Phlebotomy Exam On Chapters 1,2,3,&4

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Phlebotomy Exam On Chapters 1,2,3,&4 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Hippocrates developed a medical theory that diseases were the result of excess substances and the removal of them would restore balance.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hippocrates developed a medical theory that diseases were caused by an excess of substances in the body. According to his theory, restoring balance could be achieved by removing these excess substances. This theory is known as the theory of humoral medicine and was widely accepted during Hippocrates' time. Therefore, the statement that diseases were the result of excess substances and their removal would restore balance is true.

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  • 2. 

    In the 17th and 18th century, phlebotomy was a major therapeutic process that included the use of leeches. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During the 17th and 18th century, phlebotomy was indeed a major therapeutic process that involved the use of leeches. Phlebotomy, the practice of drawing blood from a patient, was believed to balance the body's humors and restore health. Leeches were commonly used in this process as they were thought to remove "bad blood" and improve circulation. This practice was widely accepted and considered a legitimate medical treatment during that time period. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 3. 

    Name the two most common types of therapeutic phlebotomy.

    • A.

      Skin puncture/Finger stick

    • B.

      Polycythemia - Hemochromatosis

    • C.

      Venipuncture - Bleeding Time

    • D.

      Blood culture/Throat culture

    Correct Answer
    B. Polycythemia - Hemochromatosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Polycythemia - Hemochromatosis. Therapeutic phlebotomy is a procedure in which blood is removed from the body to treat certain medical conditions. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells, and therapeutic phlebotomy is commonly used to reduce the number of red blood cells in these patients. Hemochromatosis, on the other hand, is a condition in which there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. Therapeutic phlebotomy is used to remove excess iron from the body in these patients.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not associated with professionalism?

    • A.

      Integrity

    • B.

      How you speak

    • C.

      How you act

    • D.

      Your beliefs

    Correct Answer
    D. Your beliefs
    Explanation
    Beliefs are not associated with professionalism because professionalism focuses on one's behavior, actions, and integrity in the workplace, rather than personal beliefs or opinions. Professionalism requires individuals to maintain high ethical standards, be respectful in their communication, and act in a responsible and accountable manner. While personal beliefs may influence one's behavior to some extent, professionalism requires individuals to separate personal beliefs from their professional obligations and interactions.

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  • 5. 

    When using a "lancet" what might one be performing specifically?

    • A.

      Bleeding time

    • B.

      Venipuncture

    • C.

      Skin puncture

    • D.

      Finger stick

    Correct Answer
    C. Skin puncture
    Explanation
    When using a "lancet," one might be performing a skin puncture. A lancet is a small, sharp instrument used to create a small incision or puncture in the skin. This procedure is commonly done for various purposes such as collecting blood samples for testing, glucose monitoring, or administering medication.

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  • 6. 

    Early equipment used for blood - letting includes all of the following except the:

    • A.

      Hemostat

    • B.

      Lancet

    • C.

      Fleam

    • D.

      Leech

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemostat
    Explanation
    The early equipment used for blood-letting includes lancets, fleams, and leeches. A lancet is a small, sharp instrument used to puncture the skin and release blood. A fleam is a larger, more curved instrument with multiple blades used to make a deeper incision. Leeches were also commonly used to suck blood from the body. However, a hemostat is not used for blood-letting. A hemostat is a surgical tool used to clamp blood vessels and control bleeding during surgery.

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  • 7. 

    You finished a national credentialing phlebotomy course, which initials will be granted?

    • A.

      CLT

    • B.

      CLPlb

    • C.

      CPT

    • D.

      PBT

    Correct Answer
    B. CLPlb
  • 8. 

    Who is referred to as the "Ambassador" of the lab?

    • A.

      Pathologist

    • B.

      Medical Tech

    • C.

      Phlebotomist

    • D.

      Histologist

    Correct Answer
    C. Phlebotomist
    Explanation
    The phlebotomist is referred to as the "Ambassador" of the lab because they are responsible for collecting blood samples from patients. They are often the first point of contact for patients and play a crucial role in ensuring that the samples are collected correctly and efficiently. The phlebotomist also needs to have good communication skills as they interact with patients and explain the process to them. Their role is vital in maintaining the reputation and professionalism of the lab.

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  • 9. 

    Which department means the study of serum?

    • A.

      Hematology

    • B.

      Microbiology

    • C.

      Chemistry

    • D.

      Serology

    Correct Answer
    D. Serology
    Explanation
    Serology is the correct answer because it is the department that specifically studies serum. Serum is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the blood cells have been removed. Serology involves the testing and analysis of serum to detect and identify antibodies, antigens, and other substances present in the blood. This department plays a crucial role in diagnosing and monitoring various infectious diseases, autoimmune disorders, and allergies.

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  • 10. 

    The following are additional skills a phlebotomist should have except:

    • A.

      Mental

    • B.

      Traditional

    • C.

      Primary

    • D.

      Emotional

    Correct Answer
    D. Emotional
    Explanation
    A phlebotomist should have mental, traditional, and primary skills as part of their job requirements. However, emotional skills are not typically considered a necessary skill for a phlebotomist. Emotional skills refer to the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions, as well as empathize and communicate effectively with others. While it can be beneficial for a phlebotomist to have some level of emotional intelligence, it is not a skill that is directly related to their job duties of drawing blood and collecting samples.

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  • 11. 

    What are the major parts of the lab?

    • A.

      Chemistry / Immunohematology

    • B.

      Clinical / Critical Care

    • C.

      Coagulation / Serology

    • D.

      Anatomic Surgical pathology / Clinical Analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Anatomic Surgical pathology / Clinical Analysis
    Explanation
    The major parts of the lab are Anatomic Surgical pathology and Clinical Analysis. These are two separate areas within the lab that focus on different aspects of medical testing and analysis. Anatomic Surgical pathology involves the examination of tissue samples and the diagnosis of diseases through microscopic examination. Clinical Analysis, on the other hand, involves the analysis of bodily fluids and other samples to determine the presence of diseases or abnormalities. These two areas work together to provide a comprehensive understanding of a patient's health and aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an example of proxemics?

    • A.

      Personal hygiene

    • B.

      Eye contact

    • C.

      Comfort zone

    • D.

      Facial expressions

    Correct Answer
    C. Comfort zone
    Explanation
    Proxemics refers to the study of personal space and how individuals use and perceive it. Comfort zone, in this context, refers to the physical distance that individuals prefer to keep between themselves and others. It is an example of proxemics because it relates to the concept of personal space and how individuals establish boundaries in their interactions with others.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to obtain a blood culture?

    • A.

      Bandage

    • B.

      Gauze / Cotton balls

    • C.

      Aerobic & anaerobic

    • D.

      Swabs & wipes

    Correct Answer
    D. Swabs & wipes
    Explanation
    Swabs and wipes are used to obtain a blood culture. Swabs are used to collect a sample from the site where the blood will be drawn, while wipes are used to clean the area before the procedure. These tools help ensure that the blood culture is not contaminated and provide a sterile environment for the collection of the sample.

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  • 14. 

    Which department identifies diseases associated with blood and blood-forming tissues?

    • A.

      Microbioloby

    • B.

      Hematology

    • C.

      Blood Bank

    • D.

      Toxicology

    Correct Answer
    B. Hematology
    Explanation
    Hematology is the correct answer because it is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of blood and blood-forming tissues. Hematologists are responsible for identifying and diagnosing diseases related to the blood, such as anemia, leukemia, and clotting disorders. They analyze blood samples, perform tests, and interpret the results to determine the presence of any abnormalities or diseases. Therefore, Hematology is the department that specializes in identifying diseases associated with blood and blood-forming tissues.

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  • 15. 

    A person who is responsible for their actions and is dependable makes for a good job candidate at any facility. This and work ethics go hand in hand.

    • A.

      Compassionate

    • B.

      Motivation

    • C.

      Dependability

    • D.

      Intelligence

    Correct Answer
    C. Dependability
    Explanation
    A person who is responsible for their actions and is dependable is seen as a good job candidate because they can be relied upon to fulfill their responsibilities and complete tasks effectively. Dependability is an important trait in the workplace as it ensures that work is completed on time and to a high standard. Employers value employees who can be trusted to show up on time, meet deadlines, and follow through on commitments. This trait also demonstrates a strong work ethic, as dependable individuals are typically dedicated and committed to their work.

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  • 16. 

    Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:

    • A.

      Assault & battery

    • B.

      Invasion of privacy

    • C.

      Malpractice

    • D.

      Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault & battery
    Explanation
    Drawing a patient's blood without their permission can result in a charge of assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, while battery refers to the actual physical contact without consent. In this case, drawing blood without permission would be considered an intentional act that causes physical contact without consent, making it a clear case of assault and battery.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following test is performed in the coagulation department?

    • A.

      BUN

    • B.

      CBC

    • C.

      PT

    • D.

      Electrolytes

    Correct Answer
    C. PT
    Explanation
    The PT (Prothrombin Time) test is performed in the coagulation department. This test measures the time it takes for blood to clot, which helps evaluate the functioning of the clotting factors in the blood. The coagulation department specializes in testing and diagnosing disorders related to blood clotting and coagulation.

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  • 18. 

    The term phlebotomy is derived from a Greek word that literally means when translated:

    • A.

      Vein incision

    • B.

      Draw blood

    • C.

      Stick a vein

    • D.

      Blood incision

    Correct Answer
    A. Vein incision
    Explanation
    The term phlebotomy is derived from a Greek word that literally means "vein incision." This term refers to the medical procedure of making an incision or puncture in a vein in order to draw blood.

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  • 19. 

    Another name for blood bank is:

    • A.

      Serology

    • B.

      Immunohematology

    • C.

      Microbiology

    • D.

      Immunology

    Correct Answer
    B. Immunohematology
    Explanation
    Immunohematology is another name for blood bank. This field focuses on the study of blood groups and the compatibility of blood for transfusion purposes. It involves testing and matching blood types, detecting antibodies, and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions. The term "immunohematology" accurately describes the combination of immunology and hematology in the context of blood banking.

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  • 20. 

    Which part of the hospital would be responsible for monitoring drugs?

    • A.

      Nuclear Medicine

    • B.

      Pharmacy

    • C.

      Toxicology

    • D.

      Radiology

    Correct Answer
    B. Pharmacy
    Explanation
    The pharmacy department in a hospital is responsible for monitoring drugs. They ensure the safe and effective use of medications by dispensing prescriptions, providing medication information to healthcare professionals, and monitoring drug therapy for patients. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians play a crucial role in managing drug inventory, ensuring proper storage and handling of medications, and monitoring for any adverse drug reactions or interactions. They work closely with other healthcare professionals to optimize medication therapy and ensure patient safety.

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  • 21. 

    A laboratory department that tests specimens for the presence of bacteria is:

    • A.

      Chemistry

    • B.

      Microbiology

    • C.

      Hematology

    • D.

      Serology

    Correct Answer
    B. Microbiology
    Explanation
    A laboratory department that tests specimens for the presence of bacteria is Microbiology. This is because microbiology is the branch of science that deals with the study of microorganisms, including bacteria. In this department, technicians and scientists analyze specimens to identify and determine the presence of bacteria, which can help in diagnosing infections and determining the appropriate treatment.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a hematology test?

    • A.

      C&S

    • B.

      CBC

    • C.

      Lytes

    • D.

      Ptt

    Correct Answer
    B. CBC
    Explanation
    A hematology test refers to a test that examines the blood and its components. CBC, or complete blood count, is a common hematology test that provides information about the different types of blood cells, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It also measures various parameters like hemoglobin levels, hematocrit, and cell counts, which help in diagnosing and monitoring conditions related to blood disorders, infections, and anemia. Therefore, CBC is the correct answer as it is a specific test used in hematology.

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  • 23. 

    C & S tests on patient specimens are performed in:

    • A.

      Microbiology department

    • B.

      Urinalysis department

    • C.

      Coagulation department

    • D.

      Chemistry department

    Correct Answer
    A. Microbiology department
    Explanation
    C & S tests, which stands for Culture and Sensitivity tests, are used to identify and determine the susceptibility of bacteria or other microorganisms to specific antibiotics. These tests are typically performed in the Microbiology department of a laboratory, as it is the department that specializes in the study of microorganisms and their interactions with humans. The other departments mentioned (Urinalysis, Coagulation, and Chemistry) are not directly related to the testing and identification of microorganisms, making the Microbiology department the most appropriate choice for performing C & S tests.

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  • 24. 

    A light blue tube is drawn, which department is it going to?

    • A.

      Toxicology

    • B.

      Chemistry

    • C.

      Coagulation

    • D.

      Blood Bank

    Correct Answer
    C. Coagulation
    Explanation
    A light blue tube is commonly used for coagulation tests. Coagulation tests are used to evaluate the blood's ability to form clots. These tests are important in diagnosing and monitoring conditions related to blood clotting disorders. Therefore, if a light blue tube is drawn, it is likely going to the coagulation department for further testing and analysis.

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  • 25. 

    What are the three additives in a green tube associated with Heparin?

    • A.

      Fluoride, Lithium, Sodium

    • B.

      Lithium, Ammonia, Potassium

    • C.

      Sodium, Calcium, Lithium

    • D.

      Ammonia, Sodium, Lithium

    Correct Answer
    D. Ammonia, Sodium, Lithium
    Explanation
    The three additives in a green tube associated with Heparin are Ammonia, Sodium, and Lithium.

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  • 26. 

    What does an anticoagulant do?

    • A.

      Clot the blood

    • B.

      Prevent blood from clotting

    • C.

      Thin the blood

    • D.

      Thickens the blood

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent blood from clotting
    Explanation
    An anticoagulant is a substance that prevents blood from clotting. It works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots, which can be dangerous and lead to blockages in blood vessels. Anticoagulants are commonly used to treat and prevent conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and atrial fibrillation. By preventing blood from clotting, anticoagulants help to maintain the normal flow of blood throughout the body and reduce the risk of complications associated with blood clot formation.

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  • 27. 

    Which tubes once centrifuged produce serum?

    • A.

      Green and Blue

    • B.

      Red and SST

    • C.

      Lavender and Red

    • D.

      SST and Yellow

    Correct Answer
    D. SST and Yellow
    Explanation
    The tubes that produce serum when centrifuged are the SST (serum separator tube) and the Yellow tube. The SST tube contains a gel separator that separates the serum from the blood cells during centrifugation. The Yellow tube contains a gel barrier similar to the SST tube, allowing for the separation of serum. Both tubes are commonly used in clinical laboratories to obtain serum samples for various diagnostic tests.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not a "patient right"?

    • A.

      A complete explanation of his/her bill

    • B.

      Confidentiality of his/her records

    • C.

      Refuse treatment

    • D.

      Know the medical status of his/her health provider

    Correct Answer
    D. Know the medical status of his/her health provider
    Explanation
    Knowing the medical status of one's health provider is not a "patient right" because it is not directly related to the patient's own healthcare or treatment. Patient rights typically refer to the rights and privileges that patients have in relation to their own medical care, such as the right to refuse treatment, access to their medical records, and receiving a complete explanation of their bill. Knowing the medical status of a health provider would fall more under the category of transparency or information about the provider, rather than a right that directly affects the patient's own healthcare.

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  • 29. 

    A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures:

    • A.

      ASCP

    • B.

      NAACLS

    • C.

      NCA

    • D.

      CLSI

    Correct Answer
    D. CLSI
    Explanation
    CLSI stands for Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute. It is a national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures, as well as other clinical and laboratory practices. They provide guidelines and recommendations to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and safety of laboratory testing. By following CLSI standards, healthcare professionals can ensure consistent and high-quality phlebotomy practices, which ultimately leads to better patient care and outcomes.

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  • 30. 

    Doing something careless or failing to do something that should have been done is called:

    • A.

      Assault

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Fraud

    • D.

      Tort

    Correct Answer
    B. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence refers to the act of being careless or failing to do something that should have been done. It involves a lack of reasonable care or attention, resulting in harm or damage to others. This can include actions such as not following safety protocols, not fulfilling one's duty of care, or not taking necessary precautions. Negligence is a legal concept often used in personal injury cases to determine liability and responsibility for the resulting harm or injury.

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  • 31. 

    Confidentiality must be maintained at all times, information is strictly private and confidential whether we are dealing with a patient or an employee.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Confidentiality is a crucial aspect in any professional setting, especially in healthcare or employment situations. It means that information should be kept private and not shared with unauthorized individuals. This applies to both patients and employees, as their personal information should be handled with utmost care and respect. Therefore, it is important to maintain confidentiality at all times, making the statement "True" accurate.

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  • 32. 

    In medical terminology, a "word root" means:

    • A.

      The basic of word

    • B.

      The end of word

    • C.

      The beginning of word

    • D.

      It combines the word

    Correct Answer
    A. The basic of word
    Explanation
    A "word root" in medical terminology refers to the basic or fundamental part of a word. It is the core element that provides the essential meaning of the word. The word root is usually derived from Greek or Latin and forms the foundation upon which prefixes and suffixes are added to create complete medical terms. By understanding the word root, healthcare professionals can decipher and analyze medical terms more effectively.

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  • 33. 

    What is at the end of a word called?

    • A.

      Suffix

    • B.

      Prefix

    • C.

      Word root

    • D.

      Combining vowels

    Correct Answer
    A. Suffix
    Explanation
    A suffix is a word part that is added to the end of a word to change its meaning or function. It is the correct answer because it specifically refers to what is at the end of a word. A prefix, on the other hand, is added to the beginning of a word, while a word root is the main part of a word that carries its core meaning. Combining vowels are used in medical terminology to connect word parts, but they are not specifically located at the end of a word.

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  • 34. 

    A physician who offers initial contact and related treatment such as blood glucose screening or prenatal checkups or immunizations is referred to as a:

    • A.

      Primary Care

    • B.

      Tertiary Care

    • C.

      Secondary

    • D.

      Specialist

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary Care
    Explanation
    A physician who offers initial contact and related treatment such as blood glucose screening or prenatal checkups or immunizations is referred to as primary care. Primary care physicians are usually the first point of contact for patients and provide comprehensive, continuous, and coordinated care for a wide range of health issues. They focus on preventive care, health maintenance, and early detection and treatment of common illnesses and chronic conditions. They also refer patients to specialists when necessary.

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  • 35. 

    A part of the lab that evaluates every single organ or body system is:

    • A.

      Microbiology

    • B.

      Chemistry

    • C.

      Serology

    • D.

      Hematology

    Correct Answer
    B. Chemistry
    Explanation
    Chemistry is the correct answer because it is the branch of science that deals with the composition, properties, and reactions of substances. In the context of a lab that evaluates every organ or body system, chemistry would be involved in analyzing various samples such as blood, urine, or tissue to determine the levels of different chemicals, enzymes, or hormones. This information can provide important insights into the functioning of organs and body systems, helping to diagnose diseases or monitor overall health.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the flowing is not a sub-department of the lab?

    • A.

      Speical chemistry

    • B.

      Immunoassay

    • C.

      Toxicology

    • D.

      Coagulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Speical chemistry
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Special chemistry" because it is not listed as one of the sub-departments of the lab. The other options, such as immunoassay, toxicology, and coagulation, are mentioned as sub-departments.

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  • 37. 

    Urinalysis check for the following except:

    • A.

      Chemical

    • B.

      Physical

    • C.

      Microscopic

    • D.

      Smell

    Correct Answer
    D. Smell
    Explanation
    Urinalysis is a diagnostic test that examines the urine for various abnormalities. It typically includes the analysis of chemical components, such as pH, glucose, protein, and blood, as well as the evaluation of physical characteristics like color and turbidity. Additionally, microscopic examination is performed to detect the presence of cells, bacteria, or crystals. However, smell is not typically assessed in a routine urinalysis as it is a subjective characteristic that may vary depending on individual perception and hydration status.

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  • 38. 

    A serum separator tube consists of:

    • A.

      Sodium citrate

    • B.

      Clot activator / Gel barrier

    • C.

      EDTA

    • D.

      Sodium flouride

    Correct Answer
    B. Clot activator / Gel barrier
    Explanation
    A serum separator tube contains a clot activator or gel barrier. This component is used to separate the serum from the blood cells after the blood sample is collected. The clot activator promotes the clotting of the blood, which then forms a barrier between the serum and the blood cells. The gel barrier, on the other hand, physically separates the serum from the blood cells. This allows for easy separation and collection of the serum for further testing or analysis.

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  • 39. 

    Which department prepares blood products to be used for transfusion?

    • A.

      Coagulation

    • B.

      Microbiology

    • C.

      Blood bank

    • D.

      Chemistry

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood bank
    Explanation
    The blood bank department is responsible for preparing blood products to be used for transfusion. This department collects, tests, processes, and stores blood and its components, such as red blood cells, plasma, and platelets. They ensure that the blood products are safe and compatible with the recipient, following strict protocols and regulations. The blood bank plays a critical role in providing a steady supply of blood products for transfusions in hospitals and medical facilities.

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  • 40. 

    Informed consent means:

    • A.

      A phlebotomist tells the patient what is ordered and the implications of the test results.

    • B.

      A patient agrees to a procedure after being told of the consequences associated with it.

    • C.

      A patient has the right to look at all of his or her medical records

    • D.

      A nurse has the right to perform a procedure on a patient even if the patient refuses

    Correct Answer
    B. A patient agrees to a procedure after being told of the consequences associated with it.
    Explanation
    Informed consent means that a patient agrees to a procedure after being informed about the potential consequences associated with it. This implies that the patient has been provided with all the necessary information about the procedure, including its purpose, risks, benefits, and alternatives. By obtaining informed consent, healthcare professionals ensure that patients have the autonomy to make decisions about their own healthcare based on complete and accurate information. It is an essential ethical and legal requirement in medical practice to respect patients' rights and promote shared decision-making.

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  • 41. 

    JCAHO will monitor quality improvement measures

    • A.

      Through the use of daily patient census records.

    • B.

      By reviewing attendance records of employees

    • C.

      By checking the timeliness of phlebotomy collections.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because JCAHO (Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations) will monitor quality improvement measures through various methods. This includes using daily patient census records to assess the quality of care provided, reviewing attendance records of employees to ensure adequate staffing levels, and checking the timeliness of phlebotomy collections to ensure efficient laboratory services. By utilizing all of these methods, JCAHO can comprehensively evaluate and monitor the quality improvement measures in a healthcare organization.

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  • 42. 

    The single most important means of preventing the spread of infection is:

    • A.

      Proper hand washing

    • B.

      Wearing a mask

    • C.

      Wearing gloves

    • D.

      Noscomial infections cannot be prevented

    Correct Answer
    A. Proper hand washing
    Explanation
    Proper hand washing is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection because it helps to remove germs and bacteria from the hands. Hands come into contact with various surfaces throughout the day, and if not washed properly, these germs can be transferred to the mouth, eyes, or other parts of the body, leading to infections. Hand washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds helps to kill and remove the majority of germs, reducing the risk of spreading infections to oneself and others. Wearing a mask and gloves can also be important in certain situations, but they are not as effective as proper hand washing in preventing the spread of infection.

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  • 43. 

    In order for an infection to take place, what are the three things necessary?

    • A.

      A susceptible hos, source, means of transmission.

    • B.

      Source, vehicle, direct contact

    • C.

      Means of transmission, indirect contact, source

    • D.

      Vector, susceptible host, source

    Correct Answer
    A. A susceptible hos, source, means of transmission.
    Explanation
    In order for an infection to take place, three things are necessary: a susceptible host (someone who can be infected), a source (where the infection comes from), and a means of transmission (how the infection is spread from the source to the host).

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  • 44. 

    Electrical safety involves:

    • A.

      Knowing where the fire extinguishers are

    • B.

      Distance, time, and shielding

    • C.

      Knowing the circuit breaker box locations

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Knowing the circuit breaker box locations
    Explanation
    Electrical safety involves knowing the circuit breaker box locations because in case of an electrical emergency or malfunction, it is important to quickly locate and access the circuit breaker box to shut off the power supply. This can help prevent further damage, electrocution, or fire hazards. Being aware of the circuit breaker box locations ensures that individuals can respond promptly and effectively during electrical emergencies, promoting safety in the event of electrical incidents.

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  • 45. 

    Which is considered a blood born pathogen?

    • A.

      HIV

    • B.

      HBB

    • C.

      CBC

    • D.

      FCC

    Correct Answer
    A. HIV
    Explanation
    HIV is considered a bloodborne pathogen because it can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. It is primarily transmitted through unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles or syringes, and mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. HIV attacks the immune system and can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) if left untreated. It is important to take precautions to prevent the transmission of HIV, such as practicing safe sex, using clean needles, and getting tested regularly.

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  • 46. 

    How long can HBV last on a dry surface?

    • A.

      One day

    • B.

      One month

    • C.

      One week

    • D.

      Two days

    Correct Answer
    C. One week
    Explanation
    HBV, or Hepatitis B virus, can last on a dry surface for up to one week. This means that if the virus is present on a surface, it can remain infectious for a period of seven days. It is important to note that proper disinfection and cleaning protocols should be followed to prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Gloves

    • B.

      Masks

    • C.

      Face shields

    • D.

      Deodorant

    Correct Answer
    D. Deodorant
    Explanation
    Deodorant is not considered personal protective equipment because its purpose is to control body odor, not to protect against physical hazards or prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Personal protective equipment refers to items such as gloves, masks, and face shields that are designed to protect individuals from potential risks and hazards in the workplace or other environments.

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  • 48. 

    When should you practice universal precautions?

    • A.

      Always

    • B.

      Sometimes

    • C.

      Never

    • D.

      When we feel like it

    Correct Answer
    A. Always
    Explanation
    Universal precautions are a set of guidelines followed in healthcare settings to prevent the spread of infections. These precautions involve treating all patients as if they are potentially infectious, regardless of their actual diagnosis. By practicing universal precautions always, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of transmitting infections to themselves, other patients, and the community. This includes wearing personal protective equipment, such as gloves and masks, practicing proper hand hygiene, and using appropriate disinfection techniques.

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  • 49. 

    To destroy transient microorganisms when washing hands use:

    • A.

      Bleach solution

    • B.

      Antiseptic soap

    • C.

      Plain soap

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Antiseptic soap
    Explanation
    Antiseptic soap is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the skin. It contains active ingredients, such as alcohol or chlorhexidine, that are effective in destroying transient microorganisms. Bleach solution may be too harsh for regular hand washing and plain soap alone may not have the same antimicrobial properties as antiseptic soap. Therefore, antiseptic soap is the most appropriate option for destroying transient microorganisms when washing hands.

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  • 50. 

    Reverse isolation may be used for:

    • A.

      A pediatric patient with measles

    • B.

      A patient with severe burns

    • C.

      A patient with a urinary tract infection

    • D.

      An adult with the flu

    Correct Answer
    B. A patient with severe burns
    Explanation
    Reverse isolation may be used for a patient with severe burns because they are at a higher risk of developing infections due to compromised skin and weakened immune system. This type of isolation is implemented to protect the patient from exposure to any potential pathogens that could worsen their condition. It involves strict infection control measures such as wearing protective clothing, limiting visitors, and maintaining a clean environment to minimize the risk of infection.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 18, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Aznkhuux1
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