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Medical Law And Ethics Final Exam

113 Questions
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Due process

    • B. 

      Standard of care

    • C. 

      Duty of care

    • D. 

      Good Samaritan laws

  • 2. 
    _____ is the ability to understand someone without actually experiencing what they have experienced.
    • A. 

      Empathy

    • B. 

      Sympathy

    • C. 

      Integrity

    • D. 

      Beneficence

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Vendictive

    • B. 

      Litigious

    • C. 

      Greedy

    • D. 

      Maleficent

  • 4. 
    _____ varies by state and defines what the "practice of medicine" is for that state.
    • A. 

      Medical Practice Acts

    • B. 

      Good Samaritan Laws

    • C. 

      Vital statistics

    • D. 

      Reciprocity

  • 5. 
    A _____ is a past case that serves as a future model.
    • A. 

      Precedent

    • B. 

      Case study

    • C. 

      Example

    • D. 

      Summary judgement

  • 6. 
    _____ ensures that no one branch of the government can have more power than another.
    • A. 

      Check and balances

    • B. 

      Bipartisanship

    • C. 

      The democratic party

    • D. 

      The republican party

  • 7. 
    _____ law involves one citizen vs. another citizen and usually results in monetary damages.
    • A. 

      Civil

    • B. 

      Criminal

    • C. 

      Administrative

    • D. 

      Contract

  • 8. 
    _____ is the study of good vs. evil.
  • 9. 
    Man-made rules for the protection of society are called _____.
  • 10. 
  • 11. 
    Stare decisis means let the _____ stand.
  • 12. 
    Preponderance of the _____ is the less stringent standard by which civil cases are held; it means that more likely than not the incident did occur.
  • 13. 
    _____ law concerns promises and agreements.
    • A. 

      Civil

    • B. 

      Criminal

    • C. 

      Contract

    • D. 

      Good Samaritan

  • 14. 
    A _____ is a civil injury.
    • A. 

      Tort

    • B. 

      Misdemeanor

    • C. 

      Felony

    • D. 

      Blue collar crime

  • 15. 
    _____ is spoken false or malicious words that injur a reputation.
    • A. 

      Slander

    • B. 

      Libel

    • C. 

      Assault

    • D. 

      Battery

  • 16. 
    _____ is written, print, or pictures that injur a reputation.
    • A. 

      Libel

    • B. 

      Slander

    • C. 

      Assault

    • D. 

      Usery

  • 17. 
    Fraudulent is defined as the attempt to _____ another person.
    • A. 

      Deceive

    • B. 

      Help

    • C. 

      Harm

    • D. 

      Defy

  • 18. 
    The illegal appropriation of property is called _____.
    • A. 

      Grand larceny

    • B. 

      Larceny

    • C. 

      Embezzelment

    • D. 

      Petty theft

  • 19. 
    _____ torts are injuries caused by not exercising due standard of care.
    • A. 

      Unintentional

    • B. 

      Intentional

    • C. 

      Illegal

    • D. 

      Unethical

  • 20. 
    _____ of contract is neglecting to uphold that contract.
    • A. 

      Breach

    • B. 

      Nullification

    • C. 

      Voiding

    • D. 

      Dissolution

  • 21. 
    Consideration is something of _____.
  • 22. 
    You are _____ if you are of sound mind and body.
    • A. 

      Lucid

    • B. 

      Competent

    • C. 

      Impotent

    • D. 

      Potent

  • 23. 
    An _____ contract is an agreement that clearly states all terms; oral or written.
    • A. 

      Implied

    • B. 

      Expressed

    • C. 

      Informed

    • D. 

      Uninformed

  • 24. 
    _____ laws are rules that are supposed to protect the public.
    • A. 

      Criminal

    • B. 

      Civil

    • C. 

      Tax

    • D. 

      Contract

  • 25. 
    _____ contracts are agreements that are shown by inference, by signs, inaction, or silence.
  • 26. 
    A _____ is a crime that is punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year.
    • A. 

      Felony

    • B. 

      Misdemeanor

    • C. 

      Traffic violation

    • D. 

      Tax evasion

  • 27. 
    A _____ is a less serious crime which is punishable by fines or imprisonment for less than one year.
    • A. 

      Felony

    • B. 

      Misdemeanor

    • C. 

      Treason

    • D. 

      Tax evasion

  • 28. 
    Beyond a _____ doubt is a stricter standard by which criminal evidence is proved.
  • 29. 
    Withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient notice to the patient is called _____.
    • A. 

      Abandonment

    • B. 

      Withdrawing from the patient/doctor contract

    • C. 

      Felony withdrawal

    • D. 

      Misdemeanor withdrawal

  • 30. 
    When a noncompliant patient leaves a hospital without a physician's permission, it is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Against medical advice (AMA)

    • B. 

      Refusal to consent (RTC)

    • C. 

      Right to self-determination (RSD)

    • D. 

      Against doctors orders (ADO)

  • 31. 
  • 32. 
    _____ is the voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person permission to touch, examine, and perform a treatment.
    • A. 

      Consent

    • B. 

      Permission

    • C. 

      Authority

    • D. 

      Guardianship

  • 33. 
    _____ consent is an agreement that is made through inference by signs, inaction, or silence.
    • A. 

      Implied

    • B. 

      Informed

    • C. 

      Expressed

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 34. 
    Consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits is known as expressed or _____ consent.
    • A. 

      Informed

    • B. 

      Implied

    • C. 

      Verbal

    • D. 

      Written

  • 35. 
    In loco parentis is a person assigned by a _____ to stand in place of the parents and possess their legal rights and responsibilities toward the child.
  • 36. 
    _____ authority occurs when the state takes responsibility from the parents for the core and custody of minors under the age of 18.
    • A. 

      Parens patriae

    • B. 

      Per diem

    • C. 

      Responeat superior

    • D. 

      Duces tecum

  • 37. 
    A _____ is the predicition for the course of a disease.
    • A. 

      Prognosis

    • B. 

      Diagnosis

    • C. 

      Assessment

    • D. 

      Evaluation

  • 38. 
    The uniform Anatomical Gift Act is a _____ statute allowing persons 18 years and of sound mind to make a gift of any or all body parts to others or for research.
    • A. 

      State

    • B. 

      Federal

    • C. 

      Constitutional

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 39. 
    _____ is submitting a dispute for resolution to a person other than a judge.
    • A. 

      Arbitration

    • B. 

      Mediation

    • C. 

      Capitation

    • D. 

      Application

  • 40. 
    Assumption of ______ is a legal defense that prevents a plaintiff from recovering damages if the plaintiff voluntarily accepts a risk associated with the activity.
    • A. 

      Risk

    • B. 

      Terms

    • C. 

      Prognosis

    • D. 

      Treatment

  • 41. 
    _____ is any injury caused by the defendant; usually a monetary award is given as compensation.
  • 42. 
    _____ is neglect, as in neglect of duty.
    • A. 

      Dereliction

    • B. 

      Duty

    • C. 

      Direct cause

    • D. 

      Damages

  • 43. 
    _____ cause is the continuous sequence of events, unbroken by any intervening cause, that produces an injury and without which the injury would not have occured.
    • A. 

      Direct

    • B. 

      Liable

    • C. 

      Litigious

    • D. 

      Maleficent

  • 44. 
    _____ is obligation or responsibility.
  • 45. 
    _____ is legal responsibility for one's own actions.
    • A. 

      Liable

    • B. 

      Maturity

    • C. 

      Culpable

    • D. 

      Credit

  • 46. 
    Malfeasance is performing a(n) _____ act.
    • A. 

      Illegal

    • B. 

      Legal

    • C. 

      Incorrect

    • D. 

      Inappropriate

  • 47. 
    _____ is the improper performance of an otherwise proper or lawful act.
    • A. 

      Feasance

    • B. 

      Malfeasance

    • C. 

      Misfeasance

    • D. 

      Nonfeasance

  • 48. 
    _____ is the failure to perform an action when it is necessary.
    • A. 

      Misfeasance

    • B. 

      Malfeasance

    • C. 

      Nonfeasance

    • D. 

      Feasance

  • 49. 
    Res ipsa loquitur means the thing _____ for itself.
    • A. 

      Speaks

    • B. 

      Acts

    • C. 

      Is responsible

    • D. 

      Is liable

  • 50. 
    Res judicata means the thing has been _____.
    • A. 

      Ordered

    • B. 

      Decided

    • C. 

      Judged

    • D. 

      Predetermined

  • 51. 
  • 52. 
    A test for the presence of genetic defects in which a needle is used to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus in the uterus is known as a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Amniocentesis

    • B. 

      Embryocentesis

    • C. 

      In utero

    • D. 

      In vitro

  • 53. 
    _____ insemination is the injection of seminal fluid that contains male sperm into the female's vagina from her husband, partner, or donor by some means other than intercourse.
  • 54. 
    A postmortem examination of organs and tissues to determine the cause of death is known as a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Autopsy

    • B. 

      Necropsy

    • C. 

      Biopsy

    • D. 

      Heteropsy

  • 55. 
    Disease producing microorganisms transmitted by means of blood and body fluids containing blood are called _____ pathogens.
    • A. 

      Toxic

    • B. 

      Sexually transmitted

    • C. 

      Bloodborne

    • D. 

      Deadly

  • 56. 
    To _____ is to find fault with, criticize, or condemn.
    • A. 

      Violate

    • B. 

      Endorse

    • C. 

      Censure

    • D. 

      Validate

  • 57. 
    Thread like structures withing the nuclus of a cell that transmit genetic information are called _____.
    • A. 

      Genes

    • B. 

      Chromosomes

    • C. 

      Base pairs

    • D. 

      Pyrimidines

  • 58. 
    A _____ is a private or public healthcare entity that facilitates the process of standard electronic transactions into HIPAA transactions.
  • 59. 
    Groups of identical matching cells that came from a single common cell are called _____.
  • 60. 
    A federal statute that regulates the manufacture and distribution of the drugs that are capable of causing depedency is the _____.
    • A. 

      Controlled Substance Act of 1970

    • B. 

      Controlled Substance Act of 2010

    • C. 

      Narcotic Dependency Act of 1970

    • D. 

      Narcotic Dependency Act of 2010

  • 61. 
    A public health officer who holds an investigation if a person's death is from an unknown or violent cause is a _____.
    • A. 

      Homicide investigator

    • B. 

      Coroner

    • C. 

      Mortician

    • D. 

      Medical examiner

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Covered entities

    • B. 

      Covered transactions

    • C. 

      Clearinghouses

    • D. 

      Hospitals

  • 63. 
    Certain electronic operations of health care information that are mandated under HIPAA are known as ____.
    • A. 

      Covered transactions

    • B. 

      PHI transactions

    • C. 

      HIPAA transactions

    • D. 

      TPO transactions

  • 64. 
    Unfair or unequal treatment is known as _____.
  • 65. 
    The Doctrine of professional discretion means that a _____ may determine, based on his or her best judgement, if a patient with mental or emotional problems should view the medical record.
    • A. 

      Patient

    • B. 

      Physician

    • C. 

      Clergyperson

    • D. 

      Parent

  • 66. 
    A division of the Department of Justice that enforces the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 is called the _____.
    • A. 

      DEA

    • B. 

      JCAHO

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      ABC

  • 67. 
    An unborn child between the second and twelfth week after conception is _____.
    • A. 

      Zygote

    • B. 

      Fetus

    • C. 

      Embryo

    • D. 

      Blastocyst

  • 68. 
    The _____ (use only the initials) monitors Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
  • 69. 
    The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolderable and incurable suffering is called _____.
    • A. 

      Euthanasia

    • B. 

      Lethal injections

    • C. 

      Palliative care

    • D. 

      Curative care

  • 70. 
    An unborn child from the third month after conception until birth is called a(n) _____.
    • A. 

      Zygote

    • B. 

      Blastocyst

    • C. 

      Fetus

    • D. 

      Embryo

  • 71. 
    The replacement of a defective or malfunctioning gen by splicing or connecting onto the DNA of body cells to control production of a particular substance is called _____.
    • A. 

      Gene therapy

    • B. 

      In vitro repair

    • C. 

      In utero repair

    • D. 

      Neonatal repair

  • 72. 
    The time before birth during which the fetus is developing, usually nine months is called the _____.
    • A. 

      Gestational period

    • B. 

      Perinatal period

    • C. 

      Postnatal period

    • D. 

      Preconceptional period

  • 73. 
    _____ (use only the initials) of 1996 regulates the privacy of patients' health information.
  • 74. 
  • 75. 
    A legal reason, as for firing someone, is called _____.
    • A. 

      Just cause

    • B. 

      Justified

    • C. 

      Justifiable homicide

    • D. 

      Justifiable insanity

  • 76. 
    _____ is another term for voluntary euthanasia.
  • 77. 
    The _____ means that the provider must make a reasonable effort to limit the disclosure of patient information to only the minimum amount that is necessary to accomplish the purpose of the request.
    • A. 

      Minimum necessary standard

    • B. 

      TPO

    • C. 

      HIPAA

    • D. 

      Right to Privacy

  • 78. 
    The rate of sick people or cases of a disease in relationship to a specific population is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Morbidity rate

    • B. 

      Mortality rate

    • C. 

      Infant mortality

    • D. 

      Elderly mortality

  • 79. 
    The mortality rate is also called the _____ rate.
    • A. 

      Sickness

    • B. 

      Death

    • C. 

      Recovery

    • D. 

      Vaccination

  • 80. 
    Care for the terminally ill patients consisting of comfort measures and symptom control is called _____.
    • A. 

      Palliative care

    • B. 

      Curative care

    • C. 

      Euthanasia

    • D. 

      Mercy killing

  • 81. 
    Posthumous refers to after _____.
  • 82. 
    _____ is genetic testing on embryos for genese that cause untreatable or severe diseases.
    • A. 

      Preimplanting genetic diagnosis

    • B. 

      Gene therapy

    • C. 

      Gene splicing

    • D. 

      Amniocentesis

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      POMR

    • B. 

      SOMR

    • C. 

      Strict chronological

    • D. 

      Reverse chronological

  • 84. 
    Any individually indentifiable information that relates to the physical or mental condition of the provision of healthcare to an individual is called _____.
    • A. 

      Protected health information

    • B. 

      Particular human information

    • C. 

      Covered transaction

    • D. 

      Covered entity

  • 85. 
    _____  is the stiffnes that occurs in a dead body.
    • A. 

      Respondeat superior

    • B. 

      Res judicata

    • C. 

      Rigor mortis

    • D. 

      Duces tecum

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Preemption

    • B. 

      Sovereignty

    • C. 

      Independance

    • D. 

      Autonomy

  • 87. 
    _____ are master cells in the body that can generate specialized cells.
  • 88. 
    Negative generalities concerning specific characteristics about a group that are applied to an entire population are called _____.
    • A. 

      Stereotyping

    • B. 

      Profiling

    • C. 

      Prejudging

    • D. 

      Intuitive

  • 89. 
    Functions that a healthcare provider can perform without authorization from the patient are called _____.
    • A. 

      TPO

    • B. 

      TOP

    • C. 

      OPT

    • D. 

      PTO

  • 90. 
    In the case of a fetus, it is _____ when it has the ability to survive outside the uterus.
    • A. 

      Viable

    • B. 

      Realistic

    • C. 

      Premature

    • D. 

      Full term

  • 91. 
    _____ are themahor events or facts from a person's life, such as live births, deaths, marriages, and divorces.
    • A. 

      Public record

    • B. 

      Vital statistics

    • C. 

      PHI

    • D. 

      TPO

  • 92. 
    When an employee believes that the employer does not have a just-cause, or legal reason, for firing the employee, this is called _____.
    • A. 

      Wrongful discharge

    • B. 

      Ethical

    • C. 

      Employer's rights

    • D. 

      EEOC

    • E. 

      Discrimination

  • 93. 
    The person being sued is called the _____.
  • 94. 
    The person bringing action into litigation is called the _____.
  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Prosecution

    • B. 

      Supreme court

    • C. 

      Capital offense

    • D. 

      None of these is correct

  • 96. 
    Written command to appear in court is known as a _____.
    • A. 

      Writ

    • B. 

      Subpoena

    • C. 

      Deposition

    • D. 

      Testimony

  • 97. 
    A written command to appear in court with appropriate documentation is called _____.
    • A. 

      Subpoena duces tecum

    • B. 

      Subpoena dos equis

    • C. 

      Deposition

    • D. 

      Expert testimony

  • 98. 
    A _____ is a decision made by a court when there is no need for a trial.
    • A. 

      Stare decisis

    • B. 

      Summary judgment

    • C. 

      Precedent

    • D. 

      Res ipsa loquitur

  • 99. 
    An individual who stops at the scene of an accident cannot be successfully sued as long as he or she behaves as a reasonable, prudent person; this is the _____.
    • A. 

      Good Samaritan Law

    • B. 

      Good Citizen Law

    • C. 

      Duty of care

    • D. 

      Standard of care

  • 100. 
    An adult who acts on behalf of a child in litigation is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Guardian ad litem

    • B. 

      Parens patriae

    • C. 

      In loco parentis

    • D. 

      None of these is correct

    • E. 

      All of these are correct

  • 101. 
    The _____ Person Rule asks, "What would other reasonable people have done in the same situation?"
    • A. 

      Prudent

    • B. 

      Average

    • C. 

      Commendable

    • D. 

      Responsible

  • 102. 
    _____ is granting credentials based on another state's records.
    • A. 

      Reciprocity

    • B. 

      Resuscitation

    • C. 

      Recalcitration

    • D. 

      Recalcification

  • 103. 
    "Let the master answer" is _____.
    • A. 

      Respondeat superior

    • B. 

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • C. 

      Stare decisis

    • D. 

      Mastrantonio fidele

  • 104. 
    A predetermined fee per member per period is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Capitation

    • B. 

      Decapitation

    • C. 

      Capitulation

    • D. 

      Per capita

  • 105. 
    The ordinary skill and care that must be used is called _____ of care.
  • 106. 
    The legal obligation to a patient is known as _____ of care.
  • 107. 
    An agreed fee due on DOS for managed care plans is called a _____.
    • A. 

      Capitation

    • B. 

      Copay

    • C. 

      Coinsurance

    • D. 

      Comorbidity

  • 108. 
    When a doctor gets paid for referrals, he is guilty of _____.
    • A. 

      Fee splitting

    • B. 

      Ghost surgery

    • C. 

      Double dipping

    • D. 

      False advertising

  • 109. 
    The _____ approves all nonemergent services, hospitalization, or tests before they are provided.
    • A. 

      Gatekeeper

    • B. 

      Guardian

    • C. 

      Preapproval administrator

    • D. 

      Specialist

  • 110. 
    A type of health care system that falls under managed care and uses capitation is called _____.
    • A. 

      Health maintenance organization

    • B. 

      Indeminity

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Medicaid

  • 111. 
    A person without funds is known as _____.
    • A. 

      Indigent

    • B. 

      Impoverished

    • C. 

      Homeless

    • D. 

      Wealthy

  • 112. 
    Medical coverage for indigent; especially pregnant women and children.
    • A. 

      Tricare

    • B. 

      Medicare

    • C. 

      Medigap

    • D. 

      Medicaid

  • 113. 
    Medical coverage for >65 years old and certain disabled people, and ESRD patients is called _____.
    • A. 

      Tricare

    • B. 

      Medicare

    • C. 

      Medigap

    • D. 

      Medicaid