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Lecture Quiz 4 Nervous System

222 Questions
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  • 1. 
    The two types of cells of the nervous system are?
    • A. 

      Axons and Dendrites

    • B. 

      Neurons and Neuroglia

    • C. 

      Motor neurons and Sensory neurons

    • D. 

      Schwann cells and microglia

  • 2. 
    The functional connection between two neurons is a?
    • A. 

      Dendrite

    • B. 

      Gap junction

    • C. 

      Synapse

    • D. 

      Neurotansmitter

  • 3. 
    The Nervous System
    • A. 

      Detects changes in the internal and enternal environment

    • B. 

      Controls the movements of muscles

    • C. 

      Integrates information from several sources and uses it to determine an appropriate response

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 4. 
    Neurons that conduct impulses from the CNS to muscles or glands are
    • A. 

      Sensory neurons

    • B. 

      Interneurons

    • C. 

      Motor neurons

    • D. 

      Unipolar neurons

  • 5. 
    Sensory receptors
    • A. 

      Monitor light

    • B. 

      Monitor sound

    • C. 

      Detects changes in and outside the body

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    Three general functions of the nervous system are
    • A. 

      Sensory, motor, and predictive

    • B. 

      Integrative, motor, and sensory

    • C. 

      Predictive, manipulative, and integrative

    • D. 

      Reflexive, sensory, and predictive

  • 7. 
    Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear
    • A. 

      White

    • B. 

      Gray

    • C. 

      Brown

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 8. 
    A neuron may have
    • A. 

      One axon and many dendrites

    • B. 

      One dendrite and many axons

    • C. 

      No dendrites

    • D. 

      No axons

  • 9. 
    Every neuron has
    • A. 

      Many axons

    • B. 

      A cell body

    • C. 

      Myelin

    • D. 

      A neurilemma

  • 10. 
    Myelin
    • A. 

      Is released from a neuron and travels to another neuron

    • B. 

      Consists of layers of lipids and proteins that wrap around an axon

    • C. 

      Is produced in response to bacterial infection

    • D. 

      Is a form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is (are) a type of neuroglia?
    • A. 

      Astrocyte

    • B. 

      Oligodendrocyte

    • C. 

      Schwann cell

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 12. 
    Which cells produce myelin in the brain and spinal cord?
    • A. 

      Schwann Cells

    • B. 

      Astocytes

    • C. 

      Microglia

    • D. 

      Oligodendrocytes

  • 13. 
    A reason that the axons differ in the CNS and PNS differ in their ability to regenerate after injury is that
    • A. 

      Axons of the CNS lack myelin

    • B. 

      Axons of the CNS lack neurilemmae

    • C. 

      Peripheral nerves lack Schwann cells

    • D. 

      Peripheral nerves lack endoneurium

  • 14. 
    Most of the neurons in the brain and spinal cord are
    • A. 

      Bipolar

    • B. 

      Unipolar

    • C. 

      Multipolar

    • D. 

      Nonpolar

  • 15. 
    Which of the following  cells is only found in the PNS?
    • A. 

      Oligodendrocyte

    • B. 

      Astrocyte

    • C. 

      Microglial Cell

    • D. 

      Schwann cell

  • 16. 
    Dendrites on the unipolar neurons are parts of
    • A. 

      Sensory neurons

    • B. 

      Motor neurons

    • C. 

      Interneurons

    • D. 

      Efferent Neurons

  • 17. 
    Clusters of neuron cell bodies in the PNS are called
    • A. 

      Neuromas

    • B. 

      Axons

    • C. 

      Ganglia

    • D. 

      Nuclei

  • 18. 
    Which of the following neuroglia are not part of the CNS?
    • A. 

      Ependymal cells

    • B. 

      Astrocytes

    • C. 

      Satellite cells

    • D. 

      Microglia

  • 19. 
    Synaptic knobs are at the ends of
    • A. 

      Axons

    • B. 

      Dendrites

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

  • 20. 
    Presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters by
    • A. 

      Endocytosis

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Diffusion

    • D. 

      Active ransport

  • 21. 
    When an action potential passes over the surface of a synaptic knob, the contents of the vesicles are released in response to the response to the presence of
    • A. 

      Calcium ions

    • B. 

      Sodium ions

    • C. 

      Neurotransmitters

    • D. 

      Neuropeptides

  • 22. 
    Transmitting an impulse from one neuron to another involves a(n)
    • A. 

      Impulse stimulating presynaptic dendrites to release a neurotransmitter into a synaptic cleft

    • B. 

      Impulse stimulating a presynaptic axon to release a neurotransmitter into a synaptic cleft

    • C. 

      Neurotransmitter traveling from presynaptic dendrites across a synapse to presynaptic axons or a cell body

    • D. 

      Neurotransmitter traveling from postsynaptic axons across a synapse to presynaptic dendrites or a cell body

  • 23. 
    A stimulus great enough to change the membrane potential and propagate an action potential is said to have reached
    • A. 

      Recruitment

    • B. 

      Threshold

    • C. 

      Summation

    • D. 

      Tetanus

  • 24. 
    When a nerve fiber is polarized, the concentration of
    • A. 

      Na+ and K+ are higher on the inside of the membrane

    • B. 

      Na+ and K+ are higher on the outside of the membrane

    • C. 

      Na+ is higher on the inside of the membrane and K+ is higher on the outside

    • D. 

      Na+ is higher on the outside of the membrane and K+ is higher on the inside

  • 25. 
    The most rapid conduction of an impulse along an axon occurs on a fiber that is
    • A. 

      Thick and myelinated

    • B. 

      Thick and unmyelinated

    • C. 

      Thin an myelinated

    • D. 

      Thin and unmyelinated

  • 26. 
    Which of the following ions cross neuron cell membranes most readily?
    • A. 

      Potassium

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Magnesium

  • 27. 
    If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is
    • A. 

      Depolarized

    • B. 

      Hyperpolarized

    • C. 

      Repolarized

    • D. 

      Summated

  • 28. 
    What is the correct sequence of events along an axon that follows a membrane reaching threshold potential? 1. The membrane depolarizes 2. Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward 3. The membrabe repolarizes 4. Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward
    • A. 

      3, 2, 4, 1

    • B. 

      2, 1, 4, 3

    • C. 

      1, 2, 4, 3

    • D. 

      4, 1, 3, 2

  • 29. 
    A nerve cell membrane becomes depolarized as a result of
    • A. 

      Calcium leaving the nerve cell

    • B. 

      Some ion channels being opened while other are closed

    • C. 

      The relative ease with which K+ diffuses into the nerve cell

    • D. 

      Na+ being prevented from passing through the membrane

  • 30. 
    Each neuron in the CNS may receive input from
    • A. 

      Only one synaptic knob

    • B. 

      One synaptic knob at each end

    • C. 

      About 10 dendrites

    • D. 

      Thousands of axons

  • 31. 
    The neurotransmitter that controls skeletal muscle contraction is
    • A. 

      Beta endorphin

    • B. 

      Nitric acid

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine

    • D. 

      GABA

  • 32. 
    Viagra is a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction by dilating the arteries in the penis.  The neurotransmitter that viagra affects is
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Nitric Oxide

    • C. 

      Serotonin

    • D. 

      Histamine

  • 33. 
    Neurotransmitters that are modified amino acids are
    • A. 

      Dopamine, serotonin, epinephrine, and norepineephrine

    • B. 

      Enkephalins, endorphins, and sunstance P

    • C. 

      Aspartic acid, glutamic acid, glycine, and GABA

    • D. 

      Potassium, sodium, and calcium ions

  • 34. 
    Drugs that increase the actions of  norepinephrine and/or serotonin by keeping them in synapses longer are most likely used to treat
    • A. 

      Multiple sclerosis

    • B. 

      Tay-Sachs disease

    • C. 

      Clinical depression

    • D. 

      Erectile Dysfunction

  • 35. 
    Migraine results from
    • A. 

      Release of calcitonin gene-related peptide from the cranial nerve V at the base of the brain, in response to a spreading wave of excitation followed by lack of response from the cortex

    • B. 

      Not eating enough of chocolate, which causes a spreading effect in the cortex

    • C. 

      A neurotransmitter deficiency

    • D. 

      Release of an abnormal form of beta endorphin from the trigeminal nerves at the base of the brain, in response to cortical stimulation

  • 36. 
    An immune response that affects the myelin coating on axons throughout the spinal cord and brain, triggering inflammation and leaving scars is
    • A. 

      Muscular dystrophy

    • B. 

      Multiple Sclerosis

    • C. 

      Alzheimer Disease

    • D. 

      Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

  • 37. 
    Drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium
    • A. 

      Are used as local anesthetics

    • B. 

      Prevent nerve impulses from passing through the affected body part

    • C. 

      Lessen pain

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 38. 
    Opiate drugs derived from poppies relieve pain in humans because the human nervous system has
    • A. 

      Neurotransmitters

    • B. 

      Receptors for endogeneous opiates

    • C. 

      Myelin

    • D. 

      Soduim and potassium membrane channels

  • 39. 
    Marjorie takes an anti-anxiety so that she can sleep better and remain calm enough to study effectively.  She begins by taking 25 milligrams every evening, but within a month, this dose is no longer helping, so she takes two pills.  After another month, this dosage is no longer effective.  This is happening because
    • A. 

      Her immune system is rejecting the drug

    • B. 

      She has developed tolerance, which means that her liver can no longer metabolize the drug, so it remains active for too long

    • C. 

      The number of receptors to which the drug binds on neurons has declined

    • D. 

      The number of receptors to which the drug binds on neurons has increased

  • 40. 
    The neurotransmitter most likely produced when a person uses a drug that creates a sense of well-being is
    • A. 

      Glutamic acid

    • B. 

      Dopamine

    • C. 

      Enkephalin

    • D. 

      Substance Q

  • 41. 
    A drug that functions as an agonist
    • A. 

      Activates a receptor, helping a neurotransmitter bind or tiggering an action potential in some other way

    • B. 

      Causes great pain if taken in too high a dose

    • C. 

      Blocks a receptor so that the neurotransmitter cannot bind

    • D. 

      Relieves pain

  • 42. 
    The Central Nervous System (CNS) consists of
    • A. 

      Spinal and cranial nerves

    • B. 

      The brain and spinal cord

    • C. 

      The cerebrum and cerebellum

    • D. 

      Nerves in the upper and lower limbs

  • 43. 
    The epidural space contains
    • A. 

      Loose connective tissue, blood vessels, and adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Dense connective tissue and cartilage

    • C. 

      No tissue, that is why it is a space

    • D. 

      Collagen, elastin, and keratin

  • 44. 
    The meninges consist of
    • A. 

      The brain and spinal cord

    • B. 

      The membranes that delineate all of the major brain parts

    • C. 

      The pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater

    • D. 

      Nerve tracts that run up and down the spinal cord

  • 45. 
    Cerebrospinal fluid is
    • A. 

      Clear and liquid

    • B. 

      White and thick

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Yellow in the CNS and clear in the PNS

  • 46. 
    In a subdural hematoma resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the
    • A. 

      Dura mater and the skull

    • B. 

      Dura mater and arachnoid mater

    • C. 

      Pia mater and brain

    • D. 

      Arachnoid mater and brain

  • 47. 
    An inflammation of the meninges called meningitis usually affects the
    • A. 

      Dura mater only

    • B. 

      Dura mater and arachnoid mater

    • C. 

      Arachnoid mater and pia mater

    • D. 

      Pia mater only

  • 48. 
    The _______ is the thin meninx attached to the surface of the brain, containing many nerves and blood vessels.
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachnoid mater

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Subdural mater

  • 49. 
    The fourth ventricle is in the
    • A. 

      Left cerebral hemisphere

    • B. 

      Brainstem

    • C. 

      Midline of the brain, beneath the corpus callosum

    • D. 

      Right cerebral hemisphere

  • 50. 
    Cerebrospinal fluid
    • A. 

      Informs the autonomic centers in the brainstem and hypothalamus about the internal environment

    • B. 

      Provides a pathway for waste to enter the blood

    • C. 

      Protects the brain and spinal cord

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 51. 
    The human body secretes about _____________ milliliters of cerebrospinal fluid daily
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      500

  • 52. 
    Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by _______ and it _________.
    • A. 

      Dura mater; maintains a stable ionic concentration in the CNS

    • B. 

      Choroid plexuses in the ventricles; protects the brain from blows to the skull

    • C. 

      Arachnoid villi in the dura sinus; provides a pathway to the blood for waste

    • D. 

      Capillaries in the dura mater of the ventricles; moistens the surface of the brain

  • 53. 
    Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?
    • A. 

      Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector

    • B. 

      Effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron

    • C. 

      Effector, sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron

    • D. 

      Receptor, sensory neuron, inter neuron, motor neuron, effector

  • 54. 
    Reflexes help to control
    • A. 

      Heart rate and blood pressure

    • B. 

      Respiratory rate

    • C. 

      Digestive activities

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 55. 
    Stephanie is in a car accident, flung from the vehicle andd landing on her back on pavement.  At the scene, an emergency medical technician checks her for Babinski reflex, in which the great toe extends upward and the smaller toes fan apart. This refelx
    • A. 

      May indicate aging of the corticospinal tract

    • B. 

      May indicate an injury to the corticospinal tract

    • C. 

      Is normal in adults

    • D. 

      Is meaningless in assessing an emergency situation

  • 56. 
    Gray matter of the spinal cord is mostly composed of
    • A. 

      Interneurons

    • B. 

      Cerebrospinal fluid

    • C. 

      Axons

    • D. 

      Myelin

  • 57. 
    The pattern of gray matter in the spinal cord is divided into
    • A. 

      Horns

    • B. 

      Funiculi

    • C. 

      Meninges

    • D. 

      Roots of spinal nerves

  • 58. 
    The corticospinal tracts control
    • A. 

      Sweat glands

    • B. 

      Posture

    • C. 

      Voluntary muscle movements

    • D. 

      Spinal reflexes

  • 59. 
    The spinasl cord has
    • A. 

      31 segments

    • B. 

      A cervical and lumbar enlargement

    • C. 

      A core of gray matter surrounded by white matter

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 60. 
    All reflexes
    • A. 

      Have association neurons

    • B. 

      Have a reflex arc

    • C. 

      Have interneurons

    • D. 

      Occur in the spinal cord

  • 61. 
    The simplest level of CNS function is the 
    • A. 

      Ability to talk

    • B. 

      Ability to work

    • C. 

      Spinal reflex

    • D. 

      Cerebral reflex

  • 62. 
    Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced difficulty speaking coherently, clumsiness, muscle fasciculations, and increasing weakness in his limbs.  These symptoms are most consistent with those of
    • A. 

      Parkinson disease

    • B. 

      Hodgkin's disease

    • C. 

      Muscular dystrophy

    • D. 

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

  • 63. 
    The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary muscular movements is the
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Brain stem

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

  • 64. 
    Over the course of several months, Morris has experienced difficulty speaking coherently, clumsiness, muscle fasciculations, and increasing weakness in his limbs. These symptoms are most consistent with those of:
    • A. 

      Parkinson Disease

    • B. 

      Hodgkin's Disease

    • C. 

      Muscular Dystrophy

    • D. 

      Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

  • 65. 
    The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary muscular movements is the
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Brainstem

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

  • 66. 
    Which of the following is a major portion of the diencephalon?
    • A. 

      Thalmus

    • B. 

      Cerebral aqueduct

    • C. 

      Cerebral peduncles

    • D. 

      Midbrain

  • 67. 
    The complex network of tiny islands of gray matter in the brain, that upon recieving incoming sensory impulses responds by activating wakefulness in the cerebral cortex, is the
    • A. 

      Dentate

    • B. 

      Reticular formation

    • C. 

      Limbic system

    • D. 

      Corpora quadrigemina

  • 68. 
    A soldier suffers a brain injury, and becomes unable to speak. The damage is likely in
    • A. 

      Broca's area

    • B. 

      The hippocampus

    • C. 

      The brainstem

    • D. 

      The basal nuclei

  • 69. 
    The function of the cerebral association areas is
    • A. 

      To analyze sensory experiences

    • B. 

      Reasoning and judgment

    • C. 

      To interpret sensations

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 70. 
    Which lobe of your brain are you using when you answer this question?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Temporal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 71. 
    Which of the following is not a part of the diencephalon?
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Anterior pituitary gland

    • D. 

      Posterior pituitary gland

  • 72. 
    Which of the following parts of the mature brain develops from the forebrain?
    • A. 

      Midbrain

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 73. 
    The __________ seperates the cerebrum from the cerebellum.
    • A. 

      Lateral sulcus

    • B. 

      Central sulcus

    • C. 

      Longitudinal fissure

    • D. 

      Transverse fissure

  • 74. 
    Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
    • A. 

      Regulation of body temperature

    • B. 

      Control of hunger and thirst

    • C. 

      Production of hormones

    • D. 

      Control of postural reflexes

  • 75. 
    Spina bifida is a(n)
    • A. 

      Abnormality in neural tube development

    • B. 

      Open vetebral column and exposed spinal cord

    • C. 

      Exposed spinal cord

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 76. 
    Interruption of blood flow to the brain that can damage the cerebrum is called a
    • A. 

      Concussion

    • B. 

      Contusion

    • C. 

      Cerebrovascular accident

    • D. 

      Myocardial infarction

  • 77. 
    Injury to the visual cortex of the right occipital lobe can cause
    • A. 

      Partial blindness in the right eye only

    • B. 

      Total blindness in the left eye only

    • C. 

      Partial blindness in both eyes

    • D. 

      Total blindness in both eyes

  • 78. 
    If the general interpretative area of the dominant hemisphere is damaged i a child, the
    • A. 

      Corresponding region on the opposite side of the brain may take over the interpretative functions.

    • B. 

      Child will fail to learn language

    • C. 

      Child will do poorly in math

    • D. 

      Child will have difficulty concentrating

  • 79. 
    Brain waves are recordings of activity in the
    • A. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • D. 

      Brainstem

  • 80. 
    Basal ganglia are located in the ______ and ______.
    • A. 

      Brainstem; relay motor impulses from the cerebral cortex

    • B. 

      Frontal lobe; aid in control of motor activities

    • C. 

      Deep regions of the cerebral hemispheres; aid in control of motor activities

    • D. 

      Cerebral hemispheres; control the senses

  • 81. 
    If the reticular formation is injured, the person might exhibit signs of
    • A. 

      Hyperactivity

    • B. 

      Increased metabolism

    • C. 

      Increased sympathetic system responses

    • D. 

      Unconsciousness, or coma

  • 82. 
    The part of the brain that assigns value to a memory is the
    • A. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • B. 

      Amygdala

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 83. 
    Dopamine is secreted by the ______ and is deficient in ______ disease.
    • A. 

      Cerebral cortex; Alzheimer

    • B. 

      Amygdala; Lou Gehrig's

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata; Huntington

    • D. 

      Substantia nigra; Parkinson

  • 84. 
    The pherenic nerves arise from the
    • A. 

      Cervical plexuses

    • B. 

      Brachial plexuses

    • C. 

      Lumbar plexuses

    • D. 

      Sacral plexuses

  • 85. 
    The area of skin that sensory nerve fibers of a partiular spinal nerve innervate is called a
    • A. 

      Dermatome

    • B. 

      Myotome

    • C. 

      Sensory body

    • D. 

      Nerve body

  • 86. 
    The somatic nervous system consists of nerve fibers that connect the CNS to the ______, whereas the autonomic nervous system consists of fibers that connect the ______.
    • A. 

      Skin and skeletal muscles; brain to the spinal cord

    • B. 

      Visceral organs; CNS to the skin and skeletal muscles

    • C. 

      Heart and intestines; CNS to the cardiac and smooth muscles

    • D. 

      Skin and skeletal muscles; CNS to the visceral organs

  • 87. 
    Which of the following are generally adrenergic fibers?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

    • B. 

      Sympathetic post ganglionic fibers

    • C. 

      Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers

    • D. 

      Sympathetic preganglionic fibers

  • 88. 
    Bob witnesses and auto accident and impulses from the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system increases his heart rate.
    • A. 

      Spinal

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic

    • C. 

      Sympathetic

    • D. 

      Cranial

  • 89. 
    The drug atropine influences the autonomic nervous system by
    • A. 

      Stimulating the release of norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Blocking the action of norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Stimulating the release of acetyleholine

    • D. 

      Blocking the action of acetyleholine

  • 90. 
    Aging of the brain begins
    • A. 

      Before birth

    • B. 

      At birth

    • C. 

      At age 30

    • D. 

      After age 50

  • 91. 
    Over a lifetime, the brain shrinks by about __ percent.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      40

  • 92. 
    Symptoms of concussion include all except
    • A. 

      Disturbed sleep

    • B. 

      Decreased sensitivity to light and sound

    • C. 

      Memory lapse

    • D. 

      Balance problems

  • 93. 
    A lumbar puncture is
    • A. 

      An infection of the cerebrospinal fluid

    • B. 

      A blockage in peripheral nerve transmission

    • C. 

      A test of the pressure that the cerebrospinal fluid is under

    • D. 

      A procedure to correct a spinal cord injury

  • 94. 
    In spastic paralysis
    • A. 

      Muscle tone increases and the muscles atrophy

    • B. 

      Muscle tone increases and the muscles do not atrophy

    • C. 

      Muscle tone decreases and the muscles atrophy

    • D. 

      Muscle tone decreases and the muscles do not atrophy

  • 95. 
    A traumatic brain injury (TBI) results from
    • A. 

      An open head wound

    • B. 

      Mechanical force

    • C. 

      An infection

    • D. 

      Poisoning

  • 96. 
    The part of the brain that is overactive in post traumatic stress disorder is the
    • A. 

      Amygdala

    • B. 

      Brainstem

    • C. 

      Hippocampus

    • D. 

      Thalamus

  • 97. 
    Melinda has Parkinson disease.  Her movements are slowing and she has difficulty initiating voluntary muscular actions.  The region that is affected in her brain is the
    • A. 

      Frontal lobe

    • B. 

      Parietal lobe

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia

    • D. 

      Amygdala

  • 98. 
    Brain waves during sleep are ______ waves
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Beta

    • C. 

      Theta

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 99. 
    The brain waves most closely associated with associated  with mental activity are
    • A. 

      Alpha waves

    • B. 

      Beta waves

    • C. 

      Theta waves

    • D. 

      Delta waves

  • 100. 
    Spinal nerve injury may result from
    • A. 

      Fracture of veretebrate, dislocations, or birth injuries

    • B. 

      Too little dopamine in the basal ganglia

    • C. 

      Excess acetylcholine in synapses

    • D. 

      A drug overdose

  • 101. 
    Consider a basketball player whose heart is racing during the final moments of a game.  With seconds on the clock, she makes a jump shot.  Her excitement is a function of her _________ nervous system, and her movements are a function of her ________ nervous system.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic, sympathetic

    • B. 

      Sympathetic, parasympathetic

    • C. 

      Somatic, sympathetic

    • D. 

      Sympathetic, somatic

    • E. 

      Somatic, parasympathetic

  • 102. 
    Which is not true about the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
    • A. 

      The ANS is part of both the CNS and PNS

    • B. 

      ANS functions are involuntary

    • C. 

      The ANS does not use sensory neurons

    • D. 

      ANS motor neurons innervate cardiac muscle fibers, smooth muscle fibers, and glands

    • E. 

      ANS motor pathways always include two neurons

  • 103. 
    We lack awareness of many of our bodies' systems for maintaining homeostasis.  The sensations, movements, and secretions of organs such as heart and intestines are governed by the:
    • A. 

      Autonomic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

  • 104. 
    Which is not true about the somatic nervous system (SNS)?
    • A. 

      The SNS is under voluntary control

    • B. 

      The SNS uses motor and sensory neurons

    • C. 

      The SNS innervates skeletal muscle fibers

    • D. 

      The SNS is part of both the CNS and the PNS

    • E. 

      The SNS is activated by visceral sensory neurons

  • 105. 
    The knee jerk reflex (when the quadriceps muscles contract after the patellar tendon is tapped) is the work of the:
    • A. 

      Autonomic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

  • 106. 
    The first of the two ANS motor neurons is the _______ neuron.
    • A. 

      Preganglionic

    • B. 

      Postganglionic

    • C. 

      Posterior

    • D. 

      Terminal

    • E. 

      Primary

  • 107. 
    Postganglionic axons are:
    • A. 

      Myelinated

    • B. 

      Unmyelinated

  • 108. 
    Motor neurons of the __________ nervous system contain more rapidly conducting axons.
    • A. 

      Autonomic

    • B. 

      Somatic

  • 109. 
    Motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system:
    • A. 

      Always excite effector organs

    • B. 

      Always inhibit effector organs

    • C. 

      Can either excite or inhibit effector organs

    • D. 

      Do not excite effector organs but monitor their status of activity

  • 110. 
    Preganglionic axons of the ANS release:
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

  • 111. 
    Which statement accurately compares the motor systems of the somatic nervous system (SNS) and autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
    • A. 

      Both the SNS and ANS house their motor neurons in ganglia

    • B. 

      The SNS does not have ganglia for its motor neurons but the ANS does

    • C. 

      The ANS does not have ganglia for its motor neurons but the SNS does

    • D. 

      Neither the SNS nor the ANS house their motor neurons in ganglia

  • 112. 
    The circuitry of the atonomic system allows for control in activation. The characteristic that allows a small number of preganglionic cells to stimulate a large number of postganglionic cells is:
    • A. 

      Convergence

    • B. 

      Reverberation

    • C. 

      Divergence

    • D. 

      Reciprocal innervation

  • 113. 
    Which is not an effector innervated by the autonomic nervous system?
    • A. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • B. 

      Smooth muscle

    • C. 

      Glands

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • E. 

      No exceptions; all are effectors of the autonomic nervous system

  • 114. 
    The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system:
    • A. 

      Use preganglionic and postganglionic neurons to innervate skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Contain autonomic ganglia to house ganglionic neurons

    • C. 

      Are voluntary

    • D. 

      Are composed of PNS structures only

    • E. 

      Function only during sleep

  • 115. 
    Which division functions to conserve energy and replenish the supply of nutrients?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Somatic

    • C. 

      Sympathetic

  • 116. 
    Which division functions to increase alertness and direct bodily responses in stressful situations?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Sympathetic

  • 117. 
    The "fight-or-flight" system is the ________ nervous system.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Somatic

    • C. 

      Sympathetic

  • 118. 
    Which system has more divergence of preganglionic axons?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic division

    • B. 

      Sympathetic division

  • 119. 
    Which system has long preganglionic axons and therefore ganglia that are relatively far from the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

  • 120. 
    Which system contains short preganglionic axons that branch extensively?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Somatic nervous system

    • C. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

  • 121. 
    Which statements are correct concerning the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a. Contains preganglionic cell bodies in brainstem nuclei. b. Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the lateral horns of the T1-T12 regions. c. Participates in the "fight-or-flight" response. d. Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the sacral region of the spinal cord.
    • A. 

      A,d,e

    • B. 

      A,c,e

    • C. 

      B,c,d

    • D. 

      B,c

    • E. 

      C,d,e

  • 122. 
    The sympathetic division of the ANS has:
    • A. 

      Long postganglionic axons

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine as a transmitter substance

    • C. 

      Preganglionic neuron cell bodies in the T1-L2 regions of the spinal cord

    • D. 

      Two of the choices are correct

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 123. 
    Which is not a characteristic of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? 
    • A. 

      Long postganglionic axons

    • B. 

      Long preganglionic axons

    • C. 

      No rami communicantes

    • D. 

      Terminal ganglia close to the target organ

    • E. 

      Craniosacral preganglionic neuron cell bodies

  • 124. 
    Which system engages in mass activation?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Sympathetic nervous system

  • 125. 
    Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a. III b. IV c. V d. VII e. IX f. X g. XII
    • A. 

      A,d,e,f

    • B. 

      B,c,d,e

    • C. 

      A,c,d,g

    • D. 

      B,e,f,g

  • 126. 
    The preganglionic axons of the CN III edtend to the ________ ganglion.
    • A. 

      Pterygopalatine

    • B. 

      Submandibular

    • C. 

      Otic

    • D. 

      Pelvic

    • E. 

      Ciliary

  • 127. 
    The preganglionic axons of the CN VII extend to the:
    • A. 

      Pterygopalatine ganglion

    • B. 

      Submandibular

    • C. 

      Otic ganglion

    • D. 

      Pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglia

    • E. 

      Pterygopalatine, submandibular, and otic ganglia

  • 128. 
    The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the:
    • A. 

      Parotid salvary gland

    • B. 

      Large intestine

    • C. 

      Lacrimal gland

    • D. 

      Sublingual salvary gland

    • E. 

      Ciliary muscle

  • 129. 
    From which part of the CNS do parasympathetic preganglionic axons of CN VII emerge?
    • A. 

      Mesencephalon

    • B. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • C. 

      Pons

    • D. 

      Lateral horns of the S1 spinal cord segment

    • E. 

      Lateral horns of the T1 spinal cord segment

  • 130. 
    Tear secretions are governed by parasympathetic fibers within which cranial nerve?
    • A. 

      III

    • B. 

      V

    • C. 

      VII

    • D. 

      IX

    • E. 

      X

  • 131. 
    The CN that supplies parasympathetic innervation to the thoracic organs is:
    • A. 

      CN II

    • B. 

      CN III

    • C. 

      CN VI

    • D. 

      CN IX

    • E. 

      CN X

  • 132. 
    The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers that are controlled by pelvic splanchnic nerves innervate: a. large intestine b. reproductive organs c. salivary glands d. pupillary constrictor muscles e. urinary bladder f. ureters
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

    • F. 

      F

  • 133. 
    Activation of parasympathetic  fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to:
    • A. 

      Increased smooth muscle mobility in the digestive tract

    • B. 

      Decreased smooth muscle mobility in the digestive tract

  • 134. 
    Activation  of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to:
    • A. 

      Inhibition of urinary bladder contractions

    • B. 

      Erection of male penis and female clitoris

    • C. 

      Decreased secretions in the digestive tract

    • D. 

      An increase in the heart rate

  • 135. 
    The CN having multiple terminal and intramural ganglia is:
    • A. 

      CN III

    • B. 

      CN VII

    • C. 

      CN IX

    • D. 

      CN X

    • E. 

      CN XII

  • 136. 
    The sympathetic trunks are located:
    • A. 

      Superior to the brachial plexus

    • B. 

      Inferior to the sacral plexus

    • C. 

      Immediately lateral to the vertebral column

    • D. 

      Lateral to prevertebral ganglia

    • E. 

      In the craniosacral regions

  • 137. 
    The sympathetic trunks are located:
    • A. 

      Axons of preganglionic neurons

    • B. 

      Axons of postganglionic neurons

    • C. 

      Somas of preganglionic neurons

    • D. 

      Somas of ganglionic neurons

  • 138. 
    A structure that is said to resemble a pearl necklace is is a:
    • A. 

      Sympathetic trunk

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic trunk

    • C. 

      Parasympathetic ganglion

    • D. 

      Splanchnic ganglion

  • 139. 
    Postganglionic sympathetic axons are carried from the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerve by the:
    • A. 

      White rami communicates

    • B. 

      Superior cervical ganglion

    • C. 

      Gray rami communicates

    • D. 

      Splanchnic nerves

    • E. 

      Pterygopalantine ganglion

  • 140. 
    Gray rami from the sympathetic trunk connect to:
    • A. 

      Alternating spinal nerves

    • B. 

      All cranial nerves

    • C. 

      All spinal nerves

    • D. 

      The sympathetic trunk

  • 141. 
    The sympathetic postganglionic axons from the superior cervical ganglion innervate: a: sweat glands in the head b: sweat glands in the the palms c: smooth muscle of blood vessels in the head d: smooth muscle of blood vessels in the antebrachial region e: superior tarsal muscle of the eye f: submandibular salivary gland
    • A. 

      A,c,e

    • B. 

      B,d,f

    • C. 

      A,c,f

    • D. 

      D,e,f

    • E. 

      B,d

  • 142. 
    The sympathetic postganglionic axons from the superior cervical ganglion innervate: a. sweat glands in the head b. sweat glands in the palms c. smooth muscles of blood vessels in the head d. smooth muscles of blood vessels in the antebrachial region e. submndibular salivary gland
    • A. 

      A,c,e

    • B. 

      B,d,f

    • C. 

      A,c,f

    • D. 

      D,e,f

    • E. 

      B,d

  • 143. 
    Specific prevertebral ganglia are named after the:
    • A. 

      Effector organ stimulated by the postganglionic axon

    • B. 

      Major abdominal arteries around which they are found

    • C. 

      Vertebra from under which the preganglionic axon travels

    • D. 

      Distance from the corresponding parasympathetic ganglion

    • E. 

      Early anatomist who discovered and described them

  • 144. 
    Postganglionic axons from the celiac ganglion innervate the:
    • A. 

      Stomach

    • B. 

      Spleen

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Gallbladder

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 145. 
    There are ________ prevetebral ganglia.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      12

  • 146. 
    The postganglionic axons from the superior mesenteric ganglion innervate:
    • A. 

      The distal half of the duodenum

    • B. 

      Part of the pancreas

    • C. 

      Part of the small intestine

    • D. 

      The proximal part of the large intestine

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 147. 
    The prevetebral ganglion that recieves axons that originate in the L1-L2 segments of the spinal cord is the ________ ganglion.
    • A. 

      Celiac

    • B. 

      Superior mesenteric

    • C. 

      Inferior mesenteric

    • D. 

      Splenic

    • E. 

      Hepatic

  • 148. 
    The superior mesenteric ganglion recieces preganglionic sympathetic neurons from the ________ segments of the spinal cord.
    • A. 

      T1-T4

    • B. 

      T2-T6

    • C. 

      T5-T9

    • D. 

      T7-T9

    • E. 

      T10-T12

  • 149. 
    Sympathetic splanchnic nerves are composed of:
    • A. 

      Preganglionic sympathetic axons that synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion

    • B. 

      Preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion

    • C. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic axons that synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

    • D. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion

    • E. 

      None of the above are correct

  • 150. 
    Which sympathetic pathway involves only a preganglionic axon going to the effector organ?
    • A. 

      Splanchnic nerve pathway

    • B. 

      Adrenal medulla pathway

    • C. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway

    • D. 

      Spinal nerve pathway

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 151. 
    Which sympathetic pathway involves a preganglionic neuron that synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion, but the postganglionic axon does not leave the trunk via a gray ramus?
    • A. 

      Splanchnic nerve pathway

    • B. 

      Adrenal medulla pathway

    • C. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway

    • D. 

      Spinal nerve pathway

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 152. 
    The arrector pili muscles recieve their sympathetic innervation via the:
    • A. 

      Splanchnic nerve pathway

    • B. 

      Adrenal medulla pathway

    • C. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway

    • D. 

      Spinal nerve pathway

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 153. 
    Which sympathetic pathway is responsible for activating the esophagus, heart, lungs, and thoracic blood vessels?
    • A. 

      Splanchnic nerve pathway

    • B. 

      Adrenal medulla pathway

    • C. 

      Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway

    • D. 

      Spinal nerve pathway

    • E. 

      None of the above answers are correct

  • 154. 
    The sympathetic division pathway that results in innervations of the pelvic organs has as its spinal cord segment origin in:
    • A. 

      T1-T2

    • B. 

      T1-L2

    • C. 

      T1-T4

    • D. 

      T5-T12

    • E. 

      T10-L2

  • 155. 
    Which autonomic plexus consists of postganglionic sympathetic axons that come off the cervical and thoracic sympathetic trunk ganglia, as well as preganglionic axons from the vagus nerve?
    • A. 

      Espohageal plexus

    • B. 

      Pulmonary plexus

    • C. 

      Abdominal aortic plexus

    • D. 

      Hypogastric plexus

    • E. 

      Cardiac plexus

  • 156. 
    Which autonomic plexus innervates viscera within the pelvic region?
    • A. 

      Espohageal plexus

    • B. 

      Pulmonary plexus

    • C. 

      Abdominal aortic plexus

    • D. 

      Hypogastric plexus

    • E. 

      Cardiac plexus

  • 157. 
    The cardiac sphincter is innervated by parasympathetic axons coming from the ________ plexus.
    • A. 

      Esophageal

    • B. 

      Abdominal aortic

    • C. 

      Pulmonary

    • D. 

      Hypogastric

    • E. 

      Cardiac

  • 158. 
    When norepinephrine is released form varicosities of postganglionic neurons, its targets are:
    • A. 

      Adrenergic receptors on effectors such as smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Adtenergic receptors on preganglionic sympathetic neurons

    • C. 

      Cholinergic receptors on effectors such as cardiac muscle

    • D. 

      Cholinergic receptors on preganglionic sympathetic neurons

  • 159. 
    The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems have ________ effects on heart rate.
    • A. 

      Anatagonistic

    • B. 

      Cooperative

    • C. 

      Synergistic

    • D. 

      Negligible

  • 160. 
    Which type of innervation causes reduced blood flow to the digestive tract?
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Sympathetic

  • 161. 
    Which may be involved in autonomic reflex?
    • A. 

      Cardiac muscle contraction

    • B. 

      Smooth muscle contraction

    • C. 

      Secretion by glands

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 162. 
    In the brain, the ________ is the integration and command center for autonomic functions.
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Cerebrl cortex

    • C. 

      Spinal cord

    • D. 

      Brainstem

    • E. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 163. 
    The centers for cardiac, digestive, and vasomotor functions are housed within the:
    • A. 

      Brainstem

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Spinal cord

    • D. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • E. 

      Cerebellum

  • 164. 
    The parasympathetic autonomic responses associated with defecation and urination are processed and controlled at the level of:
    • A. 

      Brain stem

    • B. 

      Hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Spinal cord

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

    • E. 

      Limbic center

  • 165. 
    Sweat glands and arrector pilli muscles are controlled:
    • A. 

      Only by the parasympathetic nervous system

    • B. 

      Only by the sympathetic nervous system

    • C. 

      By both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

    • D. 

      By both the autonomic and somatic nervous systems

  • 166. 
    The diameter of many blood vessels is controlled exclusively by the ________ nervous system, and decreases in the activity of this system resulting in ________.
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic, vasoconstriction

    • B. 

      Parasympathetic, vasodialtion

    • C. 

      Somatic, vasoconstriction

    • D. 

      Sympathetic, vasoconstriction

    • E. 

      Sympathetic, vasodilation

  • 167. 
    A rise in blood pressure causes a reflexive:
    • A. 

      Activation of the parasympathetic system and inhibition of the sympathetic system

    • B. 

      Activation of the sympathetic system and inhibition of the parasympathetic system

    • C. 

      Activation of both the parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system

    • D. 

      Inhibition of both the parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system

  • 168. 
    What is the correct order for the parts of the spinal cord, from the superior to inferior?
    • A. 

      Cervical-thoracic-sacral-coccygeal-lumbar

    • B. 

      Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacral-coccygeal

    • C. 

      Thoracic-lumbar-sacral-cervical-coccygeal

    • D. 

      Thoracic-cervical-lumbar-coccygeal-sacral

    • E. 

      Thoracic-lumbar-saccral-coccygeal-cervical

  • 169. 
    In adults, the spinal cord is a different length than the vetebral canal, and most of the lumbar part of the spinal cord is within:
    • A. 

      The coccyx

    • B. 

      The sacrum

    • C. 

      The cervical vetebrae

    • D. 

      The throacic vetebrae

    • E. 

      The cauda equina

  • 170. 
    The plexus that supplies the upper limbs is the ________ plexus.
    • A. 

      Cervical

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Bronchiole

    • D. 

      Lumbar

    • E. 

      Sciatic

  • 171. 
    Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he has no sensations from the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and part of the ring finger. What nerve do you suspect to be damaged?
    • A. 

      Median Nerve

    • B. 

      Radial Nerve

    • C. 

      Musculocutaneous Nerve

    • D. 

      Ulnar Nerve

    • E. 

      Axillary Nerve

  • 172. 
    Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he cannot extend the forearm, wrist, and digits. You suspect that he has damaged the:
    • A. 

      Median nerve

    • B. 

      Radial nerve

    • C. 

      Musculocutaneous nerve

    • D. 

      Ulnar nerve

    • E. 

      Axillary nerve

  • 173. 
    Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he has no sensations form his "pinky". You suspect that he has damaged the:
    • A. 

      Median nerve

    • B. 

      Radial nerve

    • C. 

      Musculocutaneous nerve

    • D. 

      Ulnar nerve

    • E. 

      Axillary nerve

  • 174. 
    The largest and longest nerve in the body is the ________ nerve.
    • A. 

      Femoral

    • B. 

      Radial

    • C. 

      Sciatic

    • D. 

      Obturator

    • E. 

      Saphenous

  • 175. 
    Where the sciatic nerve splits, it branches directly to the:
    • A. 

      Deep and superficial fibular nerves

    • B. 

      Tibial and common fibular nerves

    • C. 

      Femoral and obturator nerves

    • D. 

      Deep femoral and tibial nerves

    • E. 

      Popliteal and sural nerves

  • 176. 
    Reflexes are described as:
    • A. 

      Slow and spontaneous

    • B. 

      Spontaneous and self-initiating

    • C. 

      Pre-programmed and voluntary

    • D. 

      Rapid and involuntary

  • 177. 
    What is the correct order for the events that occur during a reflex? a. Impulse travels through sensory neuron to the CNS b. A stimulus activates a receptor c. Information is processed by interneurons d. Motor neuron transmits impulse to effector e. Effector responds
    • A. 

      A,b,c,d,e

    • B. 

      B,a,c,d,e

    • C. 

      C,b,a,e,d

    • D. 

      C,a,b,d,e

    • E. 

      B,d,c,a,e

  • 178. 
    Late one night you are leaving the science building during a snowstorm.  As you approach your car your right foot suddenly slips on a patch of ice.  Your left leg immediately stiffens as you try to regain your balance.  The reflex action you relied upon is a(n):
    • A. 

      Unilateral reflex

    • B. 

      Ipsilateral reflex

    • C. 

      Contralateral reflex

    • D. 

      Voluntary reflex

    • E. 

      None of the choices is correct

  • 179. 
    Stepping on a piece of glass would most likely invoke a _________ reflex.
    • A. 

      Golgi tendon

    • B. 

      Withdrawl

    • C. 

      Stretch

    • D. 

      Pain

    • E. 

      Motor

  • 180. 
    If someone steps on a sharp object with their right foot it will lead to:
    • A. 

      Polysynaptic reflexes involving contraction of the right hamstring and left quadriceps.

    • B. 

      Polysynaptic reflexes involving contraction of the right quadriceps and left hamstrings

    • C. 

      A monosynaptic reflex causing contraction of the right hamstring and polysynaptic reflex causing contraction of the left hamstring

    • D. 

      A monosynaptic reflex causing contraction of the right quadriceps and a polysynaptic reflex causing contraction of the left hamstring

  • 181. 
    When the anchilles tendon is tapped or the bottom of the foot is stroked, the reflexive response is that the foot:
    • A. 

      Plantar flexes

    • B. 

      Dorsiflexes

    • C. 

      Inverts

    • D. 

      Everts

  • 182. 
    If someone steps on a sharp object with their right foot it will lead to:
    • A. 

      Polysnaptic reflexes involving contraction of the right hamstring and left quadriceps

    • B. 

      Polysnaptic reflexes involving contraction of the right quadriceps and left hamstrings

    • C. 

      A monosynaptic reflex causing contraction of the right hamstring and polysynaptic reflex causing contraction of the left hamstring

    • D. 

      A monosynaptic reflex causing contraction of the right quadriceps and a polysynaptic reflex causing contraction of the left hamstring

  • 183. 
    The embryonic feature that gives rise to the anterior and lateral horns of gray matter is the ________ plate.
    • A. 

      Basal

    • B. 

      Alar

    • C. 

      Ulnar

    • D. 

      Anterior

    • E. 

      Posterior

  • 184. 
    When the Achilles tendon is tapped or the bottom of the foot is stroked, the reflexive response is that the foot:
    • A. 

      Plantar flexes

    • B. 

      Dorsiflexes

    • C. 

      Inverts

    • D. 

      Everts

  • 185. 
    The embryonic feature that gives rise to the anterior and lateral horns of gray matter is the _______ plate.
    • A. 

      Basal

    • B. 

      Alar

    • C. 

      Ulnar

    • D. 

      Anterior

    • E. 

      Posterior

  • 186. 
    This figure shows an anterior view of the spinal cord and meninges.  What structure does number 7 indicate?
    • A. 

      Arachnoid

    • B. 

      Pia mater

    • C. 

      Dura mater

    • D. 

      Gray mater

    • E. 

      White mater

  • 187. 
    This figure shows a cross section of the spinal cord.  What structure does number 1 indicate?
    • A. 

      Lateral horn

    • B. 

      Anterior horn

    • C. 

      Gray commissure

    • D. 

      Posterior horn

    • E. 

      Posterior funiculus

  • 188. 
    This figure shows neuron pathways and nuclei locations. What type of nuclei does number 1 indicate?
    • A. 

      Somatic motor nuclei

    • B. 

      Autonomic motor nuclei

    • C. 

      Bisceral sensory nuclei

    • D. 

      Somatic sensory nuclei

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 189. 
    This figure show neuron pathways and nuclei locations. What type of nuclei does number 2 indicate?
    • A. 

      Somatic motor nuclei

    • B. 

      Autonomic motor nuclei

    • C. 

      Visceral sensory nuclei

    • D. 

      Somatic sensory nuclei

    • E. 

      None of the above choices are correct

  • 190. 
    The lobes of the brain are named for the bones superficial to them and are part of the:
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Diencephalon

    • D. 

      Metencephalon

  • 191. 
    The shallow depressions between folds on the surface of the brain are called:
    • A. 

      Gyri

    • B. 

      Sulci

    • C. 

      Ventricles

    • D. 

      Syncitia

  • 192. 
    Which secondary brain vesicle forms the portion of the adult brain that includes the epithalamus, thalamus, and hypothalamus?
    • A. 

      Telenecephalon

    • B. 

      Diencephalon

    • C. 

      Myelencephalon

    • D. 

      Metencephalon

    • E. 

      Mesencephalon

  • 193. 
    The cerebral cortex consists of ________ matter.
    • A. 

      Gray

    • B. 

      White

  • 194. 
    What is the correct order for the cranial meninges, from superficial to deep? a. dura mater b. pia mater c. arachnoid mater
    • A. 

      A,b,c

    • B. 

      A,c,b

    • C. 

      B,a,c

    • D. 

      B,c,a

    • E. 

      C,b,a

  • 195. 
    The largest of the four dural septa, this large, sickle-shaped vertical fold of the dura mater seperates the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
    • A. 

      Diaphragma sellae

    • B. 

      Falx cerebelli

    • C. 

      Tentorium cerebelli

    • D. 

      Superior sagittal sinus

    • E. 

      Falx cerebri

  • 196. 
    A sickle-shaped vertical partition that divides the left and right cerebellar hemispheres is the:
    • A. 

      Diaphragma sellae

    • B. 

      Falx cerebelli

    • C. 

      Tentorium cerebelli

    • D. 

      Superior saigttal sinus

    • E. 

      Falx cerebri

  • 197. 
    A brain ventricle located in the cerebrum is the ________ ventricle.
    • A. 

      Third

    • B. 

      Lateral

    • C. 

      Fourth

    • D. 

      Median

    • E. 

      Falx

  • 198. 
    Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the:
    • A. 

      Choroid plexus

    • B. 

      Arachnoid villi

    • C. 

      Septum pellucidum

    • D. 

      Mesencephalic aqueduct

  • 199. 
    Excess CSF is removed from the subarachnoid space by:
    • A. 

      The median aperture

    • B. 

      Microglia

    • C. 

      Astrocytes

    • D. 

      Arachnoid villi

    • E. 

      The choroid plexus

  • 200. 
    List the events in the correct order for CSF flow to the CNS. a. CSF flows into the arachnoid villi b. CSF enters the blood c. CSF flows through the cerebral awueduct to the 4th ventricle d. CSF flows into the subarachnoid space e. CSF is produced by the choroid plexus
    • A. 

      A,b,c,e,d

    • B. 

      E,a,b,c,d

    • C. 

      C,d,a,e,b

    • D. 

      E,c,d,a,b

    • E. 

      E,d,a,b,c

  • 201. 
    The blood-brain barrier is made up of:
    • A. 

      Microglial extensions and capillary endothelial cells

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells and venous blood vessels

    • C. 

      Astrocyte pervicascualr feet and capillary endothelial cells

    • D. 

      Astrocyte extensions and dural sinuses

    • E. 

      Astrocyte perivascualr feet and the falx cerebri

  • 202. 
    The blood-brain barrier is reduced or missing from three locations in the brain. Which is not one of these locations?
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Pineal gland

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Choroid plexus

  • 203. 
    The location of conscious thought processes and the origin of all complex intellectual functions is the:
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

    • E. 

      Cerebrum

  • 204. 
    One function of the brain's frontal lobe is:
    • A. 

      Smell

    • B. 

      Vetebral communication

    • C. 

      Hearing

    • D. 

      Speech interpretation

    • E. 

      Vision

  • 205. 
    The portion of the brain involved primarily with vision is the:
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Temporal lobe

    • C. 

      Insula

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

    • E. 

      Frontal lobe

  • 206. 
    The lobe that is immediately posterior to the central sulcus and that is involved in general sensory functions is the:
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Temporal lobe

    • C. 

      Insula

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

    • E. 

      Frontal lobe

  • 207. 
    The lateral sucus is superior to the:
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Temporal lobe

    • C. 

      Insula

    • D. 

      Parietal lobe

    • E. 

      Frontal lobe

  • 208. 
    A person with damage to the premotor cortex area that coordinates eye movements:
    • A. 

      Can read but cannot understand the words

    • B. 

      Cannot read or understand the words

    • C. 

      Can understand the words but cannot follow the lines on the page

    • D. 

      Can process linguistic information visually but not through auditory inputs

  • 209. 
    A football player can hear his coach's voice above the noise of the crowd and can sense an opponent about to run him down.  These abilities are due to the action of what part of the brain?
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus

    • B. 

      Epithalamus

    • C. 

      Thalamus

    • D. 

      Pineal Body

    • E. 

      Pons

  • 210. 
    The sleep-wake cycle and the sex drive are both regulated by:
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Olive

  • 211. 
    Which portion of the brain contains the posterior part of the fourth ventricle?
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Thalamus

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • D. 

      Hypothalamus

    • E. 

      Cerebellum

  • 212. 
    The vasomotor center is an important regulator of __________ and is located in the _________.
    • A. 

      Voluntary movement, frontal lobe

    • B. 

      Blood pressure, pons

    • C. 

      Visual reflexes, pons

    • D. 

      Blood pressure, medulla oblongata

    • E. 

      Visual reflexes, midbrain

  • 213. 
    Which part of the brain contains the arbor vitae?
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

    • E. 

      Epithalamus

  • 214. 
    This portion of the brain ensures that skeletal muscle contractions follows the correct pattern leading to smooth, coordinated movements.
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

    • E. 

      Epithalamus

  • 215. 
    Which portion of the brain adjusts skeletal muscle activity to maintain equilibrium and posture?
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      Cerebrum

    • D. 

      Cerebellum

    • E. 

      Epithalamus

  • 216. 
    The __________ is composed of multiple structures that collaboratively process and experience emotions.
    • A. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Limbic system

    • E. 

      Cerebellar peduncle

  • 217. 
    Damage to which lobe of the brain (that normally plans appropriate behavior) has been most frequently associated with personality abnormalities?
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Occipital

    • D. 

      Temporal

    • E. 

      Insula

  • 218. 
    Which cranial nerve is composed of only motor fibers?
    • A. 

      VI

    • B. 

      VIII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      V

    • E. 

      I

  • 219. 
    The cranial nerve responsible for movement of the medial rectus, superior rectus, inferiror rectus, and inferior oblique muscles is the _________ nerve.
    • A. 

      Oculomotor

    • B. 

      Trochlear

    • C. 

      Abducens

    • D. 

      Trigeminal

    • E. 

      Hypoglossal

  • 220. 
    The cranial nerve that innervates smooth muscle and glands of the heart, lungs, larynx, trachea, and most abdominal organs is the ________ nerve.
    • A. 

      Facial

    • B. 

      Trigeminal

    • C. 

      Vagus

    • D. 

      Accessory

    • E. 

      Hypoglossal

  • 221. 
    The cranial nerve that passes through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is the ________ nerve.
    • A. 

      Optic

    • B. 

      Olfactory

    • C. 

      Trigeminal

    • D. 

      Oculomotor

    • E. 

      Abducens

  • 222. 
    Bell palsy is a condition characterized by the paralysis of facial muscles, eyelid droop, and sagging at the corners of the mouth. What nerve is affected in this condition?
    • A. 

      Olfactory

    • B. 

      Trigeminal

    • C. 

      Facial

    • D. 

      Accessory

    • E. 

      Hypoglossal