Geriatrics Final Quiz Part II

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Geriatrics Quizzes & Trivia

Ocular Diseases in the Elderly Part II


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Your pt presents to your office with hyphema in the left eye after being hit in the eye with a football.  During your exam of the retina which of the following this are you looking for in particular?

    • A.

      Commotio retinae

    • B.

      Macular edema

    • C.

      Chorodial rupture

    • D.

      CWS

    • E.

      Optociliary shunt

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Commotio retinae
    B. Macular edema
    C. Chorodial rupture
    Explanation
    During the examination of the retina, the healthcare provider is specifically looking for signs of commotio retinae, macular edema, and choroidal rupture. Commotio retinae refers to retinal whitening or opacification caused by blunt trauma, while macular edema is the accumulation of fluid in the macula, the central part of the retina. Choroidal rupture refers to a tear or break in the choroid, the layer of blood vessels beneath the retina. These conditions can occur as a result of trauma to the eye, such as being hit with a football. The healthcare provider will examine the retina to assess for any signs of these specific injuries.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Oral aminocaproic acid is a treatment option for which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Hyphema

    • B.

      Iritis

    • C.

      Asteroid hyalosis

    • D.

      Neurotrophic keratopathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyphema
    Explanation
    Aminocaproic acid prevents re-bleeding but should be avoided in pts with cardiac, hepatic, or renal disease

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  • 3. 

    Your patient has hyphema-related elevated IOP.  You would like to Rx something to control the IOP, which would be the safest option?

    • A.

      Prostaglandins

    • B.

      Pilocarpine

    • C.

      CAI

    • D.

      Beta Blocker

    Correct Answer
    D. Beta Blocker
    Explanation
    Avoid mitoics (PGs & Pilo)
    Avoid CAI for potential sickle cell

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Which of the following etiologies of iritis will have little to no flare.

    • A.

      Idiopathic

    • B.

      Phacolytic

    • C.

      Laser-induced

    • D.

      Lens particle

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Idiopathic
    C. Laser-induced
    Explanation
    Phacolytic & lens particle will have lots/large flare

    multi-focal yellow-white lesions in retina --> Candidiasis (fungus) & TB
    Serpiginous: atrophy & inflamm around ONH in 'snake pattern'

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Indicate ALL the statements that are true for Iris Melanomas

    • A.

      Inferior portion of iris

    • B.

      Superior portion of iris

    • C.

      Arises from iris stroma

    • D.

      Arises from iris pigmented epithelium

    • E.

      Causes pupil distortion

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Inferior portion of iris
    C. Arises from iris stroma
    E. Causes pupil distortion
    Explanation
    Iris melanoma can also cause heterochromia and unilateral elevation in IOP (due to unilateral PDS, which is usually bilateral)

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    If you diagnose your pt with an iris melanoma, it is imperative to seek immediate treatment since these lesions have a chance for metastasis

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Iris melanomas don't metastisize

    Tx: Surgery, plaque radiation therapy, Transpupillary thermal radiation

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Latanoprost usage is a risk factor/cause for iris cysts.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Other causes or iris cysts: surgery, iritis, latanoprost
    Location: back of iris
    SLE: best seen w/ retroillumination

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  • 8. 

    Indicate ALL the true statement about asteroid hyalosis.

    • A.

      Calcium soaps

    • B.

      Cholesterol

    • C.

      Unilateral mostly

    • D.

      Bilateral mostly

    • E.

      Reduced VA if get really dense

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Calcium soaps
    C. Unilateral mostly
    Explanation
    If asteroid hyalosis becomes really dense it will make it difficult to see inside the pts eye but it will not affect pt's VA

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  • 9. 

    Nongeographic atrophy is RPE hypopigmentation where you can see the underlying choroid vessels.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Nongeographic Atrophy: RPE hypopigmentation, CAN'T see underlying choroid vessels, NOT distinct
    Geographic Atrophy: regression of soft drusen, can see underlying choroid, distinct
    Drusenoid RPE Detachments: caused by coalesced soft drusen, NOT assoc w/ CNVM & usually resolves w/o tx

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  • 10. 

    MPOD (macular pigment optical density) and PHP (preferential hyperacuity perimetry) are 2 tests that help you to determine the effectiveness of hypertensive retinopathy treatment

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    MPOD + PHP for ARMD tx

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Which of the following can lead to hemmorahgic Pigmented Epithelium Detachments (PED)?

    • A.

      Serous PED

    • B.

      Fibrovascular PED

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrovascular PED
    Explanation
    Serous: fluid from choriocap goes into sub-retinal space
    Fibrovascular: secondary to CNVM (occult)

    --> both can cause tear in RPE

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  • 12. 

    HTN choroidopathy is usually found in Grade 3 & 4

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Garde 3/4 = acute

    Choriocap is very sensitive to HBP --> damage to RPE

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Elschnig's Spots & Siegrit's is found in which condition?

    • A.

      HTN choroidopathy

    • B.

      HTN retinopathy

    • C.

      BRVO/CRVO

    • D.

      Acute Ophthalmic Artery Obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. HTN choroidopathy
    Explanation
    Elschnig's: yellow circular lesion that later becomes pigmented due to RPE damage
    Siergrist's: linear pigmented areas that run along sclerotic choroidal vessles

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    In the early signs of HTN retinopathy, the arteries are straight.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Straightened in early stages and then become tortuous over time
    Some people are born with naturally tortuous vessels however

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    BRVO/CRVO is typically caused by plaques that obstruct the blood flow.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    2 main causes for CRVO:
    1) impingement of artery on vein (leads to endo cell damage)
    2) thickening of venous blood (BC or sickle cell)

    Plaques cause CRAO/BRAO

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    When differentiating btwn CRVO vs hemi-central CRVO, if the vessels bifurcate before the lamina cribosa it is:

    • A.

      Hemi-central CRVO

    • B.

      BRVO

    • C.

      CRVO

    • D.

      All of the above possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemi-central CRVO
    Explanation
    Vessel bifurcates before LC --> hemi-central CRVO
    Vessel bifurcates after LC --> CRVO

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  • 17. 

    To determine if a CRVO is ischemic or non-ischemic, you perform a FA.  At what level of capillary dropout will it be considered ischemic?

    • A.

      > 5 dd

    • B.

      > 10 dd

    • C.

      > 20 dd

    • D.

      > 7 dd

    Correct Answer
    B. > 10 dd
    Explanation
    A fluorescein angiography (FA) is used to determine if a central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is ischemic or non-ischemic. Ischemic CRVO is associated with more severe vision loss and has a higher risk of developing complications. The level of capillary dropout observed on the FA is used to classify the CRVO as ischemic or non-ischemic. In this case, a capillary dropout of greater than 10 disc diameters (dd) is considered ischemic.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Choose the FALSE statement.

    • A.

      Acute ophthalmic artery obstruction will have little to no cherry red spot

    • B.

      CRAO and AOAO both cause opacified retinas, but AOAO is usually worse

    • C.

      CRAO generally causes larger VA reduction that AOAO

    • D.

      CRAO will cause an immediate APD

    Correct Answer
    C. CRAO generally causes larger VA reduction that AOAO
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it states that CRAO generally causes a larger reduction in visual acuity (VA) compared to AOAO (Acute Ophthalmic Artery Obstruction). This means that in cases of CRAO, the loss of vision is typically more severe than in cases of AOAO.

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  • 19. 

    The most common etiology of epiretinal membrane is retinal vascular diseases.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Most common cause is idiopathic

    Signs: glistening, pseudoholes, wrinkling, hemes

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Impendiing macular holes typically resolve 50% of the time, otherwise treat with a vitrectomy and gas bubble

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Macular holes affect women > men
    Due to tractional forces of the vitreous
    Early stage signs = yellow spots w/ loss of foveal depression

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    Choose the TRUE statement abut Vitrealmacular Traction Syndrome.

    • A.

      Aphakia/pseudoaphakia can be protective

    • B.

      Most require vitrecomy w/ ILP peel

    • C.

      Present in 25% of pts > 70 yo

    • D.

      None of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    A. Aphakia/pseudoaphakia can be protective
    Explanation
    - Cataract sx causes vitreous to pull away from retina
    - Most resolve on own w/ PVD but if VA 20/60 or worse do vitrectomy w/ ILP peel
    - Present in 50% of pts over 70 yo
    - can lead to CME, ERM, macular hole
    - Def: partial attachment of posterior hyaloid membrane

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Choose ALL of the correct statement about Idiopathic Juxtafoveal Telangiectasia.

    • A.

      Group 3 associated with CNS vasculitis

    • B.

      Signs associated with area nasal to fovea

    • C.

      Signs associated with area temporal to fovea

    • D.

      FA hypofluroescece

    • E.

      Yellow intra-retinal crystals

    • F.

      Associated with HTN

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Group 3 associated with CNS vasculitis
    C. Signs associated with area temporal to fovea
    E. Yellow intra-retinal crystals
    Explanation
    Def: incompetent retinal caps in foveal region or one or both eyes (thickening of retinal caps)
    - Group 1 = unilateral | Group 2 = bilateral | Group 3 = bilateral + CNS vasculitis
    - Temporal to fovea: localized retinal thickening, RPE hyperplasia, FA leaking

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Irvine-Gass Syndome refers to what sign of Sickle Cell Ret?

    • A.

      Salmon patch hemes

    • B.

      Iridecent spot

    • C.

      Sunburst spot

    • D.

      Sea fan neo

    • E.

      Cystoid macular edema post cataract sx

    Correct Answer
    E. Cystoid macular edema post cataract sx
    Explanation
    iridescent spot: smalls schisis that contains hemosidern macrophages
    salmon patch: heme secondary to obstruction of BV that ruptures
    sunburst: collection of RPE cells from chorodial occlusions
    associated with: DR, vein occlusion, iritis

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT a s/s of Ocular Ischemic Syndrome?

    • A.

      Dilated and tortuous vessels

    • B.

      Neovascularization

    • C.

      Anterior uveitis

    • D.

      Lenticular stress leading to true exfoliation

    • E.

      Ocular angina (dull ache)

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilated and tortuous vessels
    Explanation
    in OIS vessels are dilated but NOT tortuous

    cause: carotid obstruction
    - men > women
    - no flow obstruction in carotid until 70%
    - no flow obstruction in CRA until 90% (50% decrase in perfusion of CRA)

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    The most common cause of Macroanerysms is DM

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    most common cause of macroanys is HTN

    Def: dilation of major arterial branch (can rupture)
    - indicates high mortality rate --> refer to cardiologist

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Lacqure cracks, tilted disc, Fuch's spots, posterior staphaloma are all signs of what disease?

    • A.

      Degenerative myopia

    • B.

      Birdshot chorioretinitis

    • C.

      Amiodarone neuropathy

    • D.

      Acute ophthalmic artery obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Degenerative myopia
    Explanation
    > -6.00 D
    - Dec VA from atrophy @ macula
    - myopic crescent from RPE atrophy (temporal or 360)
    - complete PVD common
    - post. staphaloma: outward bulging of ONH, ONH sinks, ON looks deeper than rest of retina

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which of the following is NOT a  potential cause of chorodial/chorioretinal folds?

    • A.

      High hyperopia

    • B.

      Tumors

    • C.

      Buckle surgery

    • D.

      Idiopathic

    • E.

      Posterior scleritis

    • F.

      All of the above are potential causes

    • G.

      3 of the above are potential causes

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the above are potential causes
    Explanation
    IMPT to RO ocular tumor when you see these folds

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis (PORN) is due to:

    • A.

      Varicella Zoster Virus

    • B.

      Herpes Virus

    • C.

      Moraxella Virus

    • D.

      Ron Jeremy

    Correct Answer
    A. Varicella Zoster Virus
    Explanation
    Moraxella --> angular bleph

    - Found in immunocompromised (think porn & AIDS...insensitive, maybe, but anything helps at this point!!!)
    - Devastating, necrotizing retinitis (reduce VA quickly)

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Amiodarone Neuropathy leads to sudden vision loss

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    gradual vision loss
    - bilateral ONH edema

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    A small disc is a risk factor for AION

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Non-AION RFs: small disc, HTN, DM, chl, profound blood loss, Viagra (if small disc)

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Indicate ALL of the signs of Non-AION

    • A.

      APD

    • B.

      Bilateral

    • C.

      Occurs in AM usually

    • D.

      Altitudinal defect (inferior most common)

    • E.

      Disc edema w/ hemes

    • F.

      Many systemic symptoms

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. APD
    D. Altitudinal defect (inferior most common)
    E. Disc edema w/ hemes
    Explanation
    Non-AION s/s: APD, unilateral always, occurs in AM, disc edema w/ hemes, sectoral edema --> altitudinal VFD, sectoral pallor, NO systemic sx

    - No tx other than control underlying issues
    - PION has no disc edema, all the symptoms of non-aion but NO SIGNS

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Non-AION & AION involve occlusion of the posterior ciliary arteries.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    AION has worse VA & vision rarely improves

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    What is the appropriate tx for AION?

    • A.

      Topical steroids

    • B.

      Oral steroids

    • C.

      IV steroids

    • D.

      Tx underlying condition

    Correct Answer
    C. IV steroids
    Explanation
    aion = ocular emergency
    - systemic sins
    - due to GCA
    - ON is infarcted & chalk white
    - cupping following resoution

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Peripheral Senile Pigmentary Degeneration occurs in which quadrant of the retina?

    • A.

      Nasal

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Superior

    • D.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal
    Explanation
    - Due to aging
    - Hyper/hypo pigmentation
    - Seen with drusen
    - Doesn't cause much of a problem visually

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Retinoschisis typically occurs in which area of the retina?

    • A.

      Superior

    • B.

      Sup/nasal

    • C.

      Inf/nasal

    • D.

      Sup/temporal

    • E.

      Inf/temporal

    Correct Answer
    E. Inf/temporal
    Explanation
    - Bilateral
    - absolute VFD
    - hole in outer layer is worse than inner layer bc inner layer already detached

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  • 36. 

    A basement membrane disorder of multiple organs in the body describes which condition?

    • A.

      Pseudoexfoliation Syndrome

    • B.

      Pigment Dispersion Syndrome

    • C.

      Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis

    • D.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Pseudoexfoliation Syndrome
    Explanation
    - Demo: older scandanavian women
    - True Ex Syn = glassblowers, lens capsule chips off
    - Exfol mat'l on anterior lens capsule, pupillary ruff
    - Transilumination defects around pupillary ruff
    - Narrow AC w/ IRREGULAR pigmentation in TM
    - Foward movement of lens due to weak zonules
    - Mitotic pupil
    - GLC cupping (50% get GLC in 10 years)
    - Bull's Eye pattern (3 ring)

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  • 37. 

    What percentage of the population has ONH drusen?

    • A.

      1%

    • B.

      2%

    • C.

      4%

    • D.

      5%

    Correct Answer
    A. 1%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1%. This suggests that only 1% of the population has ONH drusen. Drusen are tiny yellow or white deposits that accumulate under the retina, and ONH (optic nerve head) drusen refers to the presence of these deposits at the optic nerve head. This condition is relatively rare, affecting a small percentage of the population.

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  • 38. 

    ONH drusen cause what type of VF defect?

    • A.

      Inferior

    • B.

      Superior

    • C.

      Nasal step

    • D.

      Temporal wedge

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior
    Explanation
    May look like GLC, but monitor and check for progression (GLC)
    - VA good
    - Can cause Pseudopapilledema (elevated but not edematous) --> DDX w/ OCT
    - Anomalous branching of BV
    - Hemes

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    ONH drusen is best detected with a ______.

    Correct Answer
    B scan
    Explanation
    Turn down sensitivity --> calcified drusen show up
    Use Red-Free filter

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    A CN III palsy will result in an eye turn that is down & in

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    - Complete CN III palsy: down + out + complete ptosis
    - Incomplete CN III palsy: developing aneurysm/mass/compression lesion
    - Aberrant regeneration leads to pseudo-Von Graffe --> usually due to mass, trauma, anerysm, NOT an ischemic event

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  • 41. 

    Pts with Charles Bonnet Syndrome have good intellect, good cognitive ability, no psychiatric disorders, and good vision

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Visual impairment but have vivid/clear/colorful hallucinations

    Gnomes are creepy

    Rate this question:

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 05, 2012
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