Security Forces CDC's Volume 3
- 1.
Range cards are a record of?
- A.
Range Data
- B.
Training
- C.
Firing Data
- D.
Call signs
Correct Answer
C. Firing DataExplanation
Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide important information such as the distance to the target, the type of ammunition used, and any adjustments that need to be made for accurate firing. Range cards are essential for military personnel and marksmen to ensure precision and effectiveness in their shooting. They serve as a reference for future engagements and help in maintaining consistency and improving accuracy during training and combat scenarios.Rate this question:
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- 2.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Two range cards are prepared for each position.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What does the acronym TRP stand for?
- A.
Team rexonnaissance patrol
- B.
Total refference point
- C.
Traffic relief point
- D.
Target reference point
Correct Answer
D. Target reference pointExplanation
TRP stands for Target Reference Point. This acronym is commonly used in military and tactical contexts to refer to a specific location or point that serves as a target for various operations or maneuvers. It provides a clear and identifiable reference for troops or units to focus their efforts on during missions or exercises.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When would you fire in your secondary sector of fire?
- A.
When your primary field of fire is blocked
- B.
When you see friendly forces
- C.
When ordered to fire there
- D.
To test fire your weapon
Correct Answer
C. When ordered to fire thereExplanation
The correct answer is when ordered to fire there. This means that you would only fire in your secondary sector of fire if you have been specifically instructed or given orders to do so. It is important to follow orders and instructions in a military or tactical setting to maintain coordination and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the operation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
A range card typically includes two sectors of fire. These sectors represent the areas where the weapon or unit is able to engage targets effectively. By dividing the area into two sectors, it allows for better target acquisition and engagement, as well as providing a clear understanding of the boundaries of fire for the unit.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The final protective line is the line that?
- A.
Sets up your mortars
- B.
Plans all team movements
- C.
Places your sniper weapons
- D.
Shoots grazing fire across your sector front
Correct Answer
D. Shoots grazing fire across your sector frontExplanation
The final protective line refers to a defensive line that is established to provide a last line of defense against enemy forces. It is typically positioned in front of friendly troops and is used to engage and suppress the enemy with grazing fire. Grazing fire is a type of fire that is directed horizontally and close to the ground, making it effective in preventing enemy advancement and causing casualties. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shoots grazing fire across your sector front."Rate this question:
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- 7.
What are target reference points?
- A.
Natural features used to quickly locate targets
- B.
Synthetic features used to quickly locate targets
- C.
Manmade features used to quickly locate targets
- D.
Natural or manmade features used to quickly locate targets
Correct Answer
D. Natural or manmade features used to quickly locate targetsExplanation
Target reference points are either natural or manmade features that are used to quickly locate targets. These points serve as landmarks or indicators that help individuals or systems identify the location of a specific target.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What are the target reference points used for?
- A.
Controls direct-fire weapons but may be used for indirect fire weapons
- B.
Constructs direct-fire weapons position
- C.
Constructs positions for inirect fire only
- D.
Controls weapon positions
Correct Answer
A. Controls direct-fire weapons but may be used for indirect fire weaponsExplanation
The target reference points are used to control direct-fire weapons, but they can also be used for indirect fire weapons. This means that they serve as a guide or reference for aiming and directing both types of weapons.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The information included in the marginal date section of the range card is position #
- A.
Unit, weapon type, north azimuth, ID numbers
- B.
Weapon, magnetic north, back azimuth, sensor id points
- C.
Weapons, sensor ID number, south azimuth grid, and dates
- D.
Weapon, unit, call sign/date,meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbers
Correct Answer
D. Weapon, unit, call sign/date,meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbersExplanation
The marginal data section of the range card includes information about the weapon, unit, call sign/date, meters each circle represents, and sensor ID numbers. This information is important for accurately recording and referencing the range data during operations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Where would you sketch in the magnetic north data in on your range card?
- A.
Par one
- B.
Regional data block
- C.
Marginal data section
- D.
Where you can locate it quickly
Correct Answer
C. Marginal data sectionExplanation
The magnetic north data is typically included in the marginal data section of a range card. This section is specifically designed to provide important information that may be needed quickly, such as magnetic north data, grid conversions, or other relevant data. Placing the magnetic north data in this section allows for easy access and ensures that it is readily available when needed.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How is the final protection line (FPL) sketched in on your sector?
- A.
Double dash dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance
- B.
Thick dark line with dashes out to your weapon grazing fire distance
- C.
Light line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow
- D.
Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow
Correct Answer
D. Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrowExplanation
The final protection line (FPL) is sketched in as a thick dark line that extends out to the weapon grazing fire distance. Additionally, the top of the line is capped with an arrow. This indicates the boundary beyond which friendly forces should not cross in order to avoid being exposed to enemy fire.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)
- A.
By walking the perimeter
- B.
Having your buddy walk the fpl
- C.
Running the fpl
- D.
Having your budy walk the principal direction of fire (PDF)
Correct Answer
B. Having your buddy walk the fplExplanation
Dead space on the final protective line (FPL) is determined by having your buddy walk the FPL. Dead space refers to areas where the enemy can approach without being engaged by direct fire. By having someone walk the FPL, they can identify any areas where the line of sight is obstructed or where there are blind spots that need to be addressed. This helps ensure that the FPL provides effective coverage and minimizes the risk of the enemy infiltrating undetected.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using
- A.
Solid line on boundary
- B.
Dashes only on the boundry
- C.
Dark line on the boundry only
- D.
Broken or dashed line on the boundry
Correct Answer
D. Broken or dashed line on the boundryExplanation
The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using a broken or dashed line on the boundary. This helps to visually represent the area where the weapon system can engage targets effectively. The broken or dashed line indicates that the sector is not continuous and there may be gaps or limitations in the firing coverage.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How many operating positions does the m4 stock have
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4 because the M4 stock has four operating positions. The operating positions refer to the different adjustable lengths or settings that the stock can be set to. This allows the user to customize the length of the stock to their preference and shooting style.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures
- B.
Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle
- D.
Unlock the bolt during remedial action procedures
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action proceduresExplanation
The forward assist is used to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. This means that if the bolt does not fully close or is not in the correct position, the forward assist can be used to push the bolt forward and ensure it is properly locked in place. This is important in situations where quick and immediate action is required, such as during combat or other high-pressure situations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The accronym s.p.o.r.t.s stands for?
- A.
Slap, push, open, recall, and squeeze
- B.
Smooth, open, recoil, tap by squeezing
- C.
Slap, pull, observe, release, squeeze
- D.
Slap, push, tap, observe, rab, and squeeze
Correct Answer
C. Slap, pull, observe, release, squeezeExplanation
The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, squeeze". This is because the acronym "s.p.o.r.t.s" is formed by taking the first letter of each word in the answer option.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The primary purpose of preventative maintinance is to keep weapons
- A.
Cleaned and properly lubricated
- B.
Clean and dry and lubricated
- C.
Parts completly oiled
- D.
In like new condition
Correct Answer
A. Cleaned and properly lubricatedExplanation
The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to ensure that weapons are cleaned and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent the buildup of dirt, debris, and rust, which can affect the performance and lifespan of the weapons. Proper lubrication also helps to reduce friction and wear on the moving parts, allowing the weapons to operate smoothly and reliably. By keeping the weapons cleaned and properly lubricated, their overall condition and functionality can be maintained, similar to how they were when they were new.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the standard round with the m4 rifle
- A.
M856 tracer
- B.
M855 ball
- C.
M199 dummy
- D.
M193 ball
Correct Answer
B. M855 ballExplanation
The standard round with the M4 rifle is the M855 ball. This round is a 5.56x45mm NATO cartridge that is commonly used by the military. It is known for its accuracy and reliability, making it a popular choice for the M4 rifle. The M855 ball round is designed to penetrate targets effectively and has a steel penetrator at the tip to enhance its armor-piercing capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of ammo is used in the m4 but has no primer
- A.
M193 ball
- B.
N196 tracer
- C.
M199 dummy
- D.
M200 ball
Correct Answer
C. M199 dummyExplanation
The correct answer is m199 dummy. This type of ammo is used in the M4 but does not have a primer. A dummy round is typically used for training purposes or for testing the feeding and extraction of a firearm. It is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition but does not contain any propellant or primer, making it safe for training exercises.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What type of cartridge is used in the m4 carbine has no projectile
- A.
M193
- B.
M199
- C.
M200
- D.
M855
Correct Answer
C. M200Explanation
The M200 cartridge is used in the M4 carbine and does not have a projectile. This means that it is a blank cartridge, which is commonly used in military training exercises and simulations. Blank cartridges do not contain a bullet or projectile, but they still produce a loud noise and muzzle flash when fired, making them useful for training purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many meters is the max range for the m9
- A.
600
- B.
800
- C.
1100
- D.
1800
Correct Answer
D. 1800Explanation
The correct answer is 1800. This indicates that the maximum range for the M9 is 1800 meters.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The front and rear sites for the m9 pistol are
- A.
Fixed
- B.
Elevated
- C.
Calibrated
- D.
Adjustable
Correct Answer
A. FixedExplanation
The correct answer is fixed. This means that the front and rear sights of the M9 pistol cannot be adjusted or moved. They are permanently fixed in place.Rate this question:
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- 23.
On the m9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
- A.
Loaded chamber indicator
- B.
Reset the firing pin block
- C.
Chambering
- D.
Releasing slide
Correct Answer
A. Loaded chamber indicatorExplanation
The correct answer is "loaded chamber indicator." On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is to indicate whether there is a round in the chamber. This is important for the user to know if the pistol is loaded or not. The extractor also serves the function of extracting the spent casing after firing. However, in this context, the primary purpose mentioned is the loaded chamber indicator.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What ball is the standard cartridge with the m9
- A.
M882
- B.
M862
- C.
M856
- D.
M855
Correct Answer
A. M882Explanation
The correct answer is m882. The M882 ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9 pistol.Rate this question:
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- 25.
M882 ammo is used against what tupe of target
- A.
Antiperssonel vehicle
- B.
Perssonell
- C.
Vehicles
- D.
Tanks
Correct Answer
B. Perssonell -
- 26.
What type of ammo does the m203 fire
- A.
High explosive dual purpose only
- B.
40mm low velocity
- C.
42mm high velocity
- D.
Combo of high/low velocity
Correct Answer
B. 40mm low velocityExplanation
The M203 fires 40mm low velocity ammunition.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many meters is the max. effective range for a point target
- A.
400
- B.
350
- C.
250
- D.
150
Correct Answer
D. 150Explanation
The maximum effective range for a point target is 150 meters. This means that a point target can be effectively engaged and hit accurately within a range of 150 meters. Beyond this distance, the accuracy and effectiveness of hitting the target may decrease.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How many meters in the kill radius for an explosive round
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The correct answer is 5. This suggests that the kill radius for an explosive round is 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Under what condition would you use mk19 ammo in the m203
- A.
Under no circumstance
- B.
When directed
- C.
Emergencies
- D.
Last resort
Correct Answer
A. Under no circumstanceExplanation
The correct answer is "under no circumstance." This means that under no situation or condition would you use mk19 ammo in the m203. This suggests that using mk19 ammo in the m203 is strictly prohibited and should never be done.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What type of m249 ammo is used during dry fire exercises
- A.
M856 tracer
- B.
M855 ball
- C.
M199 dummy
- D.
M200 blank
Correct Answer
C. M199 dummyExplanation
During dry fire exercises, live ammunition is not used for safety reasons. Instead, dummy ammunition is used, specifically the m199 dummy round. This type of ammo does not contain any explosive or propellant, making it safe to use for training purposes. It allows soldiers to practice their firing techniques, weapon handling, and target acquisition without the risk of accidental discharge or injury.Rate this question:
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- 31.
How many meters for the m249 max effective range for an area target
- A.
200
- B.
400
- C.
600
- D.
800
Correct Answer
D. 800Explanation
The correct answer is 800 meters. The max effective range for an area target with the M249 is 800 meters.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In meters what is the max eff range for the m240 bravo for a point target with tripod
- A.
400
- B.
800
- C.
1100
- D.
1800
Correct Answer
B. 800Explanation
The maximum effective range for the M240 Bravo with a tripod for a point target is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the weapon may significantly decrease.Rate this question:
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- 33.
In meters what is the max eff range of the m870 shotgun using "00" buck shot
- A.
50
- B.
68
- C.
75
- D.
88
Correct Answer
B. 68Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buck shot is 68 meters. This means that the shotgun is most effective in hitting targets accurately within a range of 68 meters when using "00" buck shot ammunition.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When employed in a physical security the m870 is effecttive because
- A.
It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment
- B.
Entry controllers can stop or slow down vehicles
- C.
Of its close quarter capabilities
- D.
Of its psychological effect
Correct Answer
A. It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipmentExplanation
The M870 is effective in physical security because it can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment. This suggests that the weapon is suitable for protecting valuable and important assets, as it can provide a high level of security in these areas.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How are designated marksman employed
- A.
Individually
- B.
As a pair
- C.
Idividually or as a pair
- D.
As determined by the csf
Correct Answer
C. Idividually or as a pairExplanation
Designated marksman can be employed either individually or as a pair depending on the situation and the decision made by the CSF (Commander's Support Force). This means that they have the flexibility to operate on their own or work together with another marksman, depending on the mission requirements and tactical considerations. The decision on whether to employ them individually or as a pair would be based on factors such as the mission objectives, the terrain, the enemy situation, and the available resources.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision equipment (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are
- A.
Squad leader
- B.
Support element sniper
- C.
Reconnissance and close precision support
- D.
Response, overwatch, screening, and reconninssance
Correct Answer
D. Response, overwatch, screening, and reconninssanceExplanation
The optimal employment capabilities of close precision equipment (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. This means that these teams are skilled in quickly reacting to threats or situations, providing cover and support from a vantage point, conducting thorough observation and surveillance, and identifying potential threats or targets. These capabilities make them valuable assets in tactical operations, as they can effectively respond to enemy actions and gather critical intelligence for the team.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The min and max grade before being considered for marksman is
- A.
Amm-Sra
- B.
Sra-SSgt
- C.
SSgt-Tsgt
- D.
Sra-MSgt
Correct Answer
D. Sra-MSgtExplanation
The correct answer is Sra-MSgt because the question is asking for the minimum and maximum grade range that someone must have before being considered for the marksman position. In this given range, the minimum grade is Senior Airman (Sra) and the maximum grade is Master Sergeant (MSgt). Therefore, individuals must hold a rank between Sra and MSgt to be eligible for the marksman position.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The m24 is effective against point targets on how many meters
- A.
400
- B.
600
- C.
800
- D.
1000
Correct Answer
C. 800Explanation
The M24 is effective against point targets at a distance of 800 meters.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the 3 common charateristics that hand granandes share
- A.
Mid range employment and delay for throwing
- B.
Long employment range, medium casualty radius, and safe throwing
- C.
Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
- D.
Medium employment range, short casuallty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
Correct Answer
C. Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwingExplanation
Hand grenades typically have a short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, which means the area of effect where the grenade can cause harm is limited. Additionally, hand grenades are designed with a delay element that allows the person throwing the grenade to have a safe distance before it explodes. These characteristics make hand grenades effective for close-quarters combat and allow for safer handling and throwing.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenandes
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed by the blast or shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat and can cause significant damage within this range.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How many meters is the avg person capable of throwing a hand granande
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
D. 40Explanation
The given answer states that the average person is capable of throwing a hand grenade up to 40 meters. This implies that the average person has the physical strength and ability to throw a hand grenade a distance of 40 meters.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The hand grenande safety clip prevents the safety lever from
- A.
Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed
- B.
Accidentaly breaking loose if dropped inadvertently
- C.
Accidentaly arming the grenande when removed
- D.
Springing open if the safety pin is damaged
Correct Answer
A. Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removedExplanation
The hand grenade safety clip is designed to prevent the safety lever from springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed. This means that even if the safety pin is removed by accident, the safety clip will still keep the safety lever in place, ensuring that the grenade does not become armed. This is an important safety feature to prevent accidental detonation of the grenade.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How can the m72 law be employed and fired
- A.
Shoulder, sitting, and only prone position
- B.
Sitting kneeling, and over barricade
- C.
Standing kneeling and over barricade
- D.
Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling
Correct Answer
D. Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneelingExplanation
The correct answer is "shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling". This answer suggests that the M72 LAW (Light Anti-Tank Weapon) can be employed and fired from various positions, including shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling. This implies that the weapon is versatile and can be used effectively in different combat scenarios and positions depending on the situation.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which statement best describes the m72 law
- A.
Requires low maintanance and inspections monthly
- B.
High maintanince weapon that requires periodic maintenence
- C.
Light weight anti armor weapon requring maintenence on a quarterly basis
- D.
Reqiures little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenence
Correct Answer
D. Reqiures little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenenceExplanation
The statement "requires little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenance" best describes the M72 Law. This suggests that the M72 Law is a low-maintenance weapon that does not require much effort from the user, except for regular visual inspections and some maintenance work.Rate this question:
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- 45.
If the trigger arming handle fails to stay in the arm position check
- A.
Safety handle
- B.
Firing spring
- C.
Launcher for dents
- D.
To see if the launcher is fully extended
Correct Answer
D. To see if the launcher is fully extendedExplanation
To ensure that the trigger arming handle stays in the arm position, it is important to check if the launcher is fully extended. If the launcher is not fully extended, it may cause the trigger arming handle to fail in staying in the arm position. Therefore, checking the launcher for full extension is necessary to ensure proper functioning of the trigger arming handle.Rate this question:
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- 46.
If a misfire occcurs how many sec. do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
If a misfire occurs, it is important to wait for a few seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This is because there may still be a delay in the firing mechanism, and removing the launcher too soon could result in accidental discharge and potential harm. Waiting for 10 seconds allows for a safe period to ensure that the misfire is resolved before handling the launcher.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The sights of the at4 resemble the sights of what other weapon
- A.
M16
- B.
M4
- C.
M240b
- D.
M249 saw
Correct Answer
A. M16Explanation
The sights of the AT4 resemble the sights of the M16. This means that the two weapons have similar or identical sight systems, allowing for easier transition and familiarity for users who are already trained on the M16.Rate this question:
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- 48.
If you decide not to fire the m136 at4 what must you do immediatlely
- A.
De cock the launcher
- B.
Replace the transport safety strap
- C.
Replace transport safety pin
- D.
Remove spent ammmo cartridge
Correct Answer
C. Replace transport safety pinExplanation
If you decide not to fire the M136 AT4, you must immediately replace the transport safety pin. This is necessary to ensure that the launcher remains safe and secure during transport and storage. The transport safety pin is designed to prevent accidental firing of the weapon, so replacing it is crucial to maintain safety protocols.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The claymore mine is used primarily as a
- A.
Offensive weapon
- B.
Deffensive weapon
- C.
Passive defense weapon
- D.
Active defense weapon
Correct Answer
B. Deffensive weaponExplanation
The claymore mine is used primarily as a defensive weapon. It is a directional explosive device that is designed to be set up and triggered by the defender, facing the direction of the anticipated enemy attack. When triggered, it releases a lethal blast of shrapnel in a specific direction, effectively halting or slowing down enemy advances and providing cover for the defender. Its purpose is to defend a specific area or position from enemy forces, making it a defensive weapon.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a
- A.
Lethal force weapon
- B.
Mine or booby trap
- C.
Active force multiplyer
- D.
Precision engagement weapon
Correct Answer
B. Mine or booby trapExplanation
The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when employed in an uncontrolled role. This means that it is set up to be triggered by the unsuspecting enemy, causing a lethal force to be unleashed. In this context, the claymore functions as a hidden explosive device that is designed to inflict maximum damage on the enemy.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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