Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep

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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg151-154 CST exam prep

  
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  • 1. 
    1226. Hirschsprung's disease is synonymous with
    • A. 

      Congenital aganglionosis

    • B. 

      Malrotation

    • C. 

      Ileal stenosis

    • D. 

      Meckel's diverticulum


  • 2. 
    1227. The condition evidenced by incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in newborns is
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Encephalocele

    • C. 

      Spina bifida

    • D. 

      Myelomeningocele


  • 3. 
    1228.The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as
    • A. 

      Crainioplasty

    • B. 

      Stereotactic surgery

    • C. 

      Craniosynostosis

    • D. 

      Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy


  • 4. 
    1229. An imperforate anus means
    • A. 

      Anal opening is absent

    • B. 

      Anus is closed

    • C. 

      Anal sphincter is too tight

    • D. 

      Anal sphincter is too loose


  • 5. 
    1230. Geriatric patients are more prone to each of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Infection

    • B. 

      Poor wound healing

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular problems

    • D. 

      Gallbladder disease


  • 6. 
    1231. A Wilms' tumor, the most common intra-abdominal childhood tumor is known as a(n)
    • A. 

      Nephroblastoma

    • B. 

      Neuroblastoma

    • C. 

      Aganglionic colon

    • D. 

      Intussusception


  • 7. 
    1232. Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as
    • A. 

      Spina bifida

    • B. 

      Pectus excavatum

    • C. 

      Spastic palsy

    • D. 

      Encephalocele


  • 8. 
    1233. Nonclosure at birth of the duct that carries blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta is termed
    • A. 

      Tetralogy of Fallot

    • B. 

      Coarctation of the aorta

    • C. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • D. 

      Anomalous venous return


  • 9. 
    1234. The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is
    • A. 

      Tricuspid atresia

    • B. 

      Tetralogy of Fallot

    • C. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • D. 

      Truncus arteriosus


  • 10. 
    1235. The mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient can be corrected by all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Tucking

    • B. 

      Advancement

    • C. 

      Recession

    • D. 

      Resection


  • 11. 
    1236. A cardiac procedure used primarily for anomalies associated with excessive pulmonary flow due to large intracardiac left-to-right shunt is called
    • A. 

      Glenn procedure

    • B. 

      Blalock-Taussig procedure

    • C. 

      Pulmonary bonding

    • D. 

      Blalock-Hanlon procedure


  • 12. 
    1237. An abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of an infant is termed
    • A. 

      Truncus arteriosus

    • B. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • C. 

      Pulmonary stenosis

    • D. 

      Hypoplastic left heart syndrome


  • 13. 
    1238. Failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development is known as a(n)
    • A. 

      Umbilical hernia

    • B. 

      Meckel's diverticulum

    • C. 

      Hiatal hernia

    • D. 

      Omphalocele


  • 14. 
    1239. What surgery is performed to treat otitis media?
    • A. 

      Myringotomy

    • B. 

      Adenoidectomy

    • C. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • D. 

      Tonsillectomy


  • 15. 
    1240. What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Airway impairment

    • C. 

      Hypothermia

    • D. 

      Metabolic depression


  • 16. 
    1241. Which of the following is the primary indication for the total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in the elderly persons?
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      B and C


  • 17. 
    1242. What is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men?
    • A. 

      Prostatic malignancies

    • B. 

      Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

    • C. 

      Bladder malignancies

    • D. 

      Nephritis


  • 18. 
    1243. An emergency drug usefull in ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is
    • A. 

      Aramine

    • B. 

      Atropine

    • C. 

      Inderal

    • D. 

      Calcium chloride


  • 19. 
    1244. An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is
    • A. 

      Calcium chloride

    • B. 

      Levophed

    • C. 

      Lasix

    • D. 

      Isuprel


  • 20. 
    1245. The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to
    • A. 

      Stimulate the heart muscle

    • B. 

      Strengthen and slow heartbeat

    • C. 

      Reduce ventricular excitement

    • D. 

      Counteract metabolic acidosis


  • 21. 
    1246. Xylocaine is used intravenously for
    • A. 

      Installation of local anesthesia

    • B. 

      Treatment of cardiac arrhythmias

    • C. 

      Diuretic action

    • D. 

      Restoration of blood volume


  • 22. 
    1247. If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?
    • A. 

      The enesthesiologist

    • B. 

      The circulating nurse

    • C. 

      The surgeon

    • D. 

      The scrub nurse


  • 23. 
    1248. Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of
    • A. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B. 

      Pleural effusion

    • C. 

      Emphysema

    • D. 

      Asthma


  • 24. 
    1249. Which pulse is checked during a cardiac arrest effort?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Carotid

    • C. 

      Pedal

    • D. 

      Brachial


  • 25. 
    1250. Airways should be
    • A. 

      Removed before the patient leaves the OR site

    • B. 

      Left in until the patient is fully awake and ready to return to his or her room

    • C. 

      Left in place until the patient breathes normally

    • D. 

      Removed only by the anesthesiologist


  • 26. 
    1251. An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body temperature is known as malignant
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Hypervolemia

    • C. 

      Hypersalemia

    • D. 

      Hyperthermia


  • 27. 
    1252. All of the following are results from aspiration of gastric contents during anesthesia EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Impeded blood gas exchange

    • B. 

      Impaired lung function

    • C. 

      Gastric decompression

    • D. 

      Chemical pneumonitis


  • 28. 
    1253. A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the
    • A. 

      Rectum

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Axilla

    • D. 

      Tympanic area


  • 29. 
    1254.Dark blood in the operative field may indicate that the patient is
    • A. 

      Hyperkalemic

    • B. 

      Hypovolemic

    • C. 

      Hypotensive

    • D. 

      Hypoxic


  • 30. 
    1255. The first and most important step for successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest is
    • A. 

      The precordial thump

    • B. 

      Artificial ventilation

    • C. 

      Immediate opening of the airway

    • D. 

      External cardiac compression


  • 31. 
    1256. The responsibility of the scrub nurse in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to
    • A. 

      Bring in the emergency cart

    • B. 

      Keep a record of all medication given

    • C. 

      Help with the intravenous and monitoring lines

    • D. 

      Give attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs


  • 32. 
    1257. A safety precaution used when a patient is being shocked with the defibrillator is
    • A. 

      No one is to touch the patient or anything metallic in contact with the patient

    • B. 

      Available personnel gently but firmly support the extremities to protect patient from injury

    • C. 

      The person holding the electrodes does not touch the patient but anyone else can

    • D. 

      The person holding the electrodes is the only one who may touch the patient


  • 33. 
    1258. When handing a syringe of medication to the surgeon for a local anesthetic, the scrub nurse should
    • A. 

      Ask the circulating nurse what solution he or she has

    • B. 

      Ask the circulator to show the vial to the surgeon

    • C. 

      Show the surgeon the vial that it came from

    • D. 

      State the kind and percentage of the solution


  • 34. 
    1259. When cardiac arrest occurs, resuscitative measures must begin within
    • A. 

      2 minutes

    • B. 

      3-5 minutes

    • C. 

      2-7 minutes

    • D. 

      5-8 minutes


  • 35. 
    1260. Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR?
    • A. 

      The scrub nurse

    • B. 

      The circulating nurse

    • C. 

      The anesthesiologist

    • D. 

      The surgeon's assistant


  • 36. 
    1261. CPR is instituted if
    • A. 

      The pulse is below 60, respirations are diminished, and blood pressure is dropping

    • B. 

      There is no pulse or blood pressure, and the pupils contract

    • C. 

      There is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated

    • D. 

      The pulse is weak and irregular, blood pressure is lowered, and pupils are dilated


  • 37. 
    1262. The first action to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest in the OR is to
    • A. 

      Alert the OR supervisor and personnel

    • B. 

      Prepare medications

    • C. 

      Institute chest massage

    • D. 

      Apply fibrillator paddles


  • 38. 
    1263. Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to
    • A. 

      Immediatly intervene with patient care

    • B. 

      Attend the anesthesiologist during crisis

    • C. 

      Maintain sterile Mayo with instruments

    • D. 

      A and B


  • 39. 
    1264. The following rules apply to needle use at the field EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Give needles to surgeon on an exchange basis

    • B. 

      Use needles and needleholders as a unit

    • C. 

      Keep needles away from sponges and laps

    • D. 

      Keep used needles in a medicine cup


  • 40. 
    1265. What is the disposition of all sharps that have been passed off the field intraoperatively?
    • A. 

      Keep off the field for final resolution of count

    • B. 

      Immediately place in sharp container on OR wall

    • C. 

      Roll in tape and discard

    • D. 

      Take from OR with original suture wrapper


  • 41. 
    1266. A washer-decontaminator, used after instruments are presoaked, uses which of the following processes to remove blood and protein?
    • A. 

      Impingement

    • B. 

      Cavitation

    • C. 

      Steam under pressure

    • D. 

      Chemicals


  • 42. 
    1267. What is the first step in handling the used and unused instruments after a case is completed?
    • A. 

      Washer-sterilizer

    • B. 

      Presoaking in a basin

    • C. 

      Ultrasonic cleaner

    • D. 

      Milking


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