWPU water production subsystem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  The 500 follow-on subsystem is functionally identical to what other water distribution subsystem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  What is provided with the Industrial operations and flightline extension subsystem to protect the water distribution system piping from damage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  What components make up the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources package macerator pump lift stations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  After experiencing unusually long pump runs, how do you inspect the dual pump station’s accumulator to determine if it has become waterlogged?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  If the pressure switch on the 35gpm electric pump is not operating properly, what is the first step you should take to correct the problem after de-energizing the unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  When a float is not working properly in the dual pump lift station, and you have cleaned it and observed that it is not getting hung up in the lift station itself, what is your next course of action?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  What is the likely problem if a lift station pump is running backwards?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  How many washer and dryers are provided with the self-help laundry?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  How do you ensure that all the air has been released from the self-help laundry’s water heater?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What technical order action do you follow to correct the self-help laundry’s water heater if the water is too hot?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  What effect does grease have on the electric kitchens evaporation beds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  How much sand is required when a 20,000-gallon water bladder is placed on rocky or uneven surfaces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  What is the maximum allowable height you can fill a 20,000-gallon water bladder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  How many males and females does one field deployable latrine service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  How many males and females does one field deployable latrine service?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  How much water is required to prime the pump on the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources latrines deployable pump?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  How is the temperature of delivered water primarily controlled in the shower/shave facility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  What is the first step in assembling the shower facility after all the equipment has been unpacked?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  When operating a boiler, what action will prevent the boiler from emitting heavy smoke from the exhaust stack?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What is the highest allowed temperature of “mixed” water from the shower/shave pump assemblies’ temperature regulator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  During the initial run-up of the shower facility, what should you do if a showerhead continues to drip after the shower valve has been closed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  How often should you check the shower facilities pump assembly suction strainer for clogging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  Which component in the shower facility are you not responsible to repair?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  Which bare-base medical facility provides outpatient clinic services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Which medical facility is housed in a combination of tent expendable modular personnel and Alaskan tents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which technical order should you consult before operating the sewer sucker trailer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  Which expedient latrine is used if a prolonged deployment is planned?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  You should close a saddle trench expedient latrine when
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  How much fuel oil should you place in the burnout latrine prior to use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  From top to bottom, what are the contents of a urine soakage pit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  To prevent the growth of rooted aquatic plants, how many feet is the minimum depth of an oxidation pond?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  Repair of storm drains is time consuming because they
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  The most common landfills on an installation are
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  Depth should be three times greater than the length.
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  The area landfill construction method is used
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  How many inches of earth should you apply to the daily waste in an area landfill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  Which of these is not a reason to compact refuse and earth cover in a landfill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  What should you do to prevent erosion of a completed landfill?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  When you expand water facilities, the capacity of any small dams and reservoirs you build should be capable of impounding at least the total
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  In a dug well, the water flows into the casing from the
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  Approximately how long should it take a 3-person team to complete an in-crater repair on a 6- or 8-inch pipeline?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  What is the maximum allowable tow speed for the petroleum, oils, and lubricants rapid utilities repair kit trailer on paved surfaces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  During night repair operations with the rapid utilities repair kit I, how close to a crater’s edge can floodlight stands be positioned?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  To operate the contingency fuel recovery system, at least how many people should be on the team?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  The hydraulic hoses that operate the submersible pump are pressurized to approximately what psi?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  The R–14 fuel servicing module is capable of delivering a controlled pressure of how much psi to the refueling nozzle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R–14C fuel servicing module?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  What must be considered when determining a convenient location to set-up the R–14C fuel servicing module?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  The canisters in the FFU–15E filter/separator are constructed of
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  What is the maximum discharge pressure the R–22 pump assembly was designed to deliver at 600 gpm?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  What is the purpose of the float valve on the R–22’s fuel tank?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  What size mesh is the basket strainer that is installed upstream of the pump on the R–22 pumping unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  The Hammonds TPI–4T–4 additive injector is operated by
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  How many filter elements are installed on the PMU–27M filter separator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  How much slope should the dike floor have that contains a 10K-gallon fuel bladder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  How much working clearance must be maintained between the bladder and the bottom interior edge of the dike wall?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  What is the safe fill height of the bladder when it is full?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  What is the height of the dike wall around the 210,000 gallon collapsible coated fabric fuel tank?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  The sealing clamps used for emergency repair of collapsible coated fabric fuel tanks come in which three sizes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  How many times can each end of the IPDS 19-foot aluminum main line pipe sections be regrooved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Because of the inland petroleum distribution system’s (IPDS) single grooves on the pipe sections and equipment adapters, what is the maximum allowable operating pressure the IPDS system can withstand?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  The FORCE R–18 pumping unit is powered by what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  Which FORCE unit has a solar panel to charge the batteries during periods of extended inactivity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
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