IB Biology Practice Test Quiz
You might be just starting in your studies on biology, or you might be gearing up for your finals, but either way, you can never be too prepared for a test on the scientific study of life! The topic looks at a broad range of life’s aspects from human reproduction to the physical makeup of our bodies and the other organisms in the world. What can you tell us about biology? Let’s find out.
- 1.
The lengths of a sample of tiger canines were measured. 68 % of the lengths fell within a range between 15 mm and 45 mm. The mean was 30 mm. What is the standard deviation of this sample?
- A.
5 mm
- B.
15 mm
- C.
7.5 mm
- D.
30 mm
Correct Answer
B. 15 mmExplanation
The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of data. In this case, we know that 68% of the lengths fell within a range between 15 mm and 45 mm, and the mean is 30 mm. This means that the data is fairly spread out around the mean. Since the range is 30 mm (45 mm - 15 mm), and the data is evenly distributed within this range, we can assume that the standard deviation is half of the range, which is 15 mm. Therefore, the standard deviation of this sample is 15 mm.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following are features of prokaryotes and eukaryotes? 70S ribosomes 80S ribosomes Naked DNA DNA associated with proteins 70S ribosomes 80S ribosomes Naked DNA DNA associatedwith proteins
- A.
Prokaryote eukaryote prokaryote eukaryote
- B.
Eukaryote prokaryote eukaryote prokaryote
- C.
Eukaryote prokaryote prokaryote eukaryote
- D.
Prokaryote eukaryote eukaryote prokaryote
Correct Answer
A. Prokaryote eukaryote prokaryote eukaryoteExplanation
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have ribosomes, but they differ in size. Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes, while eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes. Additionally, both types of cells have DNA, but it is organized differently. Prokaryotes have naked DNA, meaning it is not associated with proteins, while eukaryotes have DNA that is associated with proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is prokaryote-eukaryote-prokaryote-eukaryote.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which statement is part of the cell theory? .
- A.
Cells are composed of organic molecules.
- B.
Cells have DNA as their genetic material
- C.
Cells have cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane.
- D.
Cells come from pre-existing cells.
Correct Answer
D. Cells come from pre-existing cells.Explanation
The statement "Cells come from pre-existing cells" is part of the cell theory. This theory states that all living organisms are composed of cells, cells are the basic unit of structure and function in living organisms, and cells can only arise from pre-existing cells through cell division. This statement supports the idea that new cells are formed through the division of existing cells, rather than spontaneously appearing.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What route is used to export proteins from the cell?
- A.
Golgi apparatus → rough endoplasmic reticulum → plasma membrane
- B.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → plasma membrane
- C.
Golgi apparatus → lysosome → rough endoplasmic reticulum
- D.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum → lysosome → Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → plasma membraneExplanation
Proteins are synthesized on ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER). After synthesis, the proteins are transported from the rough ER to the Golgi apparatus for further processing and modification. The Golgi apparatus then packages the proteins into vesicles and transports them to the plasma membrane for export out of the cell. Therefore, the correct route for exporting proteins from the cell is rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → plasma membrane.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following take(s) place during either interphase or mitosis in animal cells? I. Re-formation of nuclear membranes II. Pairing of homologous chromosomes III. DNA replication
- A.
I only
- B.
I and II only
- C.
II and III only
- D.
I and III only
Correct Answer
D. I and III onlyExplanation
During interphase, which is the longest phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs. This is the process in which the DNA molecule is duplicated to prepare for cell division. The re-formation of nuclear membranes occurs during the telophase stage of mitosis, which is the final stage of cell division. Therefore, the correct answer is I and III only.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which substance in prokaryotes contains sulfur?
- A.
DNA
- B.
Phospholipids
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Antibiotics
Correct Answer
C. ProteinsExplanation
Proteins in prokaryotes contain sulfur. Sulfur is an essential element in the structure of certain amino acids, such as cysteine and methionine, which are building blocks of proteins. These sulfur-containing amino acids play important roles in protein folding, enzyme activity, and protein-protein interactions. Therefore, proteins are the substance in prokaryotes that contain sulfur.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which describes these molecules correctly? I II
- A.
Ribose aminoacid
- B.
Glucose aminoacid
- C.
Ribose fatty acid
- D.
Glucose fatty acid
Correct Answer
D. Glucose fatty acidExplanation
The correct answer is glucose fatty acid. This is because glucose is a type of sugar molecule and fatty acid is a type of lipid molecule. These two molecules have different structures and functions in the body. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, so the combinations of ribose or glucose with amino acids would not be accurate descriptions.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What sequence of processes is carried out by the structure labelled X during translation?
- A.
Combining with an amino acid and then binding to an anticodon
- B.
Binding to an anticodon and then combining with an amino acid
- C.
Binding to a codon and then combining with an amino acid
- D.
Combining with an amino acid and then binding to a codon
Correct Answer
D. Combining with an amino acid and then binding to a codonExplanation
The structure labelled X in translation first combines with an amino acid, forming an aminoacyl-tRNA complex. This complex then binds to a codon on the mRNA molecule through its anticodon, allowing for the correct amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide chain.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The diagram below shows a biochemical pathway in a yeast cell. Which of the following correctly identifies a compound in te diagram?
- A.
I is fat.
- B.
II is pyruvate
- C.
III is lactate.
- D.
IV is carbon dioxide.
Correct Answer
B. II is pyruvateExplanation
The diagram represents a biochemical pathway in a yeast cell. Compound II in the diagram is correctly identified as pyruvate. This is because pyruvate is a key intermediate molecule in the process of glycolysis, which is shown in the diagram. Pyruvate is produced from glucose and serves as a precursor for various metabolic pathways, including fermentation or conversion to acetyl-CoA for entry into the citric acid cycle. Therefore, based on the pathway and the role of compound II, it can be concluded that II is pyruvate.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following factors influence(s) the rate of oxygen production in photosynthesis? I. Temperature II. Wavelength of light III. Number of mitochondria
- A.
I only
- B.
I and II only
- C.
II and III only
- D.
I, II and III
Correct Answer
B. I and II onlyExplanation
The rate of oxygen production in photosynthesis is influenced by temperature and the wavelength of light. Temperature affects the activity of enzymes involved in the photosynthetic process, and different wavelengths of light are absorbed by different pigments in the chloroplasts, which affects the rate of photosynthesis. The number of mitochondria, on the other hand, is not directly related to the rate of oxygen production in photosynthesis.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In some people, hemoglobin always contains the amino acid valine in place of a glutamic acid at one position in the protein. What is the cause of this?
- A.
An error in transcription of the hemoglobin gene
- B.
An error in translation of the mRNA
- C.
Lack of glutamic acid in the diet
- D.
A base substitution in the hemoglobin gene
Correct Answer
D. A base substitution in the hemoglobin geneExplanation
A base substitution in the hemoglobin gene is the cause of the amino acid valine replacing glutamic acid in some people's hemoglobin. This means that during the replication of the DNA, there was a change in one of the bases, resulting in a different amino acid being coded for. This change in the genetic code leads to the incorporation of valine instead of glutamic acid in the hemoglobin protein.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is a suspected heterozygous individual crossed with in a test cross?
- A.
Homozygous dominant
- B.
Homozygous recessive
- C.
Heterozygous dominant
- D.
Heterozygous recessive
Correct Answer
B. Homozygous recessiveExplanation
In a test cross, a suspected heterozygous individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual. This is done to determine the genotype of the suspected heterozygote. If the offspring show the dominant phenotype, it means that the suspected individual is heterozygous. However, if the offspring show the recessive phenotype, it indicates that the suspected individual is homozygous dominant. By crossing with a homozygous recessive individual, the recessive allele can be revealed if it is present in the suspected heterozygote.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following genotypes is possible in the offspring of a homozygous male with blood group A and a female with blood group?
- A.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- B.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- C.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- D.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
Correct Answer
B. -
- 14.
What type of inheritance is shown in this pedigree chart?
- A.
X-linked dominant
- B.
Y-linked dominant
- C.
X-linked recessive
- D.
Y-linked recessive
Correct Answer
C. X-linked recessiveExplanation
This pedigree chart shows X-linked recessive inheritance. This means that the trait being observed is located on the X chromosome, and it is recessive, meaning that individuals need to inherit two copies of the trait to express it. Since the trait is recessive, it is more commonly observed in males who only have one X chromosome. Females, on the other hand, need to inherit the trait from both parents to express it. This pattern of inheritance is consistent with X-linked recessive inheritance.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is a community?
- A.
. A group of organisms living and interacting in the same trophic level
- B.
A group of populations living and interacting in a food chain
- C.
A group of organisms of the same species living and interacting in an ecosystem
- D.
A group of populations living and interacting in an area
Correct Answer
D. A group of populations living and interacting in an areaExplanation
A community refers to a group of populations of different species that live in the same area and interact with each other. This interaction can involve various types of relationships such as competition, predation, and mutualism. The populations within a community are interconnected and depend on each other for resources and survival.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What are the units of a pyramid of energy?
- A.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- B.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- C.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- D.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
Correct Answer
A.Explanation
A pyramid of energy represents the flow of energy through different trophic levels in an ecosystem. It shows the amount of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next. The units of a pyramid of energy are typically represented in kilocalories (kcal) or joules (J) per unit area per unit time, such as kcal/m²/year or J/m²/year. This unit indicates the amount of energy that is available to the organisms at each trophic level and demonstrates the decrease in energy as it moves up the food chain.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Population size is influenced by certain factors.If I = immigration, E = emigration, N = natality, M = mortality and (N + M) = (I + E) = 0, which phase is this population in?
- A.
Exponential phase
- B.
Transitional phase
- C.
Plateau phase
- D.
Growth phase
Correct Answer
C. Plateau phaseExplanation
If (N + M) = (I + E) = 0, it means that the number of individuals being born (natality) and dying (mortality) is equal to the number of individuals immigrating and emigrating. This indicates that the population is not experiencing any net growth or decline. In the plateau phase, the population size remains relatively stable over time. Therefore, the correct answer is Plateau phase.Rate this question:
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- 18.
An animal has radial symmetry, a sac-like body with only one opening and tentacles with stinging structures. To which phylum does this animal belong?
- A.
Annelida
- B.
Cnidaria
- C.
Mollusca
- D.
Porifera
Correct Answer
B. CnidariaExplanation
The characteristics described in the question, such as radial symmetry, a sac-like body with only one opening, and tentacles with stinging structures, are all typical of animals belonging to the phylum Cnidaria. Cnidarians include jellyfish, sea anemones, and corals, which exhibit these specific traits.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following are used as evidence for evolution? I. Homologous structures II. Selective breeding of domesticated animals III. Overproduction of offspring
- A.
I and II only
- B.
I and III only
- C.
II and III only
- D.
I, II and III
Correct Answer
A. I and II onlyExplanation
Homologous structures and selective breeding of domesticated animals are both used as evidence for evolution. Homologous structures are similar structures found in different species that suggest a common ancestor. This similarity indicates that these species have evolved from a common ancestor and have adapted to different environments over time. Selective breeding of domesticated animals also provides evidence for evolution as it demonstrates how humans have artificially selected certain traits and bred animals with those traits, leading to the development of new breeds. The overproduction of offspring, on the other hand, is not directly used as evidence for evolution but is a consequence of natural selection.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is correct for lipase? Substrate Source pH optimum
- A.
Triglycerides pancreas pH = 8
- B.
Fatty acids small intestine pH = 7
- C.
Triglycerides small intestine pH = 9
- D.
Fatty acids pancreas pH = 9
Correct Answer
A. Triglycerides pancreas pH = 8Explanation
Lipase is an enzyme that breaks down lipids, specifically triglycerides, into fatty acids and glycerol. It is primarily produced in the pancreas and is active in the small intestine. The pH optimum for lipase activity is 8, which means it functions most efficiently at a slightly alkaline pH. Therefore, the correct answer is "triglycerides, pancreas, pH = 8."Rate this question:
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- 21.
What prevents antibiotics from being effective against viruses?
- A.
Viruses have a high rate of mutation.
- B.
Viruses have no RNA
- C.
Viruses have no metabolism.
- D.
Viruses have a protein shell that protects them.
Correct Answer
C. Viruses have no metabolism.Explanation
Antibiotics work by targeting the metabolic processes of bacteria, which are different from those of viruses. Viruses do not have their own metabolism and rely on host cells to replicate. Therefore, antibiotics, which are designed to inhibit bacterial metabolic pathways, are not effective against viruses.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The diagram below shows the human heart. What structures are indicated by the labels X, Y and Z? X Y Z
- A.
Left atrium aorta semi-lunar valve
- B.
Left atrium aorta atrio-ventricular valve
- C.
Right atrium pulmonary artery atrio-ventricular valve
- D.
Right atrium pulmonary artery semi-lunar valve
Correct Answer
D. Right atrium pulmonary artery semi-lunar valveExplanation
The labels X, Y, and Z indicate the following structures: right atrium, pulmonary artery, and semi-lunar valve, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which muscles contract to cause air to pass into the lungs through the trachea?
- A.
Internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
- B.
Internal intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles
- C.
External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
- D.
External intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles
Correct Answer
C. External intercostal muscles and diaphragmExplanation
The external intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract to cause air to pass into the lungs through the trachea. The external intercostal muscles are located between the ribs and play a role in elevating the ribcage during inhalation, while the diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs that contracts and flattens during inhalation, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing air to enter the lungs. Together, these muscles work to expand the chest cavity and create a pressure gradient that draws air into the lungs.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The diagram below shows the changes in membrane potential during an action potential. What occurs at the stages labelled 1 and 2? 1 2
- A.
Na+ ions diffuse in; K+ ions diffuse out; inside becomes more positive i nside becomes more negative
- B.
K+ ions diffuse out; Na+ ions diffuse in; inside becomes more negative inside becomes more positive
- C.
Na+ ions diffuse out; K+ ions diffuse out; inside becomes more negative inside becomes more positive
- D.
Na+ ions diffuse in; K+ ions diffuse in; inside becomes more positive inside becomes more negative
Correct Answer
A. Na+ ions diffuse in; K+ ions diffuse out; inside becomes more positive i nside becomes more negativeExplanation
At stage 1, Na+ ions diffuse into the cell, causing the inside of the cell to become more positive. This is known as depolarization. At stage 2, K+ ions diffuse out of the cell, causing the inside of the cell to become more negative. This is known as repolarization.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What are the roles of testosterone in males?
- A.
. Stimulation of FSH production and growth in puberty
- B.
Pre-natal development of genitalia and development of secondary sexual characteristics
- C.
Development of genitalia and pre-natal secondary sexual characteristics
- D.
Stimulation of FSH production and pre-natal development of secondary sexual characteristics
Correct Answer
B. Pre-natal development of genitalia and development of secondary sexual characteristicsExplanation
Testosterone plays a crucial role in the pre-natal development of male genitalia, such as the penis and testes. It is responsible for the differentiation and maturation of these reproductive organs. Additionally, testosterone is involved in the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males, including the deepening of the voice, growth of facial and body hair, and increased muscle mass. These characteristics typically emerge during puberty, when testosterone levels increase significantly.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the reason for Okazaki fragments being formed during DNA replication?
- A.
To enable replication of the 3′ → 5′ (lagging) strand
- B.
To form the template for the RNA primers
- C.
To initiate replication on th. e 5′ → 3′ (leading) strand
- D.
To help the DNA helicase unwinding the DNA helix
Correct Answer
A. To enable replication of the 3′ → 5′ (lagging) strandExplanation
Okazaki fragments are short, discontinuous DNA fragments that are formed on the lagging strand during DNA replication. This is because DNA replication occurs in a 5′ → 3′ direction, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. Therefore, the lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments, with each Okazaki fragment serving as a template for the synthesis of a new DNA strand. This allows for the efficient replication of the lagging strand and ensures that both strands of the DNA molecule are accurately replicated.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which is correct for the non-competitive inhibition of enzymes? Inhibitor resembles substrate Inhibitor binds toactive site
- A.
yes yes
- B.
yes no
- C.
no yes
- D.
no no
Correct Answer
D. no noExplanation
Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor molecule binds to a site on the enzyme other than the active site. This means that the inhibitor does not resemble the substrate, as it does not bind to the active site. In this case, both statements in the answer are "no", indicating that the correct answer is that the inhibitor does not resemble the substrate and does not bind to the active site.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is removed during the formation of mature RNA in eukaryotes?
- A.
Exons
- B.
Introns
- C.
Codons
- D.
Nucleosomes
Correct Answer
B. IntronsExplanation
During the formation of mature RNA in eukaryotes, introns are removed. Introns are non-coding sequences of DNA that are transcribed into RNA but are not involved in the synthesis of proteins. They are removed through a process called RNA splicing, where the introns are cut out and the remaining exons are joined together to form the mature RNA molecule. This process ensures that only the necessary coding sequences are present in the final RNA product, allowing for the synthesis of functional proteins.Rate this question:
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- 29.
During glycolysis a hexose sugar is broken down to two pyruvate molecules. What is the correct sequence of stages?
- A.
Phosphorylation → oxidation → lysis
- B.
Oxidation → phosphorylation → lysis
- C.
Phosphorylation → lysis → oxidation
- D.
Lysis → oxidation → phosphorylation
Correct Answer
C. Phosphorylation → lysis → oxidation -
- 30.
Where are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions taking place in the diagram below? Light-dependent Light-independent I
- A.
I IV
- B.
II III
- C.
III II
- D.
IV I
Correct Answer
A. I IV -
- 31.
What are differences between monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous plants? Monocotyledonous Dicotyledonous
- A.
Parallel venation; net-like venation; floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5 floral organs in multiples of 3
- B.
. net-like venation; parallel venation; floral organs in multiples of 3 floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5
- C.
Net-like venation; parallel venation; floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5 floral organs in multiples of 3
- D.
Parallel venation; net-like venation; floral organs in multiples of 3 floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5
Correct Answer
D. Parallel venation; net-like venation; floral organs in multiples of 3 floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5Explanation
Monocotyledonous plants have parallel venation in their leaves, while dicotyledonous plants have net-like venation. Monocots have floral organs in multiples of 3, while dicots have floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5. Therefore, the correct answer is parallel venation; net-like venation; floral organs in multiples of 3; floral organs in multiples of 4 or 5.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The diagram below shows part of the vascular system of a dicotyledonous plant. Which process is indicated by the arrows?
- A.
Passive translocation in the phloem of sucrose from the sink to the source
- B.
Active translocation in the phloem of sucrose from the source to the sink
- C.
Passive translocation in the xylem of sucrose from the sink to the source
- D.
Active translocation in the xylem of sucrose from the source to the sink
Correct Answer
B. Active translocation in the phloem of sucrose from the source to the sinkExplanation
The arrows in the diagram indicate the process of active translocation in the phloem of sucrose from the source to the sink. This means that the plant is actively moving sucrose from where it is produced (source) to where it is needed or stored (sink). This process requires energy and is facilitated by specialized cells called sieve tube elements and companion cells. The phloem is responsible for the transportation of organic nutrients, such as sugars, throughout the plant.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What controls the flowering process in long-day plants?
- A.
Pfr is converted by red light to Pr which acts as a promoter of flowering.
- B.
Pr is converted by red light to Pfr which acts as an inhibitor of flowering.
- C.
Pr is converted by red light to Pfr which acts as a promoter of flowering.
- D.
Pfr is converted by red light to Pr which acts as an inhibitor of flowering.
Correct Answer
C. Pr is converted by red light to Pfr which acts as a promoter of flowering. -
- 34.
A test cross resulted in these recombinants: Which of the following was the parental test cross?
- A.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- B.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- C.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
- D.
![IB Biology Practice Test Quiz - Quiz]()
Correct Answer
A. -
- 35.
What occurs during the blood clotting process?
- A.
. Prothrombin is converted into thrombin which acts on fibrinogen.
- B.
Prothrombin is converted into thrombin which acts on fibrin.
- C.
Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin which acts on prothrombin.
- D.
Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin which acts on thrombin.
Correct Answer
A. . Prothrombin is converted into thrombin which acts on fibrinogen.Explanation
During the blood clotting process, prothrombin is converted into thrombin. Thrombin then acts on fibrinogen, converting it into fibrin. Fibrin forms a mesh-like network that traps platelets and red blood cells, forming a blood clot to stop bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What is indicated by the letters X, Y and Z? X Y Z
- A.
sarcomere myosin filaments actin filaments
- B.
sarcomere actin filaments myosin filaments
- C.
dark band myosin filaments actin filaments
- D.
dark band actin filaments myosin filaments
Correct Answer
D. dark band actin filaments myosin filamentsExplanation
The letters X, Y, and Z indicate the components of a sarcomere, which is the basic unit of a muscle fiber. X represents the dark band, which is also known as the A band and is composed of overlapping myosin filaments. Y represents actin filaments, which are thin filaments that extend into the A band. Z represents the light band, which is also known as the I band and contains only actin filaments. Therefore, the correct answer is the dark band, actin filaments, and myosin filaments.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The diagram below shows some stages in the production of monoclonal antibodies. What are stages X, Y and Z? X Y Z
- A.
Injection of antibody isolation of B-cell fusion between B-cell and tumour cell resulting in plasma cell
- B.
. injection of antibody isolation of T-cell fusion between T-cell and tumour cell resulting in plasma cell
- C.
Injection of antigen isolation of T-cell fusion between T-cell and tumour cell resulting in hybridoma cell
- D.
Injection of antigen isolation of B-cell fusion between B-cell and tumour cell resulting in hybridoma cell
Correct Answer
D. Injection of antigen isolation of B-cell fusion between B-cell and tumour cell resulting in hybridoma cell -
- 38.
In the diagram of the nephron below, what structures are indicated by the letters Y and Z? Y Z
- A.
Glomerulus collecting duct
- B.
Bowman’s capsule collecting duct
- C.
Bowman’s capsule distal convoluted tubule
- D.
glomerulus distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer
C. Bowman’s capsule distal convoluted tubuleExplanation
In the given diagram, the structure indicated by the letter Y is Bowman's capsule. This is supported by the fact that Bowman's capsule is listed as an option directly below the letter Y. Similarly, the structure indicated by the letter Z is the distal convoluted tubule, as it is the only option listed directly below the letter Z.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are the roles of the following structures in the production of semen? Epididymis Seminal vesicle Prostate gland
- A.
Production of a fluid production of fructose maturation of sperm containing alkaline minerals
- B.
Maturation of sperm production of a fluid production of fructose containing citric acid
- C.
Maturation of sperm production of fructose production of a fluid containing alkaline minerals
- D.
Production of a fluid maturation of sperm production of fructose containing alkaline minerals
Correct Answer
C. Maturation of sperm production of fructose production of a fluid containing alkaline mineralsExplanation
The epididymis is responsible for the maturation of sperm. The seminal vesicle produces a fluid that contains fructose, which provides energy for the sperm. The prostate gland also produces a fluid that nourishes and protects the sperm. It contains citric acid, which is important for the overall composition of semen.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the role of HCG in early pregnancy?
- A.
It prevents the degeneration of the corpus luteum.
- B.
It initiates the development of the uterus lining.
- C.
It inhibits the production of estrogen.
- D.
It stimulates the degeneration of the corpus luteum.
Correct Answer
A. It prevents the degeneration of the corpus luteum.Explanation
HCG, or human chorionic gonadotropin, plays a crucial role in early pregnancy by preventing the degeneration of the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary structure that forms in the ovary after ovulation and produces progesterone, which is essential for maintaining the uterine lining and supporting a pregnancy. HCG acts as a signal to the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone, ensuring the survival of the pregnancy. Without HCG, the corpus luteum would degenerate, leading to a decrease in progesterone levels and the potential loss of the pregnancy.Rate this question:
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.png "Which describes these molecules correctly?
I II")
.png "What sequence of processes is carried out by the structure labelled X during translation?")
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