EMT I Exam Practice - Medical Emergencies - Part I

50 Questions  I  By BBHAGAN
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  • 1. 
    CNS depression would lead to a problem with:
    • A. 

      perfusion

    • B. 

      Oxygenation

    • C. 

      Diffusion

    • D. 

      Ventilation


  • 2. 
    Pulmonary edema would lead to a problem with:
    • A. 

      Perfusion

    • B. 

      Oxygenation

    • C. 

      Diffusion

    • D. 

      Ventilation


  • 3. 
    While you are gathering a history of an asthma patient she tells you, "they had to intubate me last time this happened" this information is:
    • A. 

      An accurate indicator of severe pulmonary disease

    • B. 

      Not related to future ventilation needs

    • C. 

      Pertinent to theis event; you should intubate this patient immediately

    • D. 

      Important to the hospital staff but not important in the prehospital environment


  • 4. 
    The term "blue bloater" is used to describe which of the following conditions:
    • A. 

      Asthma

    • B. 

      Emphysema

    • C. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • D. 

      Pneumonia


  • 5. 
    Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:
    • A. 

      Increasing mucus production

    • B. 

      Preventing atelectasis

    • C. 

      Increasing surfactant production

    • D. 

      Dilating the bronchi


  • 6. 
    While treating a patient with COPD, she advises you not to adminsiter oxygen because she breathes on the basis of her "hypoxic drive". Her pulse oximety reading is 85%. You should:
    • A. 

      Administer oxygen via a simple mask at 4 to 6 L per minute

    • B. 

      Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula at 2 L per minute

    • C. 

      Adminsiter high-flow oxygen and be prepared to ventilate if neccessary

    • D. 

      Withhold oxygen therapy


  • 7. 
    Excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack may lead to:
    • A. 

      Hypertension

    • B. 

      Excessively increased preload

    • C. 

      Hypocapnia

    • D. 

      Pulsus paradoxus


  • 8. 
    Which adventitious lung sounds are most commonly associated with asthma?
    • A. 

      Rales (crackles)

    • B. 

      Rhonchi

    • C. 

      Stridor

    • D. 

      Wheezes


  • 9. 
    One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:
    • A. 

      Productive cough

    • B. 

      Fever

    • C. 

      Rhonchi

    • D. 

      Rales


  • 10. 
    PEEP is used to:
    • A. 

      Keep alveoli open

    • B. 

      Ventilate patients with pneumothorax

    • C. 

      Overcome upper airway obstruction

    • D. 

      Open constricted bronchi


  • 11. 
    Air entering the pleural space that is not related to trauma is known as:
    • A. 

      Tension pneumothorax

    • B. 

      Medical pneumothorax

    • C. 

      Simple pneumothorax

    • D. 

      Spontaneous pneumothorax


  • 12. 
    Blood supply to the brain is supplied by the:
    • A. 

      Facial arteries

    • B. 

      Subclavian atreries

    • C. 

      External carotid arteries

    • D. 

      Internal carotid arteries


  • 13. 
    Cerebral perfusion pressure is determined by:
    • A. 

      Mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure

    • B. 

      Diastolic blood pressure and intracranial pressure

    • C. 

      Intracranial pressure and cerebral blood flow

    • D. 

      Cerebral blood flow and systolic blood pressure


  • 14. 
    If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:
    • A. 

      Not be affected

    • B. 

      Moderately increase

    • C. 

      Decrease

    • D. 

      Not be affected


  • 15. 
    A suspected stroke patient is exhibiting decorticate posturing and sluggish pupil reaction time. Ventilation for this patient should be:
    • A. 

      Aimed at maintaining a PCO2 of 30mm Hg

    • B. 

      Withheld, allowing the carbon dioxide levels to return to normal

    • C. 

      Increased until the patient stops posturing

    • D. 

      Continued at a rate of more than 40 breaths per minute


  • 16. 
    Cushings triad consists of:
    • A. 

      Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate

    • B. 

      Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate

    • C. 

      Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate

    • D. 

      Elevated blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate


  • 17. 
    The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:
    • A. 

      Retrograde amnesia

    • B. 

      Increased intracranial pressure

    • C. 

      Hypoxia

    • D. 

      Rapidly worsening level of consciousness


  • 18. 
    Which of the following carries the worst prognosis?
    • A. 

      Spastic rigidity

    • B. 

      Flaccidity

    • C. 

      Decerebrate posturing

    • D. 

      Decorticate posturing


  • 19. 
    Which of the floowing assessment tools is most helpful when trying to differentiate metabolic causes from structural causes of coma?
    • A. 

      Motor response

    • B. 

      Cranial nerve evaluation

    • C. 

      Level of consciousness

    • D. 

      Pupillary response


  • 20. 
    Adminstration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:
    • A. 

      Metabolic

    • B. 

      Alcoholic

    • C. 

      Structural

    • D. 

      Hypoglycemic


  • 21. 
    Why would a comatose patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?
    • A. 

      I competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

    • B. 

      It stimulates the brain stem

    • C. 

      It depresses seizure activity

    • D. 

      It stimulates teh sympathetic nervous system


  • 22. 
    Naloxone is effective in reversing teh effects of:
    • A. 

      Injectable drugs

    • B. 

      Barbituates and narcotics

    • C. 

      Opiates

    • D. 

      Sedatives and narcotics


  • 23. 
    The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:
    • A. 

      Hemorrhage and sepsis

    • B. 

      Occlusion and hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Occlusion and neoplasm

    • D. 

      Neoplasm and sepsis


  • 24. 
    Your patient complains of the abrubt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. this is indicative of:
    • A. 

      Hemorrhagic stroke

    • B. 

      Transient ischemic attack

    • C. 

      Cerebral embolism

    • D. 

      Cerebral thrombosis


  • 25. 
    A TIA differs from a stroke in that:
    • A. 

      The only mechanism of a TIA is occlusive injury

    • B. 

      Patients undergoing a TIA exhibit only weakness and paralysis

    • C. 

      Patients undergoing a TIA have no real risk for having a stroke

    • D. 

      The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours


  • 26. 
    The arm drift in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal if:
    • A. 

      Gripping an object in the hands causes the arms to drift

    • B. 

      One arm drifts down compared to the other

    • C. 

      The patient cannot hold his or her arms in front of the body for 3 minutes

    • D. 

      Pressure applied against outstretched arms causes them to drift


  • 27. 
    The most important action a paramedic can take in the treatment of a stroke patient is to:
    • A. 

      Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility

    • B. 

      Determine whether the stroke is hemorrhagic or occlusive

    • C. 

      Administer glucose

    • D. 

      Control seizure activity


  • 28. 
    Epilepsy is a seizure disorder
    • A. 

      Caused by metabolic abnormalities

    • B. 

      Secondary to infection

    • C. 

      That occurs primarily in febrile children

    • D. 

      With no known correctable or avoidable causes


  • 29. 
    Your partner suddenly falls to th efloor and becomes very rigid, withoccasional relaxation of the muscles. His temperature is normal. He is apneic and incontinent of urine. This type of seizure activity is best described as:
    • A. 

      Clonic

    • B. 

      Tonic

    • C. 

      Tonic-clonic

    • D. 

      Petit mal


  • 30. 
    Your 4 year old son stares off into space and doesn't respond to y our repeated questioning about whether he's all right. he displays no movement and remains in a standing position. this type of seizure activity is best defined as:
    • A. 

      Petit mal

    • B. 

      Clonic

    • C. 

      Tonic-clonic

    • D. 

      Tonic


  • 31. 
    Status epilepticus is defined as:
    • A. 

      A period of abnormal perception prior to a seizure

    • B. 

      Seizure activitiy on only one side of the body

    • C. 

      Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening

    • D. 

      The medical term for psychogenic epilepsy


  • 32. 
    Which of the following is typical of syncope?
    • A. 

      The patient is tachycardic

    • B. 

      Tonic-clonic movements are observed

    • C. 

      Unconsciousness last for several minutes

    • D. 

      A feeling of lightheadedness before an episode


  • 33. 
    Endocrine glands secreete their hormones into the:
    • A. 

      Lymphatic system

    • B. 

      Target tissues

    • C. 

      Blood stream

    • D. 

      Effector organs


  • 34. 
    Diabetes is cased primarily by a disorder of the:
    • A. 

      Pancreas

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Gallbladder


  • 35. 
    The primary function of insulin is to:
    • A. 

      Decrease glucose matabolism

    • B. 

      Eliminate pancreatic glycogen stores

    • C. 

      Transport glucose into the cells

    • D. 

      Increase blood glucose concentration


  • 36. 
    When testing a patient's blood glucose level, you obtain a reading of 12 mg/dL. this reading is
    • A. 

      Normal

    • B. 

      The high end of normal

    • C. 

      Extremely elevated

    • D. 

      Abnormally low


  • 37. 
    Which of the following hormones is secreted when serum glucose levels rise?
    • A. 

      Glucogen

    • B. 

      Insulin

    • C. 

      Epinephrine

    • D. 

      Cortisol


  • 38. 
    Type I diabetes is caused by
    • A. 

      Inappropriate carbohydrate metabolism

    • B. 

      Excessive prodution of glucagon

    • C. 

      The liver's inability to break down glucose

    • D. 

      Inadequate production of insulin


  • 39. 
    Type II diabetes is caused by:
    • A. 

      Excessive carbohydrate intake

    • B. 

      The liver's inability to store glycogen

    • C. 

      Decreased production of insulin

    • D. 

      Poor protein breakdown


  • 40. 
    A diabetic patient exhibits Kussmaul breathing to
    • A. 

      Create a metabolic alkalosis

    • B. 

      Compensate for metabolic acidosis

    • C. 

      Create a repiratory alkalosis

    • D. 

      Reverse respiratory acidosis


  • 41. 
    You are called to treat a 13 year old girl with a history of diabetes. her mother said she began acting strange and then lapsed into unconsciousness. you treat her by administering:
    • A. 

      Thiamine

    • B. 

      Dextrose

    • C. 

      Insulin

    • D. 

      Large boluses of normal saline


  • 42. 
    Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia may include:
    • A. 

      Combative behavior

    • B. 

      Warm, moist skin

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      Flaccidity


  • 43. 
    Signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include:
    • A. 

      Cool, moist skin and kussmaul respirations

    • B. 

      Wam, moist skin and hypertension

    • C. 

      Warm, dry skin and kussmaul respirations

    • D. 

      Cool dry skin and hypertension


  • 44. 
    Administration of dextrose 50% can precipitate neurological complications in:
    • A. 

      Unresponsive patients

    • B. 

      Teenage patients

    • C. 

      Type I diabetics

    • D. 

      Alcoholic patients


  • 45. 
    You are called to treat a patient with a known history of diabetes and alcoholism. the patient's friend reports that he didn't eat all day while they were attending a tailgate party. thate patient ingested mixed drinks. the patient is currently unresponsive. you note that he has an insulin pump in place. befoer adminstering dextrose, you should consider the following:
    • A. 

      Insulin

    • B. 

      Glucagon

    • C. 

      Thiamine

    • D. 

      Flumazenil


  • 46. 
    Glucogen should be considered when:
    • A. 

      An IV line cannot be established

    • B. 

      The patient is known to have liver disease

    • C. 

      You suspect DKA

    • D. 

      Blood glucose levels are below 100 mg/L


  • 47. 
    Glocagon is effective in treating hypoglcemia because it stimulates the:
    • A. 

      Excretion of ketones

    • B. 

      Breakdown of liver glycogen

    • C. 

      Transport of glucose into the cells

    • D. 

      Production of insulin


  • 48. 
    Localized allergic reactions ar best managed with
    • A. 

      Topical steriods

    • B. 

      Antihistamines

    • C. 

      Hot packs and elevation

    • D. 

      Beta blockers


  • 49. 
    The chemical released ain an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:
    • A. 

      Kinin

    • B. 

      Heparin

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Leukotriene


  • 50. 
    Histamines promote the contraction of nonvascular smooth muscle, expecially muscles in the:
    • A. 

      Bronchial tree

    • B. 

      Endocrine system

    • C. 

      Urinary tract

    • D. 

      Eyes


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