Ultimate Biology Class To Study Quiz

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1. The two most common elements in the human body by number (not by mass) are _________
and_________ .

Explanation

The two most common elements in the human body by number are hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe and is found in large quantities in water and organic compounds. Oxygen is the second most abundant element in the human body and is essential for respiration and energy production. These two elements are crucial for the functioning of various biological processes in the human body.

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2. A solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. What is its pH?____________ Is the solution considered acidic or basic?_______________

Explanation

The pH of a solution is a measure of its acidity or basicity. pH is calculated using the formula -log[H+], where [H+] represents the concentration of hydrogen ions in moles per liter. In this case, the solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. Taking the negative logarithm of this concentration gives a pH value of 12. Since the pH is greater than 7, the solution is considered basic.

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3. A recessive allele is defined as any allele that results in a deleterious or negative phenotype.

Explanation

This statement is false. A recessive allele is not defined as any allele that results in a deleterious or negative phenotype. In fact, a recessive allele is an allele that is only expressed in the phenotype when an individual is homozygous for that allele, meaning they have two copies of the recessive allele. When an individual is heterozygous, meaning they have one copy of the recessive allele and one copy of a dominant allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the phenotype. The phenotype resulting from a recessive allele may not necessarily be deleterious or negative.

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4. The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is the start codon?

Explanation

The start codon is the specific sequence of nucleotides (AUG) that signals the beginning of protein synthesis. It is the same for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. This codon is recognized by the ribosome and initiates the process of translation.

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5. Which of the following is(are) post-transcriptional modifications occurring in eukaryotic mRNAs?

Explanation

The correct answer is "all the above". Post-transcriptional modifications are changes that occur to the mRNA molecule after it has been transcribed from DNA. In eukaryotic mRNAs, these modifications include the addition of a methyl-guanosine cap at the 5' end, the removal of introns (non-coding regions), and the addition of a poly(A) tail at the 3' end. These modifications help in the stability, transport, and translation of the mRNA molecule.

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6. The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in ________.

Explanation

The mitotic spindle is a structure made up of microtubules that plays a crucial role in cell division. One of its main functions is the separation of sister chromatids during mitosis. Sister chromatids are two identical copies of a chromosome that are held together by a protein structure called the centromere. The mitotic spindle attaches to the centromeres and pulls the sister chromatids apart, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. This process is essential for the accurate distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells.

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7. G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors both initiate the signal transduction response by
binding signal molecules.

Explanation

Both G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors are involved in signal transduction, which is the process by which signals from outside the cell are transmitted to the inside of the cell to initiate a response. These receptors bind to specific signal molecules, such as hormones or growth factors, and trigger a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately lead to a cellular response. Therefore, the statement that both G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors initiate the signal transduction response by binding signal molecules is true.

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8. The following is a reasonable modern statement of Mendel's two laws of inheritance: "each individual has two
alleles at a given locus, which segregate from each other at meiosis and assort independently from other unlinked
loci."

Explanation

The statement accurately summarizes Mendel's two laws of inheritance. The first law states that each individual carries two alleles for a given trait, which separate or segregate during the formation of gametes. The second law states that the alleles for different traits assort independently of each other, as long as they are located on different chromosomes. Therefore, the statement is true as it correctly describes these fundamental principles of inheritance proposed by Gregor Mendel.

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9. 2 Multiple Choice Average Score 1 points
The segments of DNA where transcription begins have a binding site for RNA polymerase. These segments are
known as ________.

Explanation

Promoters are segments of DNA where transcription begins and have a binding site for RNA polymerase. They play a crucial role in initiating the process of transcription by providing a site for the RNA polymerase enzyme to bind and start transcribing the DNA into RNA. Sigma is a subunit of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme that helps in recognizing the promoter sequence. The holoenzyme refers to the complete RNA polymerase enzyme complex, including the sigma subunit. Initiation factors are proteins that assist in the initiation of transcription but are not specifically related to the binding site for RNA polymerase.

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10. Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle and before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation,
the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. Most of the energy from the original glucose at
that point is still in the form of ________.

Explanation

After the processes of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. However, most of the energy from the original glucose is still in the form of NADH. NADH is a high-energy molecule that carries electrons to the electron transport chain, where it is used to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, NADH is the correct answer as it represents the form in which the majority of the energy from glucose is stored at this point in the metabolic pathway.

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11. What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added with reading of a specific codon during
translation?

Explanation

The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA is responsible for ensuring that the correct amino acid is added during translation. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on the tRNA molecule that pairs with the corresponding codon on the mRNA. This pairing ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain, based on the genetic code.

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12. Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make proteins?
a carboxyl group, COOH
a side chain, R
a phosphorous atom, P
an amino functional group, NH2

Explanation

Each monomer used to make proteins consists of an amino functional group (NH2), a carboxyl group (COOH), and a side chain (R). These components are necessary for the formation of peptide bonds, which link the monomers together to form a protein chain. However, a phosphorous atom (P) is not typically found in the structure of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Therefore, a phosphorous atom is not a component of each monomer used to make proteins.

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13. At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has ________.

Explanation

At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell. During mitosis, the DNA in the parent cell is replicated and divided equally between the two daughter cells. Therefore, each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the DNA from the parent cell, resulting in identical DNA content in both cells. The amount of cytoplasm may vary between the daughter cells, but the DNA remains the same.

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14. A chemical reaction in which the product has more potential chemical energy than the reactants is
called endergonic.

Explanation

An endergonic reaction is a chemical reaction where the product has more potential chemical energy than the reactants. This means that energy is absorbed or required for the reaction to occur. In an endergonic reaction, the products have higher energy levels than the reactants, indicating an increase in potential chemical energy. Therefore, the statement is true.

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15. You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, and
determined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. You notice it has two binding sites.
One of these is large, apparently the bonding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly a
binding site for a regulatory molecule. What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of this
protein?

Explanation

The presence of two binding sites in the protein suggests that it is involved in some kind of regulation. The large binding site is likely for the substrate, indicating that the protein catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. The presence of a small binding site suggests that there is a regulatory molecule that can bind to it and modulate the activity of the protein. This is characteristic of allosteric regulation, where the binding of a regulatory molecule to a different site on the protein can either enhance or inhibit its catalytic activity. Therefore, the protein is likely an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

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16. When Sodium loses an electron to chlorine it becomes?

Explanation

When sodium loses an electron to chlorine, it creates a positively charged ion called a cation. This is because sodium has one valence electron in its outermost shell, and by losing that electron, it achieves a stable electron configuration similar to that of a noble gas. The loss of an electron results in an overall positive charge on the sodium ion.

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17. Crossover, the exchange of segments of homologous chromosomes, takes place during which of the following
processes?

Explanation

Synapsis is the process where homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange segments, a phenomenon known as crossover. This occurs during meiosis, specifically during prophase I. Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm that occurs after nuclear division, anaphase I is the stage where homologous chromosomes separate, and DNA replication is the process of copying DNA before cell division. Therefore, synapsis is the correct process where crossover takes place.

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18. One atom named Stan shares electrons with Betty. Between them they share 4 electrons. What kind of
bond do they share?

Explanation

Stan and Betty share 4 electrons, which indicates a strong bond between them. A double bond is formed when two atoms share four electrons, with two pairs of electrons being shared. This type of bond is commonly found between carbon atoms and is characterized by a strong attraction and a shorter bond length compared to a single bond. Therefore, the correct answer is a Double Bond.

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19. An isomer of a particular molecule is :



Explanation

An isomer of a particular molecule refers to a molecule that has the same chemical formula as the target molecule but differs in its structural arrangement. Isomers have the same number and types of atoms but are arranged differently, resulting in distinct chemical and physical properties. Therefore, the correct answer is "a molecule that has the same formula, but a different structure."

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20. Which of the following is a reasonable pathway for a carbon atom in a CO2 molecule, released from the Krebs
cycle in one of your cells, to re-enter the Krebs cycle in another one of your cells?

Explanation

The correct answer describes a pathway in which the carbon atom diffuses into the bloodstream, is exhaled through the lungs, and is incorporated into G-3-P by the Calvin cycle in a sugar plant. It is then converted into sucrose, which is used to make cane sugar. The cane sugar is then used as an ingredient in Tang, which is consumed by the individual. Glucose from the Tang enters the bloodstream through intestinal cells and then enters muscle cells. From there, it moves into the glycolytic pathway, and the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate, is converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

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21. What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
Correct Answers Percent Answered



Explanation

In mitosis, sister chromatids separate during anaphase, resulting in two identical daughter cells. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids) separate during anaphase, resulting in two daughter cells that are not identical. This is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I.

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22. Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to ________.

Explanation

Integrins are known to be attached to cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix. This attachment is important for cell adhesion, migration, and signaling. Integrins act as bridges between the intracellular cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix, allowing cells to interact with their surrounding environment and maintain structural integrity. Integrins also play a crucial role in various cellular processes such as cell proliferation, differentiation, and tissue development.

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23. Spherocytosis is a defect associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in red blood cells. What do you suspect
is one consequence of defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells?




Explanation

Defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells can lead to abnormal cell shape. The cytoskeleton provides structural support and maintains the shape of cells. In the case of spherocytosis, the defective cytoskeletal protein causes the red blood cells to become spherical instead of their normal biconcave shape. This abnormal shape can affect the ability of the red blood cells to flow smoothly through blood vessels and perform their functions effectively.

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24. When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution in water, regions of the molecule
with _________ bonds will be near the surface (associated with water molecules) because these
regions are ____________.

Explanation

When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution in water, regions of the molecule with polar bonds will be near the surface (associated with water molecules) because these regions are hydrophilic. Polar bonds have an uneven distribution of charge, with one end being slightly positive and the other end being slightly negative. This polarity allows the polar regions of the molecule to interact with the polar water molecules, forming hydrogen bonds. Since water is a polar molecule, it is attracted to other polar molecules, making the polar regions of the molecule more likely to be near the water surface.

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25.
Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the
function of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must ________.



Explanation

The target organ must have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule in order to respond to a particular hormone. Receptors are proteins located on the surface or inside the target cells that are specific to certain hormones. When a hormone binds to its receptor, it triggers a series of biochemical reactions within the cell, leading to a specific response. Without the appropriate receptors, the target organ would not be able to recognize and respond to the hormone.

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26. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?

Explanation

The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned in the options are true. The electron transport chain receives electrons from NADH and FADH2, and these electrons are passed from donor to recipient carrier molecules in a series of oxidation-reduction reactions. Usually, the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is oxygen. Additionally, most of the enzymes involved in this process are found in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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27. If an individual has two copies of the same allele at a given locus, which of the following terms would describe
his/her genotype for that specific trait?

Explanation

The term "homozygous" describes the genotype of an individual who has two identical copies of the same allele at a specific locus. In this case, the individual has two copies of the same allele, indicating that they are homozygous for that trait. This means that both copies of the allele are the same, either dominant or recessive.

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28. RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not needed for transcript elongation. What is the
subunit?

Explanation

Sigma is the correct answer because it is a subunit of RNA polymerase that is required for initiation of transcription but not for elongation. Sigma helps RNA polymerase recognize and bind to specific DNA sequences called promoters, allowing the enzyme to start transcribing the DNA into RNA. Once transcription has been initiated, sigma is released and the core enzyme continues with the elongation process.

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29. What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?

Explanation

The cell wall serves as a protective barrier for both prokaryotes and plant cells, helping to shield the cell from the potentially damaging effects of a hypotonic environment. In a hypotonic environment, there is a higher concentration of solutes inside the cell compared to the surrounding environment, causing water to enter the cell and potentially leading to cell lysis or bursting. The cell wall provides structural support and prevents excessive water uptake, maintaining the cell's shape and integrity.

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30. What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?




Explanation

High-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus are inferred to lack nuclear localization signals (NLS). Nuclear localization signals are specific sequences of amino acids that act as a "zip code" for proteins, allowing them to be recognized and transported into the nucleus. Therefore, the absence of NLS in these proteins prevents their transportation into the nucleus, indicating that they lack the necessary signal for nuclear localization.

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31. Homologous chromosomes ________.

Explanation

Homologous chromosomes carry information on the same trait. This means that they contain the same genes in the same order, although they may have different alleles (versions) of those genes. Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent, and they play a crucial role in meiosis and the passing on of genetic information from one generation to the next.

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32. Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among the
osteocytes. The collagen and calcium salts are ________.

Explanation

Collagen fibers and calcium salts are part of the extracellular matrix. The extracellular matrix is a complex network of proteins and other substances that surround cells. In the case of osteocytes, collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance in the extracellular matrix surrounding the bone cells. These components provide structural support and contribute to the strength and rigidity of the bone tissue. They are not part of the plasma membrane of osteocytes, nor are they deposited by the circulatory system or extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.

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33. Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows
involved in animal cell cytokinesis?

Explanation

Actin is an important cytoskeletal protein that plays a crucial role in animal cell cytokinesis. During cytokinesis, actin filaments form a contractile ring at the site of cell division, known as the cleavage furrow. This contractile ring contracts and constricts, leading to the separation of the two daughter cells. Actin filaments provide the structural support and generate the force necessary for the formation and contraction of the cleavage furrow, making actin an essential constituent of the contractile structures involved in animal cell cytokinesis.

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34. If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?

Explanation

If an atom has a charge of +1, it means that it has lost one electron. Since electrons have a negative charge, losing one electron would result in a net positive charge for the atom. Therefore, the atom must have one more proton than it does electrons in order to have a charge of +1.

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35. Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like a
monosaccharide or an amino acid) from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on
the inside of a cell?




Explanation

Active transport through a "pump" protein would be the most likely means of transport for moving a medium-sized molecule from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell. This is because active transport requires the use of energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient, from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. "Pump" proteins are specifically designed to transport molecules against their concentration gradient, making them suitable for this task. Facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein or an ion channel protein would not be able to move molecules against their concentration gradient, and passive transport does not require energy and would not be able to move molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration.

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36. What is the most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously?



Explanation

Diffusion is the spontaneous movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. The most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously is that it leads to an increase in entropy. Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system, and diffusion increases the randomness of the particle distribution. As particles move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, the system becomes more disordered, which is favored by nature.

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37. At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?


Explanation

DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins. During the S phase of interphase, which precedes meiosis I, the DNA in the cell is replicated. This ensures that each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids before entering meiosis I. Therefore, DNA replication takes place before the start of meiosis I.

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38. Multiple Choice Average Score 0 points
Why was Mendel able to recover a three to one ratio of parental types in the F2 generations of his monohybrid
crosses?

Explanation

Mendel was able to recover a three to one ratio of parental types in the F2 generations of his monohybrid crosses because he used only true-breeding parental lines. True-breeding lines are homozygous for a particular trait, meaning they consistently produce offspring with the same phenotype. By using true-breeding lines, Mendel ensured that the offspring in the F1 generation would all be heterozygous for the trait being studied. When these heterozygotes were crossed in the F2 generation, they produced offspring with a 3:1 ratio of phenotypes, as predicted by Mendel's laws of inheritance.

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39. Which of the following properties of water is NOT affected by the strong cohesion between H2O molecules?

Explanation

The pH of water is not affected by the strong cohesion between H2O molecules. The cohesion between water molecules is due to hydrogen bonding, which does not alter the concentration of H+ or OH- ions in the solution. The pH of a solution is determined by the concentration of these ions, and since the cohesion between water molecules does not change this concentration, the pH remains unaffected.

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40. Carbon has proven to be an extremely useful backbone element for complex biological molecules due
to strong electronegativity and valence number of 7, which allows carbon atoms to attract electrons from
almost any other element.

Explanation

The explanation for the given answer "false" is that while carbon is indeed an extremely useful backbone element for complex biological molecules, it is not due to its strong electronegativity and valence number of 7. Carbon's usefulness lies in its ability to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms and a wide variety of other elements, allowing for the formation of complex and diverse organic compounds.

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41. Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms.
Predict the behavior of this amino acid.



Explanation

The given information states that the R-group of the new amino acid contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Hydrophobic amino acids typically have nonpolar R-groups, such as hydrocarbon chains. Since hydrogen and carbon atoms are both nonpolar, it can be inferred that the new amino acid is hydrophobic. Hydrophobic amino acids tend to repel water and prefer to interact with nonpolar molecules or other hydrophobic regions. Therefore, the behavior of this amino acid would be consistent with being hydrophobic.

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42. Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?

Explanation

The electron transport chain is the final stage of cellular respiration, where high-energy electrons from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle are transferred through a series of protein complexes. As these electrons move along the chain, their energy is gradually released and used to generate ATP, the main energy currency of the cell. Therefore, the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is the event that takes place in the electron transport chain.

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43. What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g., triploidy)?
Correct Answers Percent Answered

 8.696%

Explanation

When an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets, such as triploidy, it means they have three sets of chromosomes instead of the usual two sets. This can lead to imbalances in gene expression and disrupt normal cellular processes. As a result, their offspring are often sterile, meaning they are unable to reproduce.

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44. Molecules of this type are bonded together in_______________ reactions to form a
_________________.

Explanation

Molecules of this type are bonded together in condensation reactions to form a polypeptide. In a condensation reaction, two molecules combine to form a larger molecule, with the elimination of a small molecule such as water. In the context of proteins, amino acids are joined together through condensation reactions to form polypeptides, which are chains of amino acids. This process is essential for protein synthesis and the formation of the primary structure of proteins.

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45. Amino acids with ___________ groups that contain __________ are likely to be hydrophilic.

Explanation

Amino acids with oxygen groups that contain oxygen are likely to be hydrophilic. Oxygen groups, such as hydroxyl and carbonyl groups, are polar and can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, making the amino acid hydrophilic.

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46. Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share?




Explanation

Chloroplasts and mitochondria both have their own DNA, they are capable of reproducing themselves, and they both have multiple membranes. However, they are not part of the endomembrane system. The endomembrane system includes organelles such as the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes, which are involved in the synthesis, modification, and transport of proteins and lipids within the cell. Chloroplasts and mitochondria are not involved in these processes, as their main functions are related to energy production (mitochondria) and photosynthesis (chloroplasts).

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47. A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to take
place ________.

Explanation

Mitosis is a process of cell division where a parent cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. In order for this division to occur, the parent cell must replicate its entire genome, which means it must duplicate its DNA. This ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information. Therefore, the correct answer is that the parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.

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48.
In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores and
shorten at the same time?

Explanation

Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle. This allows the microtubules to maintain contact with the kinetochores, which are specialized protein structures on the chromosomes. At the same time, the microtubules can shorten through depolymerization, which helps in the process of chromosome separation during cell division. The motor proteins use ATP energy to move along the microtubules and exert force on the chromosomes, facilitating their movement towards the opposite poles of the cell.

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49. If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.




Explanation

If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to pass the G2 checkpoint. The G2 checkpoint is a crucial point in the cell cycle where the cell checks for DNA damage and ensures that all DNA replication has been completed accurately. If there is DNA damage, the cell will halt progression through the cell cycle and activate DNA repair mechanisms before proceeding. Therefore, if a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to pass the G2 checkpoint without repairing the damage first.

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50. If you performed a dihybrid cross of two loci that were 100 centimorgans apart, you would expect to see 100%
recombinant phenotypes in the F2 generation.

Explanation

If two loci are 100 centimorgans apart, it means that they are located on different chromosomes or are very far apart on the same chromosome. In a dihybrid cross, the two loci would segregate independently, resulting in a 50% recombination frequency. This means that only 50% of the offspring would have recombinant phenotypes, while the other 50% would have non-recombinant phenotypes. Therefore, the statement that 100% recombinant phenotypes would be expected in the F2 generation is false.

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51. Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require energy?

Explanation

Membrane transport always requires energy when a solute needs to be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through a phospholipid bilayer membrane. This process is called active transport, and it requires the use of energy in the form of ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. Active transport is necessary when the concentration of a particular solute needs to be increased inside the cell, and this process cannot occur spontaneously without the input of energy.

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52. A kinase is an enzyme that ________.



Explanation

A kinase is an enzyme that adds a phosphate group to target molecules. This process, known as phosphorylation, is crucial for regulating various cellular functions. By adding a phosphate group to specific amino acids in proteins, kinases can modulate protein activity, localization, and interactions. This phosphorylation event can act as a signal to activate or deactivate proteins, allowing for precise control of cellular processes such as cell growth, metabolism, and signal transduction. Therefore, the correct answer is that a kinase adds a phosphate group to target molecules.

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53. Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How might such multinucleated cells arise?

Explanation

Multinucleated cells can arise through repeated mitosis without cytokinesis. During mitosis, the cell's nucleus divides to form two nuclei, but without the subsequent cytokinesis, the cell remains as a single entity with multiple nuclei. This can occur due to various reasons such as failure of the contractile ring to form or contract during cytokinesis. As a result, the cell continues to undergo mitosis without the separation of the cytoplasm and the formation of two distinct daughter cells. This leads to the accumulation of multiple nuclei within a single cell.

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54. What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?

Explanation

Meiosis II takes place in a haploid cell, while mitosis takes place in diploid cells. This means that during meiosis II, the cell already has half the number of chromosomes compared to the original cell, while in mitosis, the cell maintains the same number of chromosomes. This difference is important because meiosis II is involved in the production of gametes (sperm and egg cells) which need to be haploid in order to combine during fertilization and restore the diploid number of chromosomes in the offspring. On the other hand, mitosis is involved in growth, repair, and asexual reproduction, where maintaining the diploid number of chromosomes is necessary.

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55. The diploid number of a roundworm species is 4. You have a male and a female roundworm that are planning
a family. Assuming there is no crossover, and random segregation of homologues during meiosis, how many
different possible combinations of chromosomes might there be in the offspring?

Explanation

During meiosis, the diploid number of chromosomes is halved to produce haploid gametes. In this case, the diploid number of the roundworm species is 4, so each parent will produce 4 different types of gametes. When these gametes combine during fertilization, there will be a total of 16 different possible combinations of chromosomes in the offspring. This is because each parent can contribute any of their 4 types of gametes, resulting in 4 x 4 = 16 possible combinations.

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56. Which of the following is the genetic basis for a phenotypic trait that has a normal distribution in a population (for
example, height of individuals in the population).

Explanation

The correct answer is that many different genetic loci contribute to a given height phenotype. This means that height is a polygenic trait, meaning it is influenced by multiple genes. Each gene may have a small effect on height, but when combined, they contribute to the overall variation in height observed in a population. This is why height follows a normal distribution, with most individuals falling near the average height and fewer individuals at the extremes of tall and short.

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57. There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino acid, and three stop codons for which
there is no corresponding amino acid. However, there are only about 40 tRNA molecules, representing 40
anticodons. How is that possible?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the anticodon of a tRNA molecule forms hydrogen bonds with the codon on mRNA during translation. The anticodon must match the first two bases of the codon, but the third base is less specific. This means that a single tRNA molecule with a specific anticodon can bind to multiple codons that have the same first two bases but different third bases. This allows for the recognition of more codons with fewer tRNA molecules, explaining how there can be only about 40 tRNA molecules representing 61 codons.

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58. Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a given
chemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate. Substrate-level phosphorylation is seen
in which metabolic pathway(s)?

Explanation

Both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle involve steps where substrate-level phosphorylation takes place. In substrate-level phosphorylation, energy is released from a chemical reaction and used to convert ADP and phosphate into ATP. This process occurs in both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, allowing for the production of ATP in these metabolic pathways. The electron transport chain, on the other hand, does not directly involve substrate-level phosphorylation. Therefore, the correct answer is both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

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59. Animals inhale air containing oxygen and exhale air with less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. After
inhalation, the extra oxygen from the air will mostly be found in

Explanation

During inhalation, animals take in oxygen from the air. This oxygen is transported through the bloodstream and binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells. It is then delivered to cells throughout the body, where it is used in cellular respiration. In this process, oxygen is used to break down organic molecules, such as glucose, to produce energy. The byproducts of this process are carbon dioxide and water. Therefore, the extra oxygen from the inhaled air will mostly be found in water, as it is a product of cellular respiration.

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60. Why are polymerization reactions endergonic?

Explanation

Polymerization reactions involve the formation of larger molecules (polymers) from smaller molecules (monomers). This process leads to a decrease in the number of possible arrangements of the molecules, resulting in a reduction in entropy. Since entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system, a decrease in entropy requires an input of energy. Therefore, polymerization reactions are endergonic, meaning they require energy to proceed.

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61. The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly?

Explanation

A somatic cell is any cell of an organism that is not a reproductive cell. Since the egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes, it means that the reproductive cells of a fruit fly have 4 chromosomes. However, somatic cells undergo a process called mitosis, where the number of chromosomes is halved. Therefore, a somatic cell of a fruit fly would have half the number of chromosomes as the reproductive cells, which is 8 chromosomes.

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62. Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1½ times more
DNA than do G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are in ________.

Explanation

The group of cells that have 1½ times more DNA than G1 phase cells are in the S phase of the cell cycle. During the S phase, DNA replication occurs, resulting in the doubling of the amount of DNA in the cell. This is consistent with the observation that these cells have more DNA than G1 phase cells. Cytokinesis is the final stage of the cell cycle, where the cell divides into two daughter cells, and the G2 phase is the stage before mitosis where the cell prepares for cell division. Therefore, neither of these phases would explain the increased DNA content in the cells.

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63. FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein. It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is
analogous to ________.

Explanation

FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring during bacterial cytokinesis. This contractile ring is responsible for the division of the bacterial cell into two daughter cells. In eukaryotic animal cells, a similar process occurs during cell division, where a cleavage furrow forms and contracts to divide the cell. Therefore, the function of FtsZ in bacterial cytokinesis is analogous to the cleavage furrow in eukaryotic animal cells.

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64. A mother with type A blood and a father with type B blood produce a child with type O blood. Which of the
following statements must be true?



Explanation

If the child has type O blood, it means that the child has inherited two O alleles, one from each parent. Since type A and type B blood are dominant over type O blood, it can be inferred that both parents must have at least one O allele. Therefore, both parents must be heterozygous at the blood-type locus, meaning they have one O allele and one allele for either type A or type B blood.

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65. To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to be a liquid at the temperatures
found in your car's engine and have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat. You have a reference
book with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your car,
which table would you check first?

Explanation

To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance needs to have a high specific heat. Specific heat refers to the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by a certain amount. A coolant with a high specific heat can absorb a greater amount of heat from the car's engine, helping to regulate its temperature and prevent overheating. Therefore, checking the table listing the specific heat of different liquids would be the first step in choosing a coolant for a car.

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66. 9 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.92 points
Regulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are
also known as ________.

Explanation

Regulatory proteins that prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are known as tumor suppressors. These proteins play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the cell's DNA and preventing the proliferation of damaged cells, which could potentially lead to the development of tumors. By inhibiting cell cycle progression and promoting DNA repair or apoptosis, tumor suppressors help to safeguard the cell from the harmful effects of DNA damage.

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67. Multiple Choice Average Score 1 points
Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes?

Explanation

Concurrent transcription and translation occurs in prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, transcription and translation can happen simultaneously because there is no nuclear membrane to separate the two processes. The mRNA is translated into protein as it is being transcribed, allowing for a faster and more efficient production of proteins. In contrast, eukaryotes have a nuclear membrane that separates transcription in the nucleus from translation in the cytoplasm, resulting in a time delay between the two processes.

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68. Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones, namely insulin and glucagon. When blood sugar rises,
insulin is released; it binds to receptors and, through signal transduction, results in an increase in glucose
uptake by cells, effectively lowering blood glucose. When blood sugar decreases, glucagon is released, binds to
cell receptors, and causes glucose to be released into circulation. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that results from excessively high levels of blood glucose. Type II diabetics have normal to elevated levels of insulin. What,
then, might be causing the elevated blood glucose levels?

Explanation

The elevated blood glucose levels in Type II diabetics may be caused by defective receptors. Even though these individuals have normal to elevated levels of insulin, their receptors are not functioning properly, leading to a decreased ability of insulin to bind to the receptors and stimulate glucose uptake by cells. As a result, blood glucose levels remain high despite the presence of insulin.

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69. Multiple Choice Average Score 0.63 points (Extra credit)
The glucocorticoid receptor is a protein that is found only in the cytoplasm until the hormone glucocorticoid enters
the cell and binds to this receptor. The receptor then translocates to the nucleus, where it regulates the
transcription of certain genes. If a specific sequence of the receptor is deleted from the protein, the receptor still
binds glucocorticoid but does not enter the nucleus. Consider the following additional hypothetical experiment. If
the mutant receptor is fused with a fragment of protein that is normally found in the nucleus, the receptor enters
the nucleus regardless of whether glucocorticoid is bound. Which conclusion can be drawn from these
observations?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the binding of glucocorticoid to the receptor exposes a nuclear localization signal. This means that when glucocorticoid binds to the receptor, it causes a change in the receptor structure that allows it to enter the nucleus. This conclusion is supported by the observation that even when the specific sequence of the receptor is deleted, the receptor still binds glucocorticoid but does not enter the nucleus. Therefore, the binding of glucocorticoid must be responsible for exposing the nuclear localization signal and allowing the receptor to translocate to the nucleus.

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70. Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a process called ________.

Explanation

Egg and sperm are formed through a process called meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms. It involves two rounds of division, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is essential for sexual reproduction as it ensures genetic diversity by shuffling and recombining genetic material.

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71.
Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order.
1. Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit.
2. Recognition of initiation codon
3. Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA
4. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA
5. Attachment of the large subunit

Explanation

The events of elongation in prokaryotic translation occur in a specific order. First, the mRNA binds with the small ribosomal subunit. Then, the initiation codon is recognized. Next, there is complementary base pairing between the initiator codon and the anticodon of the initiator tRNA. After that, the mRNA codon following the initiator codon base pairs with its complementary tRNA. Finally, the large subunit attaches. Therefore, the correct chronological order of these events is 1,2,3,5,4.

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72. What is the site of synthesis of proteins for export (secretion from the cell)?




Explanation

Ribosomes that attach to the endoplasmic reticulum are responsible for synthesizing proteins that are intended for export or secretion from the cell. The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of membranes connected to the nuclear envelope, and it plays a crucial role in protein synthesis and processing. Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum, also known as rough endoplasmic reticulum, produce proteins that are either inserted into the membrane or packaged into vesicles for transportation to other parts of the cell or outside of the cell. Therefore, these ribosomes are the site of synthesis for proteins that are meant to be secreted.

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73. Mitochondrial DNA codes for about 13 proteins (depending on the species of organism). These 13 proteins
account for a small proportion of the proteins present in mitochondria. The remaining proteins are coded for by
nuclear DNA. What is the most likely explanation for how these proteins find their way to the mitochondria?

Explanation

The most likely explanation for how these proteins find their way to the mitochondria is through signal sequences. Signal sequences are specific amino acid sequences that act as "tags" on proteins, guiding them to their correct cellular location. In the case of mitochondrial proteins, signal sequences target them to the mitochondria, where they are imported and incorporated into the organelle. This process ensures that the proteins are correctly delivered to the mitochondria and can perform their functions within the organelle.

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74. A metabolic pathway, glycolysis, is active when cellular energy levels are ________; the regulatory enzyme,
phosphofructokinase, is ________ by ATP.

Explanation

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose to produce energy. When cellular energy levels are low, it indicates that the cell needs more energy. In this situation, glycolysis is active to generate additional energy. Phosphofructokinase is a regulatory enzyme in glycolysis that controls the rate of the pathway. When ATP levels are high, it means that the cell already has sufficient energy, and glycolysis needs to be inhibited to prevent unnecessary energy production. Therefore, when cellular energy levels are low, phosphofructokinase is inhibited by ATP.

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75. Which of these statements concerning the following reaction is true?
Malate + NAD+ → oxaloacetate + NADH + H+

Explanation

Malate is more reduced than oxaloacetate because it gains electrons and a proton (H+) to form oxaloacetate. In this reaction, malate acts as a reducing agent, donating electrons and a proton to another molecule (oxaloacetate). Oxaloacetate, on the other hand, is more oxidized because it accepts the electrons and proton from malate. Therefore, malate is more reduced compared to oxaloacetate.

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76. Nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis. Instead, they are permanently stuck in ________.

Explanation

Nerve cells, also known as neurons, are specialized cells that transmit electrical signals in the nervous system. Unlike most other cells in the body, nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis, which is the process of cell division. Instead, they enter a phase called G0, where they are permanently stuck and do not divide further. This allows nerve cells to maintain their specialized functions and ensures the stability of the nervous system.

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77. A standard dihybrid cross of two true-breeding individuals produces the following phenotypic ratios in the F2
generation: 9:3:3:1. You would be safe coming to which of the following conclusions?

Explanation

The given phenotypic ratios of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation indicate that there are two sets of alleles segregating independently from each other. This suggests that there is a dominant and recessive allele at both loci used in the cross. Additionally, the fact that the phenotypic ratios are in accordance with Mendelian inheritance patterns suggests that the loci encoding the two traits in this cross are unlinked. Furthermore, the production of the phenotypic ratios in the F2 generation implies that the original parental plants were homozygous at both loci studied in this cross. Therefore, all of the above conclusions can be safely made.

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78. At the pH found in cells (about 7.0), what happens to the amino group on an amino acid?


Explanation

At a pH of 7.0, the amino group on an amino acid acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge. This is because at this pH, the environment is slightly acidic, and the amino group can accept a proton (H+) to become positively charged. This positive charge allows the amino acid to participate in various chemical reactions and interactions within the cell.

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79. The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases
of the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is centrosome. The centrosome is a microtubular organizing center found in animal cells that is present throughout all phases of the cell cycle. It plays a crucial role in cell division by organizing and anchoring the microtubules that form the mitotic spindle, which is responsible for separating the chromosomes during cell division. The centrosome also helps in organizing the cytoskeleton and facilitating cell movement and shape changes.

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80. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin
pigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What is the probability that their
first child will be an albino girl?

Explanation

Since both the man and woman have one parent who is albino, they each carry one copy of the albino gene. In order for their first child to be an albino girl, both the man and woman must pass on their albino gene to the child. The probability of passing on the albino gene is 1/2 for each parent. Therefore, the probability of both parents passing on the albino gene is (1/2) * (1/2) = 1/4. Additionally, the probability of the child being a girl is 1/2. Therefore, the overall probability of their first child being an albino girl is (1/4) * (1/2) = 1/8.

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81. Stomata, openings in the leaf, are important to photosynthesis for ________.




Explanation

Stomata are openings in the leaf that allow for the exchange of gases. They play a crucial role in photosynthesis by allowing the entry of carbon dioxide, which is used in the Calvin cycle. The Calvin cycle is a series of reactions that take place in the chloroplasts of plants, where carbon dioxide is converted into glucose, a form of stored energy. Therefore, the entry of carbon dioxide through stomata is essential for the process of photosynthesis to occur efficiently.

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82. Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through which of the following processes?

Explanation

Sexual reproduction allows for the mixing and recombination of genetic material from two different individuals, resulting in offspring that have unique combinations of genes. This genetic diversity increases the chances of survival and adaptation to changing environments. Mutation, while also contributing to genetic diversity, occurs at a slower rate and is more prone to harmful effects. Asexual reproduction and genetic recombination, on the other hand, typically result in offspring that are genetically identical or very similar to the parent, limiting their ability to adapt to changing environments. Pangenesis is an outdated theory that suggests traits are passed down through particles from various parts of the body, which is not supported by modern science.

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83. How is the nuclear membrane related to the endoplasmic reticulum?

Explanation

The inner and outer bilayers of the nuclear envelope are continuous with the space inside the endoplasmic reticulum, allowing for direct contact between the two structures. This direct contact facilitates communication and exchange of materials between the nucleus and the endoplasmic reticulum.

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84. Nitric oxide (NO), a substance with small molecular weight, is rapidly degraded within an organism
but can function as a hormone. How does this substance enter the cell?

Explanation

NO is a small molecule that is able to dissolve in the cell membrane, allowing it to passively diffuse into the cell. This means that it does not require any specific receptors or signal transduction pathways to enter the cell. Once inside, NO can exert its effects as a hormone.

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85. GLUT-1 is an example of what?


Explanation

GLUT-1 is an example of a transport protein that facilitates the diffusion of a large molecule across cell membranes. This means that GLUT-1 helps to transport large molecules across the cell membrane by facilitating their diffusion.

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86. The small intestine is the site of digestion and absorption of nutrients. A single layer of epithelial cells lines the
small intestine. In the duodenum (the first section of the small intestine), these epithelial cells secrete large
quantities of digestive enzymes. Which of the following features would be typical of these epithelial cells?

Explanation

The correct answer is that these epithelial cells contain large quantities of rough endoplasmic reticulum. This is because rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of proteins, including digestive enzymes. Since the duodenum is the site of digestion, it makes sense that the epithelial cells in this region would have a high concentration of rough endoplasmic reticulum to support the production and secretion of digestive enzymes.

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87. Put the following events in the process of signal-transduction for epinephrine action in order:
1. A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.
2. Protein kinases are activated.
3. A signal molecule binds to a receptor.
4. Target proteins are phosphorylated.
5. Second messenger molecules are released.

Explanation

The process of signal-transduction for epinephrine action begins with the binding of a signal molecule to a receptor (event 3). This binding causes a conformational change in the signal-receptor complex, which in turn activates an enzyme (event 1). The activated enzyme then triggers the release of second messenger molecules (event 5). These second messengers then activate protein kinases (event 2). Finally, the protein kinases phosphorylate target proteins (event 4). Therefore, the correct order of events is 3,1,5,2,4.

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88. 10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.65 points
Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is false?

Explanation

The statement that Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise it is unregulated is false. The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is tightly regulated by various factors such as the concentration of ATP, NADH, and other intermediates. The rate of the Krebs cycle is influenced by the energy needs of the cell and the availability of substrates, but it is also regulated by feedback inhibition and allosteric regulation. Therefore, the activity of the Krebs cycle is not solely dependent on substrate availability.

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89. Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during
mitosis?

Explanation

During mitosis, cyclin is degraded, which leads to the concentration of cyclin-dependent kinase remaining unchanged. However, without cyclin, MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) cannot be formed. This is because cyclin is necessary for the activation of cyclin-dependent kinase, and without it, MPF cannot be generated. Therefore, the degradation of cyclin prevents the formation of MPF and subsequently turns off the molecular division triggers.

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90. 10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.71 points
For cells to divide more rapidly, increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteins
except ________.

Explanation

To divide more rapidly, cells require increased production of proteins that promote cell division. PDGF, activated MPF, and cyclins are all proteins that are involved in cell division and their increased production can lead to more rapid cell division. However, p53 is a protein that acts as a tumor suppressor and regulates cell cycle arrest and DNA repair. Therefore, increased production of p53 would likely inhibit cell division rather than promote it.

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91. Which of the following individuals provided the first empirical evidence that genes are located on specific
chromosomes, using genetic crosses in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster?

Explanation

Thomas Hunt Morgan provided the first empirical evidence that genes are located on specific chromosomes, using genetic crosses in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster.

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92. What molecule is responsible for the catalytic activity in the spliceosomes that are involved in removal of introns?

Explanation

Ribozymes are responsible for the catalytic activity in spliceosomes that remove introns. Ribozymes are RNA molecules that can act as enzymes, catalyzing chemical reactions. In the case of spliceosomes, ribozymes facilitate the removal of introns from pre-mRNA molecules during the process of RNA splicing. This catalytic activity allows for the precise and accurate removal of introns, resulting in the production of mature mRNA molecules that can be translated into proteins.

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93. What is the function of the 3′ end of the tRNA?

Explanation

The 3' end of the tRNA is responsible for attaching to the amino acid. tRNA molecules have a specific sequence at their 3' end called the "CCA sequence" which allows them to bind to the corresponding amino acid. This attachment is important for the process of protein synthesis, as the tRNA brings the amino acid to the ribosome, where it is incorporated into the growing polypeptide chain. Therefore, the 3' end of the tRNA plays a crucial role in the overall function of tRNA molecules in protein synthesis.

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94. What characteristic of ATP is responsible for its high energy level compared to AMP?




Explanation

The closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups are responsible for ATP's high energy level compared to AMP. These negative charges create repulsion between the phosphate groups, making the bonds between them unstable. As a result, when one of the phosphate groups is broken off, a large amount of energy is released. This energy can be used for various cellular processes, making ATP the primary energy currency of the cell.

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95. The M-phase checkpoint is designed to make sure all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this
fails to happen, in which stage of mitosis would the cells be most likely to arrest?

Explanation

The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are properly attached to the mitotic spindle before the cell proceeds to the next stage of mitosis. If this checkpoint fails, the cells would be most likely to arrest in metaphase. In metaphase, the chromosomes align along the equator of the cell and are attached to the spindle fibers. If the attachment is not properly established, the checkpoint will detect the error and arrest the cell in metaphase until the issue is resolved. Therefore, metaphase is the stage where the cells would be most likely to arrest if the M-phase checkpoint fails.

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96. Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a process called ________.

Explanation

Fertilization is the process in which the egg and sperm fuse together to form a zygote, which eventually develops into an embryo. This process occurs during sexual reproduction and is essential for the creation of new offspring. Meiosis, on the other hand, is the process by which cells divide to form gametes (egg and sperm cells) with half the number of chromosomes. Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in which a single organism splits into two identical individuals. Mitosis is the process of cell division that occurs in somatic cells to produce two identical daughter cells.

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97. Sister chromatids in meiosis separate during ________.

Explanation

During anaphase I of meiosis, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is a crucial step in meiosis as it ensures that each daughter cell receives one complete set of chromosomes. Anaphase II, on the other hand, involves the separation of sister chromatids in the second round of division. Interkinesis is a brief resting period between meiosis I and meiosis II. Metaphase is the stage where chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.

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98. Question 12 Multiple Choice Average Score 0 points (Extra credit)
In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessive
trait. A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also has
normal color vision. He has brown eyes but his mother had blue eyes. Which of the following do you expect to
be true for their daughters?

Explanation

The correct answer is that one-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes, and one-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes. This is because the woman is heterozygous for both traits (blue eyes and normal color vision), and the man is also heterozygous for both traits (brown eyes and normal color vision). The daughters will inherit one allele from each parent, resulting in a 50% chance of inheriting the blue eye allele and a 50% chance of inheriting the brown eye allele. Similarly, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the color blindness allele and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal color vision allele.

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99. Fatty acids typically have an even number of carbons. They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation.
The end-products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules. What is the most likely
fate of the acetyl groups?

Explanation

Acetyl groups derived from fatty acids enter the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle or the tricarboxylic acid cycle. The Krebs cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occurs in the mitochondria of cells and is an essential part of cellular respiration. Acetyl CoA, which is produced during beta-oxidation of fatty acids, combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate, initiating the Krebs cycle. This cycle generates ATP, NADH, and FADH2, which are then used in the electron transport chain to produce more ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, the most likely fate of the acetyl groups is to directly enter the Krebs cycle.

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100. Two white-flowered parental plants from independent but true-breeding genetic lineages produce an F1 generation
with all purple flowers. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation?

Explanation

Epistasis is a reasonable explanation for the F1 generation having all purple flowers. Epistasis refers to the interaction between different genes where the expression of one gene masks or modifies the expression of another gene. In this case, it is possible that a gene involved in the production of purple pigment is interacting with another gene involved in the production of white pigment. This interaction results in the masking of the white pigment gene and the expression of only the purple pigment gene, leading to all purple flowers in the F1 generation.

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101. A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA, while a primary
transcript in a prokaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA.

Explanation

In eukaryotic cells, the primary transcript is larger than the functional mRNA because it contains both introns (non-coding regions) and exons (coding regions). Before the mRNA can be translated into a protein, the introns are removed through a process called splicing, resulting in a smaller functional mRNA. In prokaryotic cells, the primary transcript is also larger than the functional mRNA, but this is because prokaryotes do not have introns in their genes. Therefore, the primary transcript in prokaryotic cells is the same size as the functional mRNA.

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102. The inner mitochondrial membrane normally ________.

Explanation

The inner mitochondrial membrane is virtually impermeable to hydrogen ions (protons). This means that the membrane does not allow hydrogen ions to pass through easily. This property is important for maintaining the proton gradient across the membrane, which is necessary for ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation. If the membrane were permeable to hydrogen ions, the proton gradient would not be maintained and ATP production would be compromised.

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103. Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) involved in moving a cell into M phase?
Correct Answers Percent Answered




Explanation

MPF is responsible for promoting the entry of a cell into M phase of the cell cycle. It does this by phosphorylating various proteins to initiate specific events. The phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule ensures that cyclin levels decrease, leading to the inactivation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and progression of the cell cycle. Therefore, the degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase is not an effect of MPF, making it the correct answer.

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104. Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis was rapidly proceeding help sustain
the metabolic pathway?

Explanation

Adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis is rapidly proceeding would help sustain the metabolic pathway because the metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated. Phosphorylation is an important step in glycolysis, as it helps to trap glucose within the cell and allows for further breakdown of glucose molecules. By adding inorganic phosphate, it ensures that there is a sufficient supply of phosphorylated intermediates to continue the glycolytic process and generate energy for the cell.

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105. Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle microtubules, the next question they
wanted to answer is how the microtubules function to bring about this process. They used fluorescent labels to
make the chromosomes and the microtubular structures fluoresce. When anaphase began (centromeres split),
they photobleached a section of microtubules. As chromosomes moved toward the poles of the daughter cells,
the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary. This result suggests that ________.

Explanation

The given explanation suggests that the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary while the chromosomes moved towards the poles of the daughter cells. This indicates that the microtubules are elongating and shortening at their kinetochore end, which is the end attached to the chromosomes. This movement of the microtubules at the kinetochore end is responsible for the movement and separation of the chromosomes during anaphase.

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106. CAM plants function using crassulacean acid metabolism. Like C4 plants, CAM plants provide a preparatory step
for the Calvin cycle. CAM plants are found in hot, dry environments; to prevent dessication, they keep their
stomata closed during the day. They take in carbon dioxide at night while stomata are open. To increase the
concentration of carbon dioxide available to the enzyme rubisco and minimize the degree of photorespiration, the
CAM plants carboxylate ________.

Explanation

CAM plants carboxylate organic acids to increase the concentration of carbon dioxide available to the enzyme rubisco and minimize the degree of photorespiration. This is because CAM plants keep their stomata closed during the day to prevent dessication in hot, dry environments. They take in carbon dioxide at night while stomata are open, and the organic acids produced are stored in vacuoles. During the day, these organic acids are decarboxylated, releasing carbon dioxide for the Calvin cycle. This allows CAM plants to efficiently use carbon dioxide and adapt to their arid habitats.

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The two most common elements in the human body by number (not by mass)...
A solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. What is its...
A recessive allele is defined as any allele that results in a...
The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is...
Which of the following is(are) post-transcriptional modifications...
The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in...
G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors both initiate the...
The following is a reasonable modern statement of Mendel's two laws of...
2 Multiple Choice Average Score 1 pointsThe segments of DNA where...
Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle and before the electron...
What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added...
Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to...
At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has ________.
A chemical reaction in which the product has more potential chemical...
You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its...
When Sodium loses an electron to chlorine it becomes?
Crossover, the exchange of segments of homologous chromosomes, takes...
One atom named Stan shares electrons with Betty. Between them they...
An isomer of a particular molecule is :
Which of the following is a reasonable pathway for a carbon atom in a...
What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?Correct...
Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to...
Spherocytosis is a defect associated with a defective cytoskeletal...
When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution...
Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are...
Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain...
If an individual has two copies of the same allele at a given locus,...
RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not...
What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant...
What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be...
Homologous chromosomes ________.
Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found...
Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the...
If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?
Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used...
What is the most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs...
At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?
Multiple Choice Average Score 0 pointsWhy was Mendel able to recover a...
Which of the following properties of water is NOT affected by the...
Carbon has proven to be an extremely useful backbone element for...
Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only...
Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport...
What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets...
Molecules of this type are bonded together in_______________ reactions...
Amino acids with ___________ groups that contain __________ are likely...
Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and...
A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells...
In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain...
If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.
If you performed a dihybrid cross of two loci that were 100...
Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require...
A kinase is an enzyme that ________.
Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How might such multinucleated...
What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?
The diploid number of a roundworm species is 4. You have a male and a...
Which of the following is the genetic basis for a phenotypic trait...
There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino...
Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway...
Animals inhale air containing oxygen and exhale air with less oxygen...
Why are polymerization reactions endergonic?
The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in...
Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They...
FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein. It forms a contractile ring...
A mother with type A blood and a father with type B blood produce a...
To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to...
9 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.92 pointsRegulatory proteins that...
Multiple Choice Average Score 1 pointsWhich of the following occurs in...
Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones, namely insulin...
Multiple Choice Average Score 0.63 points (Extra credit)The...
Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a...
Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in...
What is the site of synthesis of proteins for export (secretion from...
Mitochondrial DNA codes for about 13 proteins (depending on the...
A metabolic pathway, glycolysis, is active when cellular energy levels...
Which of these statements concerning the following reaction is...
Nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis. Instead, they are...
A standard dihybrid cross of two true-breeding individuals produces...
At the pH found in cells (about 7.0), what happens to the amino group...
The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an...
A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one...
Stomata, openings in the leaf, are important to photosynthesis for...
Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through...
How is the nuclear membrane related to the endoplasmic reticulum?
Nitric oxide (NO), a substance with small molecular weight, is rapidly...
GLUT-1 is an example of what?
The small intestine is the site of digestion and absorption of...
Put the following events in the process of signal-transduction for...
10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.65 pointsWhich of the following...
Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be...
10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.71 pointsFor cells to divide more...
Which of the following individuals provided the first empirical...
What molecule is responsible for the catalytic activity in the...
What is the function of the 3′ end of the tRNA?
What characteristic of ATP is responsible for its high energy level...
The M-phase checkpoint is designed to make sure all chromosomes are...
Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a...
Sister chromatids in meiosis separate during ________.
Question 12 Multiple Choice Average Score 0 points (Extra credit)In...
Fatty acids typically have an even number of carbons. They are...
Two white-flowered parental plants from independent but true-breeding...
A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is ________...
The inner mitochondrial membrane normally ________.
Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor...
Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where...
Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle...
CAM plants function using crassulacean acid metabolism. Like C4...
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