Exam 2

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  • 1. 
    Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
    • A. 

      Are used for cell motility

    • B. 

      Facilitate chemotaxis

    • C. 

      Facilitate phototaxis

    • D. 

      Are long whip-like structures

    • E. 

      Contain microtubules


  • 2. 
    The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Lysosomes

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum


  • 3. 
    Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Lysosomes

    • C. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • D. 

      Chloroplasts

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum


  • 4. 
    The size of a eukaryotic cell ribsome is
    • A. 

      30S

    • B. 

      40S

    • C. 

      50S

    • D. 

      70S

    • E. 

      80S


  • 5. 
    When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called
    • A. 

      Pseudohyphae

    • B. 

      Septa

    • C. 

      Molds

    • D. 

      Dimorphic

    • E. 

      Mycelium


  • 6. 
    Fungi that grows as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
    • A. 

      Dimorphic

    • B. 

      Saprobes

    • C. 

      Pseudophyphae

    • D. 

      Spores

    • E. 

      Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota)


  • 7. 
    Which of the following spores are produced within a sac?
    • A. 

      Chlamydospores

    • B. 

      Sporangiospores

    • C. 

      Blastospores

    • D. 

      Arthrospores

    • E. 

      Zygospores


  • 8. 
    What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common?
    • A. 

      They are enclosed in a sac.

    • B. 

      They are types of condia.

    • C. 

      They are sexual spores.

    • D. 

      They are found only in molds.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.


  • 9. 
    All of the following are found in some or all protozoan except 
    • A. 

      Motility

    • B. 

      Ectoplasm and endoplasm

    • C. 

      Heterotrophic nutrition

    • D. 

      Formation of a cyst stage

    • E. 

      Cell wall


  • 10. 
    The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the
    • A. 

      Trophozoite

    • B. 

      Cyst

    • C. 

      Sporozoite

    • D. 

      Oocyst

    • E. 

      Food vacoule


  • 11. 
    Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
    • A. 

      In kingdom Protista

    • B. 

      Parasitic worms

    • C. 

      Eggs and sperm for reproduction

    • D. 

      Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles

    • E. 

      Have various organ systems


  • 12. 
    In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce ________ gametes through ________.
    • A. 

      Diploid, mitosis

    • B. 

      Diploid, meiosis

    • C. 

      Haploid, mitosis

    • D. 

      Haploid, meiosis

    • E. 

      Triploid, mitosis


  • 13. 
    Which of the following are present in viruses
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Cytoskeleton

    • C. 

      Pigments

    • D. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 14. 
    The core of every virus particle always contains
    • A. 

      DNA

    • B. 

      Capsomers

    • C. 

      Enzymes

    • D. 

      DNA and RNA

    • E. 

      Either DNA and RNA


  • 15. 
    Classification of viruses into families invloves determing all the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Type of nucleic acid

    • B. 

      Type of capsid

    • C. 

      Presense of an envelope

    • D. 

      Biochemical reactions

    • E. 

      Nucleic acid stran number


  • 16. 
    Which of the following represents a virus fasmily name
    • A. 

      Herpes simplex virus

    • B. 

      Herpesvirdae

    • C. 

      Picornavirus

    • D. 

      Enterovirus

    • E. 

      Hapatitis B virus


  • 17. 
    Virus capsids are made from subunits called
    • A. 

      Envelopes

    • B. 

      Spikes

    • C. 

      Capsomers

    • D. 

      Prophages

    • E. 

      Peplomers


  • 18. 
    Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
    • A. 

      Spike

    • B. 

      Capsomere

    • C. 

      Envelope

    • D. 

      Capsid

    • E. 

      Core


  • 19. 
    All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
    • A. 

      Are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane

    • B. 

      Are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear envelope

    • C. 

      Contain special virus proteins

    • D. 

      Help the virus particle attach to host cells

    • E. 

      Are located between the capsid and the nucleic acid


  • 20. 
    Which of the following is not associated with every virus
    • A. 

      Envelope

    • B. 

      Capsomeres

    • C. 

      Capsid

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid

    • E. 

      Genome


  • 21. 
    These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors
    • A. 

      Sheath

    • B. 

      Tail fibers

    • C. 

      Nucleic acid

    • D. 

      Capsid head

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 22. 
    Which is incorrect about prophages
    • A. 

      Present when the virus is in lysogeny

    • B. 

      Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome

    • C. 

      Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny

    • D. 

      Cause lysis of host cells

    • E. 

      Occur when temperture phages enter host cells


  • 23. 
    The correct sequence of events in viral mulitiplication is
    • A. 

      Penetration, replication, maturation, absorbtion, assembly, release

    • B. 

      Replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release

    • C. 

      Absorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release

    • D. 

      Assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, absorbtion

    • E. 

      Absorbtion, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration


  • 24. 
    In general, most DNA viruses mulitply in the host cell's _______, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cells ___________.
    • A. 

      Nucleas, cytoplam

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm, cell membrane

    • C. 

      Cell membrane, cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Cytopsm, nucleus

    • E. 

      Nucleus, endoplsmic reticulu


  • 25. 
    The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called
    • A. 

      Lysogeny

    • B. 

      Budding

    • C. 

      Plaques

    • D. 

      Cytoplathic effects

    • E. 

      Pocks


  • 26. 
    Visible-clear, well defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
    • A. 

      Lysogeny

    • B. 

      Budding

    • C. 

      Plaques

    • D. 

      Ecytopathic effects

    • E. 

      Pocks


  • 27. 
    Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
    • A. 

      Latent

    • B. 

      Oncogenic

    • C. 

      Prions

    • D. 

      Viroids

    • E. 

      Delta agents


  • 28. 
    Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect
    • A. 

      Inclusions in the nucleus

    • B. 

      Multinucleated giant cells

    • C. 

      Inclusions in the cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Cells round up

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 29. 
    Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
    • A. 

      Does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication

    • B. 

      Involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid

    • C. 

      Occurs during penetration in the multipication cycle

    • D. 

      Occurs before replication

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 30. 
    Infectios protien particles are called
    • A. 

      Viroids

    • B. 

      Phages

    • C. 

      Prions

    • D. 

      Oncogenic virusees

    • E. 

      Spikes


  • 31. 
    Infectios naked strands of RNA are called
    • A. 

      Viroids

    • B. 

      Phages

    • C. 

      Prions

    • D. 

      Oncogenic viruses

    • E. 

      Spikes


  • 32. 
    Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered
    • A. 

      Simple viruses

    • B. 

      Complex viruses

    • C. 

      Naked viruses

    • D. 

      Viroids

    • E. 

      Incomplete viruses


  • 33. 
    Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism
    • A. 

      Element

    • B. 

      Macronutrient

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Growth factor

    • E. 

      Trace element


  • 34. 
    An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
    • A. 

      Element

    • B. 

      Macronutrient

    • C. 

      Water

    • D. 

      Growth factor

    • E. 

      Trace element


  • 35. 
    An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosmes is
    • A. 

      Iron

    • B. 

      Zinc

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Magnesium

    • E. 

      Potassium


  • 36. 
    The term phototroph refers to an organism that
    • A. 

      Uses CO2 for its carbon source

    • B. 

      Must obtain organic compunds for its carbon needs

    • C. 

      Gets energy from sunlight

    • D. 

      Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

    • E. 

      Does not need a carbon source


  • 37. 
    The term autotroph refers to an organism
    • A. 

      Uses CO2 for its carbon source

    • B. 

      Must obtain organic compunds for its carbon needs

    • C. 

      Gets energy from sunlight

    • D. 

      Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

    • E. 

      Does not need a carbon source


  • 38. 
    Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
    • A. 

      Saprobes

    • B. 

      Parasites

    • C. 

      Autotrophs

    • D. 

      Lithoautotrophs

    • E. 

      Phototrophs


  • 39. 
    The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
    • A. 

      Facilitated diffusion

    • B. 

      Diffusion

    • C. 

      Active transport

    • D. 

      Osmosis

    • E. 

      Endocytosis


  • 40. 
    Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental;
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Protazoa

    • C. 

      Fungi

    • D. 

      Algae

    • E. 

      Cyanobacteria


  • 41. 
    Cultures of  a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37 degrees incubator and on the shelf of a 50 degree incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 degrees and 50 degress. slight growth out on the benchtop and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this speicies
    • A. 

      Halophile

    • B. 

      Mesophile

    • C. 

      Anaerobe

    • D. 

      Psychorophile

    • E. 

      Capnophile


  • 42. 
    Cultuers of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf and in an anaerobic jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cutures in the anaerobic jar, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This is a/an
    • A. 

      Aerobe

    • B. 

      Anaerobe

    • C. 

      Facultative anaerboe

    • D. 

      Microaerophile

    • E. 

      Capnophile


  • 43. 
    An organism with a terperature growth range of 45 - 60 degrees C would be called a/an
    • A. 

      Extremophile

    • B. 

      Thermaphile

    • C. 

      Psychrophile

    • D. 

      Facultative psychrophile

    • E. 

      Thermoduric


  • 44. 
    A microorganism that does not have catalse or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      High salt

    • D. 

      Temperatures above 37 degrees C

    • E. 

      High acidity


  • 45. 
    A microaerophile
    • A. 

      Grows best in an anaerobic jar

    • B. 

      Grows with or without oxygen

    • C. 

      Needs normal atomsopheric levels of oxygen

    • D. 

      Requires a small amount of oxygen but wont grow at nromal atmospheric levels

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct


  • 46. 
    The E. coli that normally line in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a _________relationship
    • A. 

      Parasitic

    • B. 

      Saprobic

    • C. 

      Commensal

    • D. 

      Mutualistic

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 47. 
    All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called
    • A. 

      Catabolism

    • B. 

      Redox reactions

    • C. 

      Phosphoylation

    • D. 

      Metabolism

    • E. 

      Cellular respiration


  • 48. 
    Enzymes are
    • A. 

      Broken down in reactions that require energy input

    • B. 

      Proteins that function as catalyst

    • C. 

      Electron carrier molecules

    • D. 

      Not needed for catabloic reactions

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 49. 
     An apoenzyme
    • A. 

      Part of a simple enzyme

    • B. 

      Also called a coenzyme

    • C. 

      Contains the active site

    • D. 

      Is often an inorganic metal iion

    • E. 

      Is an RNA molecule


  • 50. 
    A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more subastances called
    • A. 

      Substrates

    • B. 

      Apoenzyme

    • C. 

      Catalyst

    • D. 

      Cofactor

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 51. 
    Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed
    • A. 

      Exoenzymes

    • B. 

      Endoenzymes

    • C. 

      Constitutive enzymes

    • D. 

      Induced enzymes

    • E. 

      Conjugated enzymes


  • 52. 
    When enzyme action stops due to an accumulation of end product this control is called
    • A. 

      Negative feedback

    • B. 

      Competitive inhibition

    • C. 

      Enzyme induction

    • D. 

      Enzyme repression

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 53. 
    In the cell, evergy released by electrons is often used to phophoylate
    • A. 

      ATP

    • B. 

      ADP

    • C. 

      Pyruvic acid

    • D. 

      Oxygen

    • E. 

      NAD


  • 54. 
    The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is
    • A. 

      Mitochondria

    • B. 

      Within the cell membrane

    • C. 

      Lysosomes

    • D. 

      Cytoplasm

    • E. 

      Outside the cell


  • 55. 
    All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it
    • A. 

      Occurs without oxygen

    • B. 

      Ends with formation of pyruvic acid

    • C. 

      Occurs during fermentation

    • D. 

      Degrades glucose to Co2 and H2O

    • E. 

      Involves reduction of NAD


  • 56. 
    The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins
    • A. 

      Glycolysis

    • B. 

      Electron transport system

    • C. 

      Krebs cycle

    • D. 

      Fermentation

    • E. 

      Oxidative phosphoylation


  • 57. 
    In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the
    • A. 

      Cell membrane

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Chlorplasts

    • D. 

      Ribosomes

    • E. 

      Cytoplasm


  • 58. 
    In which pathway is the most NADH generated
    • A. 

      Electron transport system

    • B. 

      Krebs cycle

    • C. 

      Glycolysis

    • D. 

      Alcholic fermentation

    • E. 

      Mixed acid fermentation


  • 59. 
    When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated
    • A. 

      2 ATP

    • B. 

      3 ATP

    • C. 

      24 ATP

    • D. 

      36 ATP

    • E. 

      38 ATP


  • 60. 
    Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ________ ATP.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      36

    • E. 

      38


  • 61. 
    As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump ________ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradientcalled the proton motive force.
    • A. 

      ATP

    • B. 

      Phosphate

    • C. 

      Hydrogen ions

    • D. 

      Oxygen

    • E. 

      NADH


  • 62. 
    Each FADH2 that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ________ ATP.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      36

    • E. 

      38


  • 63. 
    In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor except
    • A. 

      Nitrate

    • B. 

      Oxygen

    • C. 

      Sulfate

    • D. 

      Nitrite

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.


  • 64. 
    Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed
    • A. 

      Exoenzymes

    • B. 

      Endoenzymes

    • C. 

      Constitutive enzymes

    • D. 

      Induced enzymes

    • E. 

      Conjugated enzymes


  • 65. 
    In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place
    • A. 

      In the mitochondria

    • B. 

      In the endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      In the cell membrane

    • D. 

      In the nucleus

    • E. 

      In the cytoplasm


  • 66. 
    Fungal spores are in a dormat state or non-vegetative, but when conditions are favorable, these single prokaryotic cells begin to grow and divide.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 67. 
    Energy of activation can be decreased by what
    • A. 

      Substrate

    • B. 

      Enzyme

    • C. 

      Initial state

    • D. 

      Both A and B

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 68. 
    Which of the following is true about the viruses size range?
    • A. 

      The size range is considered microscopic being able to see easily at 100x

    • B. 

      They are ultramicrscopic with sizes being >0.2 microns (um)

    • C. 

      There is no such thing as a virus over 250 nm in length

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


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