Computed Tomography Pt care II
Second test on CT REG for PT care
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The normal pulse range for a child is
- A.
30-50 beats per min
- B.
60-100 beats per min
- C.
70-120 beats per min
- D.
110-150 beats per min
Correct Answer
C. 70-120 beats per minExplanation
The normal pulse range for a child is 70-120 beats per minute. This range indicates that the child's heart is functioning within a healthy and normal rate. A pulse rate below 70 could indicate bradycardia, while a pulse rate above 120 could indicate tachycardia. It is important to monitor a child's pulse rate as it can provide valuable information about their cardiovascular health and overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?1 hypertension2 Oliguria3 pallor
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 3
- C.
2 and 3
- D.
1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3Explanation
Hypovolemic shock is a condition characterized by a significant decrease in blood volume, leading to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not a common sign of hypovolemic shock. On the other hand, oliguria, which is a decrease in urine output, and pallor, which is a pale appearance of the skin, are both signs and symptoms commonly seen in hypovolemic shock. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following would not be used as a site for injection of Contrast
- A.
Cephalic vein
- B.
Brachial artery
- C.
Antecubital vein
- D.
Basilic vein
Correct Answer
B. Brachial arteryExplanation
The brachial artery would not be used as a site for injection of contrast because it is an artery, not a vein. Contrast is typically injected into veins to enhance visibility during medical imaging procedures. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. Injecting contrast into an artery could potentially cause complications or blockages in the blood flow. Therefore, the brachial artery is not a suitable site for contrast injection.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The viscosity of a contrast may be decreased through
- A.
Increases in pressure
- B.
Decreases in temperature
- C.
Decreases in volume
- D.
Increases in temperature
Correct Answer
D. Increases in temperatureExplanation
When the temperature of a contrast is increased, the molecules of the contrast gain more kinetic energy and move faster. This increased movement causes the molecules to spread out and become less tightly packed, resulting in a decrease in viscosity. As a result, the contrast becomes less resistant to flow and flows more easily. On the other hand, increases in pressure, decreases in temperature, and decreases in volume would all cause the molecules of the contrast to become more tightly packed, leading to an increase in viscosity. Therefore, the correct answer is increases in temperature.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is a example of a mild reaction to contrast
- A.
Dyspnea
- B.
Shock
- C.
Pulmonary edema
- D.
Vomiting
Correct Answer
D. VomitingExplanation
Vomiting is an example of a mild reaction to contrast because it is a common side effect that can occur after receiving contrast material during a medical procedure. It is considered mild because it is usually temporary and does not pose a significant threat to the patient's health. On the other hand, dyspnea, shock, and pulmonary edema are more severe reactions that can indicate a serious allergic or adverse reaction to the contrast material.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The PT is not required to give information consent for which of the following CT studies
- A.
Non contrast brain study to rule out subdural hematoma
- B.
CT guided abscess drainage
- C.
Stereotactic biopsy of a cranial tumor
- D.
MPR imaging of the shoulder
Correct Answer
D. MPR imaging of the shoulderExplanation
The PT is not required to give information consent for MPR imaging of the shoulder because MPR (Multiplanar Reconstruction) imaging is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that does not involve any invasive or interventional techniques. In contrast, CT guided abscess drainage and stereotactic biopsy of a cranial tumor are invasive procedures that require the PT's informed consent. Similarly, a non-contrast brain study to rule out subdural hematoma may also require the PT's consent as it involves a CT scan of the head, which can be considered an invasive procedure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A PT blood pressure is measured as 140/70 mm Hg. The number 140 represents
- A.
The pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart
- B.
The pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart while the heart is relaxed
- C.
The pressure within the arterial vessels while the heart is relaxed
- D.
The pressure exerted on the chambers of hte heart during contraction of the heart
Correct Answer
A. The pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heartExplanation
The number 140 represents the pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following medications may be given to a PT having severe anaphylactoid reaction to contrast
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Diphenhydramine
- C.
Atropine
- D.
A and b
Correct Answer
D. A and bExplanation
Epinephrine and diphenhydramine may be given to a patient experiencing a severe anaphylactoid reaction to contrast. Epinephrine is a medication that helps to alleviate symptoms such as difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and hives by constricting blood vessels and opening the airways. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can help to reduce allergic reactions and relieve symptoms like itching and swelling. Therefore, both medications can be used together to provide immediate relief and manage the severe reaction.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A non-ionic IV Contrast agent has an average osmolatiy of
- A.
300 mOsm/kg water
- B.
1300 mOsm/kg water
- C.
750 mOsm/kg water
- D.
3000 mOsm/kg water
Correct Answer
C. 750 mOsm/kg waterExplanation
A non-ionic IV contrast agent with an average osmolality of 750 mOsm/kg water is considered to be within the normal range for osmolality. Osmolality refers to the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and a higher osmolality can cause adverse effects on the body. Therefore, a contrast agent with an osmolality of 750 mOsm/kg water is considered safe for intravenous administration without causing significant harm or discomfort to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The addition of ________ makes an autoclave more efficient at sterilization than an oven
- A.
Antiseptic solution
- B.
Moisture
- C.
Estreme pressure
- D.
Ultraviolet light
Correct Answer
B. MoistureExplanation
Moisture is the correct answer because it plays a crucial role in the sterilization process. Autoclaves use high temperatures and pressure to kill microorganisms, but the addition of moisture helps to enhance this process. Moist heat is more effective at killing microorganisms compared to dry heat, as it penetrates and denatures proteins more efficiently. The presence of moisture also helps to create steam, which aids in the distribution of heat throughout the sterilization chamber, ensuring that all areas reach the necessary temperature for effective sterilization. Therefore, the addition of moisture makes an autoclave more efficient at sterilization compared to an oven.Rate this question:
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- 11.
An average range for activated partial thromboplastin time is
- A.
10-12 sec
- B.
17-21 sec
- C.
28-34 sec
- D.
43-55 sec
Correct Answer
C. 28-34 secExplanation
The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is a blood test used to evaluate the efficiency of the clotting process. The normal range for APTT is typically between 28-34 seconds. This range indicates that the clotting factors in the blood are functioning properly and that the blood is clotting within a normal timeframe. A result within this range suggests that the patient does not have any clotting disorders or abnormalities in their blood clotting process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In a female PT, gonadal shielding may be applied during which of the following CT exams
- A.
Chest
- B.
Abdomen
- C.
Brain
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
Gonadal shielding may be applied during all the mentioned CT exams (Chest, Abdomen, and Brain) in a female PT. This is because the ovaries, which are part of the female reproductive system, are sensitive to radiation. By using gonadal shielding, the radiation dose to the ovaries can be reduced, minimizing the potential risks associated with radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A total volume of 125ml of IV contrast is administered via injector in 50 seconds. The flow rate for this injection is.
- A.
.75 ml/sec
- B.
1.25ml/sec
- C.
1.75ml/sec
- D.
2.5ml/sec
Correct Answer
D. 2.5ml/secExplanation
The flow rate for this injection can be calculated by dividing the total volume of 125ml by the time it takes to administer, which is 50 seconds. This gives us a flow rate of 2.5ml/sec.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following devices is used to measure the PT Dose
- A.
Geiger-Muller counter
- B.
Thermoluninescent dosimeter
- C.
Ionization chamber
- D.
Film badge
Correct Answer
C. Ionization chamberExplanation
The ionization chamber is used to measure the PT Dose. This device works by measuring the ionization of air caused by radiation. It consists of a chamber filled with gas, usually air, and electrodes that detect the ionization. When radiation passes through the chamber, it ionizes the gas particles, creating an electric current that can be measured. This allows for accurate measurement of the radiation dose received by a person or an object. The other options, such as the Geiger-Muller counter, thermoluminescent dosimeter, and film badge, are also used for radiation measurement but are not specifically designed for measuring the PT Dose.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not an absolute contraindiction of IV contrast.
- A.
Sickle cell anemia in active crisis
- B.
Elevated serum creatinine level
- C.
Pheochromocytoma
- D.
Allergic history to shell fish
Correct Answer
D. Allergic history to shell fishExplanation
An allergic history to shellfish is not an absolute contraindication of IV contrast. While it is important to consider a patient's allergic history and take precautions, such as premedication or using an alternative contrast agent, it does not completely prohibit the use of IV contrast. Sickle cell anemia in active crisis, elevated serum creatinine levels, and pheochromocytoma are examples of conditions that are absolute contraindications to IV contrast due to the potential risks and complications associated with its use.Rate this question:
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- 16.
PT preparation of a contrast CT exam of the chest should include
- A.
Nothing by mouth for 4 hours before the exam
- B.
Low residue diet for 12-24 hours prior to exam
- C.
Cleansing enema on the day preceding the exam
- D.
No preparation
Correct Answer
A. Nothing by mouth for 4 hours before the examExplanation
Prior to a contrast CT exam of the chest, it is important for the patient to abstain from eating or drinking anything for at least 4 hours. This is because the contrast material used during the exam can interact with food in the stomach, potentially affecting the quality of the images obtained. By fasting for a few hours, the stomach is empty, allowing for clearer and more accurate images to be captured during the CT scan.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The quanity of radiation dose recieved by the PT from a series of CT scans is referred to as the
- A.
MSAD
- B.
XCAL
- C.
CTDI
- D.
MTF
Correct Answer
A. MSADExplanation
The correct answer is MSAD. MSAD stands for Multiple Scan Average Dose, which refers to the total amount of radiation dose received by a patient from a series of CT scans. It takes into account the radiation dose from multiple scans and calculates the average dose received by the patient. This is an important measure to assess the cumulative radiation exposure and ensure that it is within safe limits.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following iodinated contrasts may be used for an intrathecal injection
- A.
Meglumine
- B.
Iodipanmide
- C.
Iohexol
- D.
Sodium meglumine diatrizoate
Correct Answer
C. IohexolExplanation
Iohexol is a type of iodinated contrast that can be used for an intrathecal injection. Intrathecal injections are administered directly into the spinal canal, and iohexol is commonly used for procedures such as myelography or spinal anesthesia. It is a water-soluble contrast agent that provides good visualization of the spinal cord and nerve roots. Iohexol is preferred for intrathecal injections due to its low toxicity and low risk of adverse reactions compared to other iodinated contrasts.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which on the following sizes of butterfly needles allows for the most rapid administration of IV Contrast
- A.
19 gauge
- B.
21 gauge
- C.
23 gauge
- D.
25 gauge
Correct Answer
A. 19 gaugeExplanation
A 19 gauge butterfly needle allows for the most rapid administration of IV Contrast. This is because a larger gauge needle has a wider diameter, which allows for a faster flow rate of the contrast solution. The larger diameter of the needle reduces resistance to the flow of the solution, resulting in a quicker administration.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A PT is scheduled for IV contrast CT scan of the kidneys. Before injection, the involved medical personnel should examine recently measured labs values for which of the following
- A.
Complete blood count
- B.
Creatinine
- C.
PT
- D.
PTT
Correct Answer
B. CreatinineExplanation
Before injection of IV contrast for a CT scan of the kidneys, it is important for the involved medical personnel to examine recently measured lab values for creatinine. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine can indicate impaired kidney function. Since the CT scan involves the use of contrast, which can potentially cause kidney damage, it is crucial to ensure that the patient's kidneys are functioning properly before administering the contrast. Therefore, examining the creatinine levels helps to assess the patient's renal function and determine if it is safe to proceed with the CT scan.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following terms may be used to indicate a feeling of faintness
- A.
Lethargy
- B.
Synergy
- C.
Anosmia
- D.
Syncope
Correct Answer
D. SyncopeExplanation
Syncope is the correct answer because it is a term used to indicate a feeling of faintness or temporary loss of consciousness. It is often caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain, resulting in a brief loss of consciousness. Lethargy refers to a lack of energy or enthusiasm, synergy refers to the combined effect of two or more things working together, and anosmia refers to the loss of sense of smell.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following laboratory values is used to measure the coagulation ability of a PT before the invasive CT study
- A.
PTT
- B.
Hematocrit
- C.
PT
- D.
A and C
Correct Answer
D. A and CExplanation
The laboratory values used to measure the coagulation ability of a PT before an invasive CT study are PTT and PT. PTT stands for Partial Thromboplastin Time and is a test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot. PT stands for Prothrombin Time and is a test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to assess the integrity of the extrinsic and common coagulation pathways. Therefore, both PTT and PT are important indicators of coagulation ability and would be used to evaluate a PT before an invasive CT study.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following types of central venous lines may be used for the administration of contrast with a automatic injector
- A.
Infuse a Port
- B.
Hickman catheter
- C.
Port a cath
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
None of the above options can be used for the administration of contrast with an automatic injector. Central venous lines such as a PICC line (Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter) or a central venous catheter are typically used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following IV contrast administration methods provides the greatest over all plasma iodine concentration
- A.
Drip infusion
- B.
Bolus techniques
- C.
Biphasic techniques
- D.
CT portography
Correct Answer
B. Bolus techniquesExplanation
Bolus techniques provide the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration compared to other IV contrast administration methods. This is because a bolus technique involves administering a large amount of contrast agent rapidly, resulting in a high concentration of iodine in the plasma. Drip infusion, on the other hand, involves a slow and continuous administration of contrast agent, resulting in a lower overall concentration. Biphasic techniques involve both a bolus and a drip infusion, so the overall plasma iodine concentration may be lower compared to bolus techniques. CT portography is a specific imaging technique and not an IV contrast administration method.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 16, 2008Quiz Created by
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