Wfm Vol. 4

100 Questions  I  By Airforce1747
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Wfm Vol. 4

  
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  • 1. 
    Which reverse osmosis water purification units are specifically designed for the US Air Force? 
    • A. 

      WPES–10 and H–9518–1.

    • B. 

      WPES–20 and H–9518–2.

    • C. 

      WPES–30 and H–9518–3.

    • D. 

      WPES–40 and H–9518–4.


  • 2. 
    Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries filtered water? 
    • A. 

      Yellow

    • B. 

      Black

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Blue


  • 3. 
    Which color band designates reverse osmosis water purification unit piping that carries product water? 
    • A. 

      Yellow

    • B. 

      Black

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      Blue


  • 4. 
     How many gallons per hour does the H–9518–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit produce (on the average)? 
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      650

    • C. 

      1200

    • D. 

      1250


  • 5. 
    What is the capacity of the reverse osmosis water purification unit raw water pump? 
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120


  • 6. 
     The movement of water through a permeable membrane from an area of lesser concentration to an area of higher concentration is called 
    • A. 

      Osmosis

    • B. 

      Reverse osmosis

    • C. 

      Reverse filtration

    • D. 

      Inverse preassure


  • 7. 
     What percent of organic materials in water is removed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit? 
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      79

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      99


  • 8. 
     Unless otherwise directed by medical authorities, how many parts per million of chlorine residual must you keep in the product water produced by the reverse osmosis water purification unit? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4


  • 9. 
    Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process? Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process?Which chemical is used as a coagulant aid during the reverse osmosis water purification unit treatment process?  
    • A. 

      Polymer

    • B. 

      Chlorine

    • C. 

      Citric Acid

    • D. 

      Sodium Hex


  • 10. 
    Sodium hex is fed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit chemical feed pump at the
    • A. 

      Multimedia filter pump.

    • B. 

      Multimedia filter influent.

    • C. 

      Reverse osmosis element pump.

    • D. 

      Reverse osmosis element influent.


  • 11. 
    Sodium hex is fed by the reverse osmosis water purification unit chemical feed pump at the a. multimedia filter pump.
    • A. 

      Between 9 and 12.

    • B. 

      Between 5 and 8.

    • C. 

      Between 1 and 4.

    • D. 

      Preferably alkaline.


  • 12. 
    What type of valve is used to backwash the multimedia filter on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      Gate.

    • B. 

      Globe.

    • C. 

      Butterfly.

    • D. 

      Multiport.


  • 13. 
    The multimedia filter pressure gauge on the reverse osmosis water purification unit indicates
    • A. 

      Suction pressure.

    • B. 

      Negative pressure.

    • C. 

      Differential pressure.

    • D. 

      Product water pressure.


  • 14. 
    What tests are taken utilizing the color comparator?
    • A. 

      Total dissolved solids.

    • B. 

      Nitrates

    • C. 

      Phosphates.

    • D. 

      Chlorine and pH.


  • 15. 
    In which order do the high-pressure safety devices on the WPES–20 reverse osmosis water purification unit activate?
    • A. 

      High-pressure relief valve, high-pressure switch, rupture disc assembly.

    • B. 

      High-pressure switch, high-pressure relief valve, rupture disc assembly.

    • C. 

      High-pressure relief valve, rupture-disc assembly, high-pressure switch.

    • D. 

      Low-pressure switch, high-pressure switch, rupture disc assembly, high-pressure relief valve.


  • 16. 
    Technically speaking, what physical impact does the choice of a clear water source have on the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU)?
    • A. 

      Lower working pressure is exerted on the RO elements.

    • B. 

      Water source will be relatively free of pollutants.

    • C. 

      Less frequent backwashings will be realized.

    • D. 

      Less wear and tear on the RO pump.


  • 17. 
    How far away from the campsite should you set up the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      100 feet upstream.

    • B. 

      200 yards upstream.

    • C. 

      300 feet downstream.

    • D. 

      400 yards downstream.


  • 18. 
    Where are the two deionization cartridges packed in the H–9518–2 model reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      First layer.

    • B. 

      Second layer.

    • C. 

      Third layer.

    • D. 

      Fourth layer.


  • 19. 
    What is the maximum total dissolved solids (TDS) the factory calibrated in-line TDS monitor can read?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      2,000

    • C. 

      3,000

    • D. 

      4,000


  • 20. 
    What initial action drives the ocean intake wellpoint into the ocean floor?
    • A. 

      Pressure exerted down on the wellpoint.

    • B. 

      Water pressure from the pump.

    • C. 

      Suction action of pump.

    • D. 

      Wellpoint driving tool.


  • 21. 
    Which technical order do you use when operating the H–9581–2 reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      40W4–13–41.

    • B. 

      39W9–13–41

    • C. 

      38W8–13–41

    • D. 

      37W7–13–41.


  • 22. 
    During initial start up of the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU), all chemical feed valves must be set to
    • A. 

      Off.

    • B. 

      Feed

    • C. 

      Prime.

    • D. 

      Standby.


  • 23. 
    What is the initial setting of all the chemical pump control knobs on the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10


  • 24. 
    What is the maximum reverse osmosis pump pressure that should never be exceeded when operating the reverse osmosis water purification unit?
    • A. 

      What is the maximum reverse osmosis pump pressure that should never be exceeded when operating the reverse osmosis water purification unit?

    • B. 

      500 psi (seawater), 980 psi (brackish water).

    • C. 

      960 psi (seawater), 500 psi (brackish water).

    • D. 

      500 psi (seawater), 960 psi (brackish water).


  • 25. 
    What component of the reverse osmosis water purification unit controls the backwash procedure?
    • A. 

      Element cleaning switch.

    • B. 

      Backwash strainer.

    • C. 

      Backwash pump.

    • D. 

      Backwash timer.


  • 26. 
    What is the purpose of feeding citric acid into the reverse osmosis water purification unit (ROWPU) during the production run?
    • A. 

      Increase the pH of raw water.

    • B. 

      Increase the pH of product water.

    • C. 

      Reduce scale build up on the RO elements.

    • D. 

      Reduce scale build up on the cartridge filter elements.


  • 27. 
    At what point do you set the citric acid chemical feed valve back to the prime position?
    • A. 

      When the pH reads between 2–3.

    • B. 

      When the pH reads between 2–3.

    • C. 

      When the pH reads between 5–8.

    • D. 

      When the pH reads between 9–12.


  • 28. 
    Which reverse osmosis water purification unit pump is used to recirculate the citric acid solution during the reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Backwash

    • C. 

      Raw water.

    • D. 

      Reverse osmosis.


  • 29. 
    Once initiated, when do you stop the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis element cleaning procedure?
    • A. 

      After 45 minutes has expired.

    • B. 

      After 15 minutes has expired.

    • C. 

      When the pH of product tank is below 3.5.

    • D. 

      When the pH of product water is above 3.5.


  • 30. 
    Cartridge filter replacement is indicated on the reverse osmosis water purification unit when the
    • A. 

      Influent pressure of the multimedia filter exceeds 20 psi.

    • B. 

      Influent pressure of the cartridge filter exceeds 15 psi.

    • C. 

      Differential pressure of the multimedia filter exceeds 20 psid.

    • D. 

      Differential pressure of the cartridge filter exceeds 15 psid.


  • 31. 
    What should you do just before you loosen the eyebolts of the reverse osmosis water purification unit cartridge filter cover?
    • A. 

      Backwash the filter.

    • B. 

      Start-up the ROWPU.

    • C. 

      Fill the filter with water.

    • D. 

      Mark the position of the cover.


  • 32. 
    You must replace the reverse osmosis water purification unit reverse osmosis elements when the
    • A. 

      Citric acid feeding and both element cleaning methods are not effective.

    • B. 

      Elements have been backwashed 3 times.

    • C. 

      Element end connectors are damaged.

    • D. 

      Element interconnectors are damaged.


  • 33. 
    What occurs when the end connectors or the interconnectors of the reverse osmosis water purification unit get damaged by high pressure?
    • A. 

      Osmosis

    • B. 

      Reverse osmosis.

    • C. 

      Filtration

    • D. 

      Reverse filtration.


  • 34. 
    What is the best way to protect hardwall piping from solar radiation?
    • A. 

      Bury piping.

    • B. 

      Paint piping.

    • C. 

      Keep water constantly moving.

    • D. 

      Cover pipe with camouflage material.


  • 35. 
    Under normal conditions, what are the proper parts per million and hours needed for chlorine to disinfect the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system?
    • A. 

      20, 12.

    • B. 

      20, 24.

    • C. 

      10, 12.

    • D. 

      10, 24.


  • 36. 
    The chlorine residual of a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources water distribution system should never be lower than
    • A. 

      1 part per million at the point of use.

    • B. 

      5 parts per million at the point of use.

    • C. 

      1 part per million at the point of injection.

    • D. 

      5 parts per million at the point of injection.


  • 37. 
    How many reverse osmosis water purification units (ROWPU) make up the 1500gph ROWPU water production subsystem?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4


  • 38. 
    The 500 follow-on subsystem is functionally identical to what other water distribution subsystem?
    • A. 

      550 initial subsystem.

    • B. 

      Source run subsystem.

    • C. 

      550 follow-on subsystem.

    • D. 

      Industrial operations and flightline extension subsystem.


  • 39. 
    What is provided with the Industrial operations and flightline extension subsystem to protect the water distribution system piping from damage?
    • A. 

      Couplings.

    • B. 

      Piping sleeves.

    • C. 

      Warning markers.

    • D. 

      Hose rollover protection ramps.


  • 40. 
    What components make up the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources package macerator pump lift stations?
    • A. 

      Submersible centrifugal pump, pump lift out assembly and three floats.

    • B. 

      Two submersible centrifugal pump, pump lift out assembly and four floats.

    • C. 

      Submersible macerator pump, pump lift out assembly and three floats.

    • D. 

      Two submersible macerator pumps, pump lift out assembly, and four floats.


  • 41. 
    After experiencing unusually long pump runs, how do you inspect the dual pump station’s accumulator to determine if it has become waterlogged?
    • A. 

      Depress air valve.

    • B. 

      Centrifugal pump control.

    • C. 

      Pressure drop in the system.

    • D. 

      Pressure increase in the system.


  • 42. 
    If the pressure switch on the 35gpm electric pump is not operating properly, what is the first step you should take to correct the problem after de-energizing the unit?
    • A. 

      Clean the contacts.

    • B. 

      Replace the contacts.

    • C. 

      Replace the pressure switch.

    • D. 

      Tap on the pressure switch housing.


  • 43. 
    When a float is not working properly in the dual pump lift station, and you have cleaned it and observed that it is not getting hung up in the lift station itself, what is your next course of action?
    • A. 

      Replace the float.

    • B. 

      Have an electrician check the float.

    • C. 

      Check the voltage to the lift station.

    • D. 

      Shake the float to knock the contacts loose.


  • 44. 
    What is the likely problem if a lift station pump is running backwards?
    • A. 

      Voltage too low.

    • B. 

      Voltage too high

    • C. 

      Phase voltage is incorrect.

    • D. 

      Impeller was installed backwards.


  • 45. 
    How many washer and dryers are provided with the self-help laundry?
    • A. 

      Three washers and three double stacked dryers.

    • B. 

      Four washers and four double stacked dryers.

    • C. 

      Five washers and five double stacked dryers.

    • D. 

      Six washers and six double stacked dryers.


  • 46. 
    How do you ensure that all the air has been released from the self-help laundry’s water heater?
    • A. 

      Crack the union.

    • B. 

      Check the effluent.

    • C. 

      Operate a washing machine.

    • D. 

      Open the water heater relief valve until water appears.


  • 47. 
    What technical order action do you follow to correct the self-help laundry’s water heater if the water is too hot?
    • A. 

      Adjust the thermostat.

    • B. 

      Contact HVAC personnel.

    • C. 

      Partially close the gate valve.

    • D. 

      Test and service the mixing valve.


  • 48. 
    What effect does grease have on the electric kitchens evaporation beds?
    • A. 

      Attracts beneficial bacteria.

    • B. 

      Slows the evaporation process.

    • C. 

      Enhances the bacteriological process.

    • D. 

      Grease does not affect the evaporation process.


  • 49. 
    How much sand is required when a 20,000-gallon water bladder is placed on rocky or uneven surfaces?
    • A. 

      2 inches.

    • B. 

      3 inches

    • C. 

      4 inches

    • D. 

      5 inches.


  • 50. 
    What is the maximum allowable height you can fill a 20,000-gallon water bladder?
    • A. 

      34 inches.

    • B. 

      44 inches

    • C. 

      54 inches

    • D. 

      64 inches


  • 51. 
    How many males and females does one field deployable latrine service?
    • A. 

      Four toilets and two urinal troughs that drain into a 360-gallon waste tank

    • B. 

      Five toilets and one urinal trough that drain into a 180-gallon waste tank.

    • C. 

      Six toilets and one urinal trough that drain into a 360-gallon waste tank

    • D. 

      Seven toilets and two urinal troughs that drain into a 180-gallon waste tank.


  • 52. 
    How many males and females does one field deployable latrine service?
    • A. 

      50 males and 22 females.

    • B. 

      50 males and 22 females.

    • C. 

      70 males and 52 Females.

    • D. 

      80 Males and 52 Females.


  • 53. 
    How much water is required to prime the pump on the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources latrines deployable pump?
    • A. 

      3 quarts.

    • B. 

      12 quarts.

    • C. 

      3 gallons.

    • D. 

      12 gallons.


  • 54. 
    How is the temperature of delivered water primarily controlled in the shower/shave facility?
    • A. 

      Individual users manually adjust shower valves to their need.

    • B. 

      Thermostat of the boiler controls the temperature according to need.

    • C. 

      Thermostat setting on the pump assembly is adjusted according to need.

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator mixes in more or less cold supply water when demand is increased or decreased.


  • 55. 
    What is the first step in assembling the shower facility after all the equipment has been unpacked?
    • A. 

      Connecting the drainage system.

    • B. 

      Setting up the water supply manifolds.

    • C. 

      Setting up the framework of the shower.

    • D. 

      Connecting the water pump assembly to the shower facility.


  • 56. 
    When operating a boiler, what action will prevent the boiler from emitting heavy smoke from the exhaust stack?
    • A. 

      Opening the air band.

    • B. 

      Closing the air band.

    • C. 

      Increase fuel pressure.

    • D. 

      Decrease fuel pressure.


  • 57. 
    What is the highest allowed temperature of “mixed” water from the shower/shave pump assemblies’ temperature regulator?
    • A. 

      99.5°F.

    • B. 

      105°F

    • C. 

      115°F

    • D. 

      160°F.


  • 58. 
    During the initial run-up of the shower facility, what should you do if a showerhead continues to drip after the shower valve has been closed?
    • A. 

      Nothing, this is normal.

    • B. 

      Tighten nut on ball valve.

    • C. 

      Replace the shower valve.

    • D. 

      Disassemble and clean the valve.


  • 59. 
    How often should you check the shower facilities pump assembly suction strainer for clogging?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quaterly


  • 60. 
    Which component in the shower facility are you not responsible to repair?
    • A. 

      M–80 boiler.

    • B. 

      Supply pump.

    • C. 

      Drainage pump.

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator.


  • 61. 
    Which bare-base medical facility provides outpatient clinic services?
    • A. 

      Aeromedical staging facility.

    • B. 

      Air transportable hospital.

    • C. 

      Air transportable clinic.

    • D. 

      Contingency hospital.


  • 62. 
    Which medical facility is housed in a combination of tent expendable modular personnel and Alaskan tents?
    • A. 

      Air transportable clinic.

    • B. 

      Air Force theater hospital.

    • C. 

      Air transportable hospital.

    • D. 

      Aeromedical staging facility.


  • 63. 
    Which technical order should you consult before operating the sewer sucker trailer?
    • A. 

      36A11–18–24–1.

    • B. 

      36A18–11–24–1.

    • C. 

      35E35–5–1

    • D. 

      35E5–35–1


  • 64. 
    Which expedient latrine is used if a prolonged deployment is planned?
    • A. 

      Pail

    • B. 

      Mound

    • C. 

      Deep pit.

    • D. 

      Outhouses.


  • 65. 
    You should close a saddle trench expedient latrine when
    • A. 

      Insects become a nuisance.

    • B. 

      The ground becomes saturated

    • C. 

      It becomes filled to the surface.

    • D. 

      It becomes filled with dirt to within 1 foot of the surface.


  • 66. 
    How much fuel oil should you place in the burnout latrine prior to use?
    • A. 

      ¼ gallon.

    • B. 

      ½ gallon.

    • C. 

      ¾ gallon.

    • D. 

      1 gallon


  • 67. 
    From top to bottom, what are the contents of a urine soakage pit?
    • A. 

      Large stones, small stones, and fine gravel.

    • B. 

      Fine gravel, small stones and large stones.

    • C. 

      Small stones, fine gravel, and straw.

    • D. 

      Small stones, straw, and a deflector.


  • 68. 
    To prevent the growth of rooted aquatic plants, how many feet is the minimum depth of an oxidation pond?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5


  • 69. 
    Repair of storm drains is time consuming because they
    • A. 

      Must be chemically treated.

    • B. 

      Are located aboveground.

    • C. 

      Are located underground.

    • D. 

      Require small crews.


  • 70. 
    The most common landfills on an installation are
    • A. 

      Trench and area.

    • B. 

      Trench and hill.

    • C. 

      Area types only.

    • D. 

      Hill types only.


  • 71. 
    Depth should be three times greater than the length.
    • A. 

      Depth should be three times greater than the length.

    • B. 

      Depth should be twice the length.

    • C. 

      Length should be twice the depth.

    • D. 

      Length should equal the depth.


  • 72. 
    The area landfill construction method is used
    • A. 

      The prevailing wind is south.

    • B. 

      The prevailing wind is north.

    • C. 

      Where there is a high-water table.

    • D. 

      Where there is a low-water table.


  • 73. 
    How many inches of earth should you apply to the daily waste in an area landfill?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2


  • 74. 
    Which of these is not a reason to compact refuse and earth cover in a landfill?
    • A. 

      Eliminate pests.

    • B. 

      Eliminate odors.

    • C. 

      Save trench space.

    • D. 

      Increase settlement in the fill.


  • 75. 
    What should you do to prevent erosion of a completed landfill?
    • A. 

      Plant grass.

    • B. 

      Plant trees.

    • C. 

      Seal the area with Bentonite.

    • D. 

      Compact the area thoroughly with a bullclam.


  • 76. 
    When you expand water facilities, the capacity of any small dams and reservoirs you build should be capable of impounding at least the total
    • A. 

      Daily flow.

    • B. 

      Weekly flow.

    • C. 

      Bimonthly flow.

    • D. 

      Monthly flow.


  • 77. 
    In a dug well, the water flows into the casing from the
    • A. 

      Well screen.

    • B. 

      Bottom.

    • C. 

      Sides.

    • D. 

      Top.


  • 78. 
    Approximately how long should it take a 3-person team to complete an in-crater repair on a 6- or 8-inch pipeline?
    • A. 

      30 minutes

    • B. 

      45 minutes.

    • C. 

      60 minutes.

    • D. 

      90 minutes.


  • 79. 
    What is the maximum allowable tow speed for the petroleum, oils, and lubricants rapid utilities repair kit trailer on paved surfaces?
    • A. 

      5 mph.

    • B. 

      15 mph.

    • C. 

      25 mph.

    • D. 

      45 mph.


  • 80. 
    During night repair operations with the rapid utilities repair kit I, how close to a crater’s edge can floodlight stands be positioned?
    • A. 

      20 feet.

    • B. 

      50 feet.

    • C. 

      No closer than the height of the floodlight.

    • D. 

      No closer than twice the height of the floodlight.


  • 81. 
    To operate the contingency fuel recovery system, at least how many people should be on the team?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five


  • 82. 
    The hydraulic hoses that operate the submersible pump are pressurized to approximately what psi?
    • A. 

      2000

    • B. 

      3000

    • C. 

      4000

    • D. 

      5000


  • 83. 
    The R–14 fuel servicing module is capable of delivering a controlled pressure of how much psi to the refueling nozzle?
    • A. 

      30 (+/- 5).

    • B. 

      40 (+/- 5).

    • C. 

      50 (+/- 5).

    • D. 

      60 (+/- 5).


  • 84. 
    What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R–14C fuel servicing module?
    • A. 

      400 gpm

    • B. 

      500 gpm

    • C. 

      600 gpm

    • D. 

      700 gpm


  • 85. 
    What must be considered when determining a convenient location to set-up the R–14C fuel servicing module?
    • A. 

      Type of terrain.

    • B. 

      Weather conditions.

    • C. 

      Amount of fuel being stored.

    • D. 

      Type of aircraft to be serviced.


  • 86. 
    The canisters in the FFU–15E filter/separator are constructed of
    • A. 

      Steel.

    • B. 

      Bronze.

    • C. 

      Copper

    • D. 

      Aluminum.


  • 87. 
    What is the maximum discharge pressure the R–22 pump assembly was designed to deliver at 600 gpm?
    • A. 

      30 psi.

    • B. 

      45 psi.

    • C. 

      60 psi.

    • D. 

      85 psi.


  • 88. 
    What is the purpose of the float valve on the R–22’s fuel tank?
    • A. 

      To fill the engine tank.

    • B. 

      To pump fuel from drums.

    • C. 

      To fill the pump’s priming unit.

    • D. 

      To pump fuel from operating tanks.


  • 89. 
    What size mesh is the basket strainer that is installed upstream of the pump on the R–22 pumping unit?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      40


  • 90. 
    The Hammonds TPI–4T–4 additive injector is operated by
    • A. 

      Electric motor.

    • B. 

      DC battery power.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic pressure.

    • D. 

      The fuel flowing through it.


  • 91. 
    How many filter elements are installed on the PMU–27M filter separator?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      29


  • 92. 
    How much slope should the dike floor have that contains a 10K-gallon fuel bladder?
    • A. 

      1 degree.

    • B. 

      6 degrees

    • C. 

      Between 3 and 5 degrees.

    • D. 

      None. The floor of the dike should be level.


  • 93. 
    How much working clearance must be maintained between the bladder and the bottom interior edge of the dike wall?
    • A. 

      1'

    • B. 

      2'

    • C. 

      3'

    • D. 

      4'


  • 94. 
    What is the safe fill height of the bladder when it is full?
    • A. 

      3 feet.

    • B. 

      3–1/2 feet.

    • C. 

      4 feet.

    • D. 

      4–1/2 feet.


  • 95. 
    What is the height of the dike wall around the 210,000 gallon collapsible coated fabric fuel tank?
    • A. 

      5 feet.

    • B. 

      6 feet.

    • C. 

      7 feet

    • D. 

      8 feet.


  • 96. 
    The sealing clamps used for emergency repair of collapsible coated fabric fuel tanks come in which three sizes?
    • A. 

      2-, 4-, and 6-inch.

    • B. 

      2-, 4-, and 6–1/2-inch

    • C. 

      3-, 5-, and 7-inch

    • D. 

      3-, 5-, and 7–1/2-inch.


  • 97. 
    How many times can each end of the IPDS 19-foot aluminum main line pipe sections be regrooved?
    • A. 

      Once.

    • B. 

      Twice.

    • C. 

      Three times.

    • D. 

      Never.


  • 98. 
    Because of the inland petroleum distribution system’s (IPDS) single grooves on the pipe sections and equipment adapters, what is the maximum allowable operating pressure the IPDS system can withstand?
    • A. 

      440psi

    • B. 

      540psi

    • C. 

      640psi

    • D. 

      740psi


  • 99. 
    The FORCE R–18 pumping unit is powered by what?
    • A. 

      A diesel engine.

    • B. 

      A gasoline engine.

    • C. 

      A multi-fuel engine.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic fluid pressure.


  • 100. 
    Which FORCE unit has a solar panel to charge the batteries during periods of extended inactivity?
    • A. 

      R–18 pumping unit

    • B. 

      R–19 filter/separator unit

    • C. 

      R–20 servicing unit

    • D. 

      Remote control system


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