Biology Final

106 Questions  I  By Aislingc
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Biology Quizzes & Trivia
All my quizzes and test questions combined throughout the year for my biology class to study for my final.

  
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  • 1. 
    If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?
    • A. 

      It has the same number of protons as electrons.

    • B. 

      It has two more protons than neutrons.

    • C. 

      It has one more electron than it does protons.

    • D. 

      It has one more proton than it does electrons.


  • 2. 
    When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution in water, regions of the moleculewith _________ bonds will be near the surface (associated with water molecules) because theseregions are ____________.
    • A. 

      Non-polar / hydrophilic

    • B. 

      Non-polar / hydrophobic

    • C. 

      Polar / hydrophobic

    • D. 

      Parched / thirsty

    • E. 

      Polar / hydrophilic


  • 3. 
    Which of the following properties of water is NOT affected by the strong cohesion between H2O molecules?
    • A. 

      Heat Of vaporization

    • B. 

      Specfic heat

    • C. 

      Surface tension

    • D. 

      Ph

    • E. 

      Adhesion


  • 4. 
    Carbon has proven to be an extremely useful backbone element for complex biological molecules dueto strong electronegativity and valence number of 7, which allows carbon atoms to attract electrons fromalmost any other element.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 5. 
    A chemical reaction in which the product has more potential chemical energy than the reactants iscalled endergonic.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 6. 
    One atom named Stan shares electrons with Betty. Between them they share 4 electrons. What kind ofbond do they share?
    • A. 

      Single Bond

    • B. 

      Valance Bond

    • C. 

      Double Bond

    • D. 

      Bond Of Love


  • 7. 
    When Sodium loses an electron to chlorine it becomes?
    • A. 

      A cation

    • B. 

      As mad as @#$#@%^&

    • C. 

      An Anion

    • D. 

      Negatively charged


  • 8. 
    The two most common elements in the human body by number (not by mass) are _________and_________ .

  • 9. 
    A solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. What is its pH?____________ Is the solution considered acidic or basic?_______________

  • 10. 
    Molecules of this type are bonded together in_______________ reactions to form a_________________.
    • A. 

      Exergonic/ hydrogen bond

    • B. 

      Ionic/ nucleotide

    • C. 

      Hydrolysis/ prion

    • D. 

      Condensation/ polypeptide

    • E. 

      Aminocarboxylation / protein


  • 11. 
    Amino acids with ___________ groups that contain __________ are likely to be hydrophilic.
    • A. 

      Functional / hydrogen

    • B. 

      R/ Oxygen

    • C. 

      Hydroxyl/ oxygen

    • D. 

      Phosphate/ oxygen

    • E. 

      Ketone/ nitrogen


  • 12. 
    Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make proteins?a carboxyl group, COOHa side chain, Ra phosphorous atom, Pan amino functional group, NH2
    • A. 

      A carboxyl group, COOH

    • B. 

      A side chain, R

    • C. 

      A phosphorous atom, P

    • D. 

      An amino functional group, NH2


  • 13. 
    Why are polymerization reactions endergonic?
    • A. 

      They release heat. making the reatant monomers move faster

    • B. 

      They reduce entropy

    • C. 

      Because the condensation and hydrolysis reactions are equally spontaneous.

    • D. 

      Because polymers are energetically more stable and have lower potential energy than monomers do.


  • 14. 
    At the pH found in cells (about 7.0), what happens to the amino group on an amino acid?
    • A. 

      It is reduced, and tends to act as an electron donor in redox reactions.

    • B. 

      It acts as an acid and loses a proton, giving it a negative charge.

    • C. 

      It acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge.

    • D. 

      It remains neutral, like water, and does not have a charge.


  • 15. 
    Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms.Predict the behavior of this amino acid.
    • A. 

      Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be intermediate.

    • B. 

      It is hydrophilic.

    • C. 

      It is hydrophobic.

    • D. 

      Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be very high.


  • 16. 
    An isomer of a particular molecule is :
    • A. 

      A molecule that has the same formula, but a different structure.

    • B. 

      Another copy of the same molecule.

    • C. 

      A molecule that is the same except it has an additional side group.

    • D. 

      A molecule that has the same structure as the target molecule, but a different formula.


  • 17. 
    To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to be a liquid at the temperaturesfound in your car's engine and have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat. You have a referencebook with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your car,which table would you check first?
    • A. 

      Heat of vaporization

    • B. 

      Specific heat

    • C. 

      Ph

    • D. 

      Density at room temperature


  • 18. 
    You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, anddetermined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. You notice it has two binding sites.One of these is large, apparently the bonding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly abinding site for a regulatory molecule. What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of thisprotein?
    • A. 

      It is probably a structural protein found in cartilage or skeletal tissue.

    • B. 

      It is probably a structural protein that is involved in cell-to-cell adhesion.

    • C. 

      It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

    • D. 

      It is probably a cell membrane transport protein–like an ion channel

    • E. 

      It is probably an enzyme that works through competitive inhibition.


  • 19. 
    Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like amonosaccharide or an amino acid) from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration onthe inside of a cell?
    • A. 

      Facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein

    • C. 

      Passive transport

    • D. 

      Active transport through a "pump" protein


  • 20. 
    GLUT-1 is an example of what?
    • A. 

      A recognition protein that identifies cells as belonging to the body

    • B. 

      A transport protein that facilitates diffusion of a large molecule across cell membranes

    • C. 

      A protein that is toxic to cells by opening channels in membranes

    • D. 

      A membrane-bound pump that moves large molecules against a gradient by using ATP


  • 21. 
    The small intestine is the site of digestion and absorption of nutrients. A single layer of epithelial cells lines thesmall intestine. In the duodenum (the first section of the small intestine), these epithelial cells secrete largequantities of digestive enzymes. Which of the following features would be typical of these epithelial cells?
    • A. 

      They have more smooth endoplasmic reticulum than rough endoplasmic reticulum.

    • B. 

      They have larger nuclei than cells that secrete large quantities of lipids

    • C. 

      They contain large quantities of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

    • D. 

      They contain large numbers of lysosomes.


  • 22. 
    What is the site of synthesis of proteins for export (secretion from the cell)?
    • A. 

      Free ribosomes

    • B. 

      Ribosomes that attach to the outer mitochondrial membrane

    • C. 

      Ribosomes that attach to the endoplasmic reticulum

    • D. 

      Ribosomes that attach to the Golgi complex


  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share?
    • A. 

      They both have their own DNA.

    • B. 

      They are capable of reproducing themselves.

    • C. 

      They both have multiple membranes.

    • D. 

      They are both part of the endomembrane system.


  • 24. 
    How is the nuclear membrane related to the endoplasmic reticulum?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes that exit the nucleus through the nuclear pore complex attach to ribosome receptor locations on the endoplasmic reticulum, thus providing a means of communication between the two structures.

    • B. 

      The inner and outer bilayers of the nuclear envelope are separated by a space that is continuous with the space inside the endoplasmic reticulum, thus providing direct contact between the two structures

    • C. 

      The nuclear lamina anchors the endoplasmic reticulum, providing structural support and communication through direct contact

    • D. 

      The nucleolus is present in the nucleus, but communicates directly with the endoplasmic reticulum.


  • 25. 
    What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?
    • A. 

      To provide a means of cell-cell interaction

    • B. 

      To protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment

    • C. 

      To regulate the passage of solutes into and out of the cell

    • D. 

      To enable the cell to obtain nutrients from its environment


  • 26. 
    What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?
    • A. 

      They are defective proteins.

    • B. 

      They are foreign proteins.

    • C. 

      They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).

    • D. 

      They have been tagged for destruction.


  • 27. 
    What is the most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously?
    • A. 

      The process is endothermic

    • B. 

      It leads to an increase in entropy.

    • C. 

      It leads to a decrease in entropy.

    • D. 

      The process is exothermic.


  • 28. 
    Mitochondrial DNA codes for about 13 proteins (depending on the species of organism). These 13 proteinsaccount for a small proportion of the proteins present in mitochondria. The remaining proteins are coded for bynuclear DNA. What is the most likely explanation for how these proteins find their way to the mitochondria?
    • A. 

      Signal sequences

    • B. 

      MRNAs that are manufactured in the nucleus, but translated by mitochondrial ribosomes

    • C. 

      Random transport vesicles

    • D. 

      Attachment of ribosomes to outer mitochondrial pores and direct deposition into the inner mitochondrial compartment


  • 29. 
    Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require energy?
    • A. 

      Whenever molecules are moved that are too large to pass through the phospholipid bilayer membrane

    • B. 

      Whenever a solute is charged, such as an ion, and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane

    • C. 

      Whenever a molecule is polar and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane

    • D. 

      Whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high concentration through a phospholipid bilayer membrane


  • 30. 
    Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among theosteocytes. The collagen and calcium salts are ________.
    • A. 

      Components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes.

    • B. 

      Deposited by the circulatory system and are not associated with the osteocytes.

    • C. 

      Extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.

    • D. 

      Part of the extracellular matrix


  • 31. 
    Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to ________.
    • A. 

      Cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix.

    • B. 

      Pathogens.

    • C. 

      Membranes of intracellular organelles.

    • D. 

      Glycogen molecules and other cellular inclusions.


  • 32. 
    Put the following events in the process of signal-transduction for epinephrine action in order:1. A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.2. Protein kinases are activated.3. A signal molecule binds to a receptor.4. Target proteins are phosphorylated.5. Second messenger molecules are released.
    • A. 

      3,1,2,5,4

    • B. 

      3,1,5,2,4

    • C. 

      1,3,4,2,5

    • D. 

      1,2,3,4,5


  • 33. 
    A kinase is an enzyme that ________.
    • A. 

      Functions as a second messenger molecule.

    • B. 

      Produces second messenger molecules.

    • C. 

      Adds a phosphate group to target molecules.

    • D. 

      Serves as a receptor for various signal molecules.


  • 34. 
    G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors both initiate the signal transduction response bybinding signal molecules.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 35. 
    Nitric oxide (NO), a substance with small molecular weight, is rapidly degraded within an organismbut can function as a hormone. How does this substance enter the cell?
    • A. 

      NO is soluble in the membrane, so it can diffuse into the cell.

    • B. 

      It doesn't enter the cell, but attaches to a G-protein receptor and initiates a signal transduction pathway.

    • C. 

      It directly affects gene expression.

    • D. 

      It attaches to a receptor on the surface. The receptor-signal complex results in a conformational change that internalizes NO.


  • 36. 
    Spherocytosis is a defect associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in red blood cells. What do you suspectis one consequence of defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells?
    • A. 

      Adhering of blood cells to blood vessel walls, causing the formation of plaque

    • B. 

      Abnormal cell shape

    • C. 

      A lack of cellular proteins available to transport oxygen

    • D. 

      Insufficient energy supply in the cell


  • 37. 
    Multiple Choice Average Score 0.63 points (Extra credit)The glucocorticoid receptor is a protein that is found only in the cytoplasm until the hormone glucocorticoid entersthe cell and binds to this receptor. The receptor then translocates to the nucleus, where it regulates thetranscription of certain genes. If a specific sequence of the receptor is deleted from the protein, the receptor stillbinds glucocorticoid but does not enter the nucleus. Consider the following additional hypothetical experiment. Ifthe mutant receptor is fused with a fragment of protein that is normally found in the nucleus, the receptor entersthe nucleus regardless of whether glucocorticoid is bound. Which conclusion can be drawn from theseobservations?
    • A. 

      The binding of glucocorticoid to the receptor must expose a nuclear localization signal.

    • B. 

      Glucocorticoid is the nuclear localization signal for the receptor.

    • C. 

      The glucocorticoid receptor does not have a nuclear localization sequence.

    • D. 

      The glucocorticoid receptor enters the nucleus by a mechanism different from other proteins found in the nucleus.


  • 38. 
    Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect thefunction of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must ________.
    • A. 

      Have the same genetic makeup.

    • B. 

      Be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone.

    • C. 

      Have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.

    • D. 

      Be experiencing a disruption in homeostasis.


  • 39. 
    Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones, namely insulin and glucagon. When blood sugar rises,insulin is released; it binds to receptors and, through signal transduction, results in an increase in glucoseuptake by cells, effectively lowering blood glucose. When blood sugar decreases, glucagon is released, binds tocell receptors, and causes glucose to be released into circulation. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that results from excessively high levels of blood glucose. Type II diabetics have normal to elevated levels of insulin. What,then, might be causing the elevated blood glucose levels?
    • A. 

      Inability to regulate gene expression

    • B. 

      Inadequate insulin production

    • C. 

      Defective receptors

    • D. 

      Defective second messenger


  • 40. 
    What characteristic of ATP is responsible for its high energy level compared to AMP?
    • A. 

      The phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups

    • B. 

      The C—H bonds of the ribose sugar

    • C. 

      The closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups

    • D. 

      The nitrogen atoms in adenine


  • 41. 
    Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle and before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation,the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. Most of the energy from the original glucose atthat point is still in the form of ________.
    • A. 

      ATP

    • B. 

      NADH

    • C. 

      CO2

    • D. 

      H2O


  • 42. 
    Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis was rapidly proceeding help sustainthe metabolic pathway?
    • A. 

      It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism.

    • B. 

      The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated

    • C. 

      It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group has four oxygen atoms as constituents.

    • D. 

      It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced.


  • 43. 
    A metabolic pathway, glycolysis, is active when cellular energy levels are ________; the regulatory enzyme,phosphofructokinase, is ________ by ATP.
    • A. 

      High; activated

    • B. 

      Low; inhibited

    • C. 

      Low; activated

    • D. 

      High; inhibited


  • 44. 
    Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a givenchemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate. Substrate-level phosphorylation is seenin which metabolic pathway(s)?
    • A. 

      Krebs Cycle

    • B. 

      Both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

    • C. 

      Electron transport chain

    • D. 

      All of the above pathways involve steps where substrate level phosphorylation takes place

    • E. 

      Glycolysis


  • 45. 
    Which of these statements concerning the following reaction is true?Malate + NAD+ → oxaloacetate + NADH + H+
    • A. 

      Malate is more oxidized than oxaloacetate.

    • B. 

      Oxaloacetate is more reduced than malate.

    • C. 

      NAD+ is more reduced than NADH.

    • D. 

      Malate is more reduced than oxaloacetate.


  • 46. 
    Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
    • A. 

      The breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide

    • B. 

      Breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules

    • C. 

      Substrate-level phosphorylation

    • D. 

      The extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle


  • 47. 
    Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
    • A. 

      Electrons are received from NADH and FADH2.

    • B. 

      Electrons are passed from donor to recipient carrier molecules in a series of oxidation-reduction reactions.

    • C. 

      Usually the terminal electron acceptor is oxygen.

    • D. 

      Most of the enzymes are part of the inner mitochondrial membrane

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 48. 
    Animals inhale air containing oxygen and exhale air with less oxygen and more carbon dioxide. Afterinhalation, the extra oxygen from the air will mostly be found in
    • A. 

      Water

    • B. 

      Organic molecules.

    • C. 

      Ethanol

    • D. 

      Lactate

    • E. 

      The carbon dioxide that is exhaled.


  • 49. 
    Fatty acids typically have an even number of carbons. They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation.The end-products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules. What is the most likelyfate of the acetyl groups?
    • A. 

      They directly enter the electron transport chain.

    • B. 

      They are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.

    • C. 

      They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.

    • D. 

      They directly enter the Krebs cycle


  • 50. 
    10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.65 pointsWhich of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is false?
    • A. 

      Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant.

    • B. 

      Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise it is unregulated.

    • C. 

      Reactions of the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix.

    • D. 

      In the electron transport chain, electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next.


  • 51. 
    The inner mitochondrial membrane normally ________.
    • A. 

      Contains enzymes responsible for two of the chemical reactions that take place as part of glycolysis.

    • B. 

      Contains permease channels that allow small ions and water to pass readily through the membrane by simple diffusion.

    • C. 

      Contains an active transport pump that pumps protons into the inner mitochondrial compartment from the point of high concentration to a point of lower concentration.

    • D. 

      Is virtually impermeable to hydrogen ions (protons).


  • 52. 
    A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to takeplace ________.
    • A. 

      The parent cell must first be fertilized.

    • B. 

      The parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions. In this way, differentiation occurs

    • C. 

      The parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase.

    • D. 

      The parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.


  • 53. 
    At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has ________.
    • A. 

      Twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the G1 parent cell.

    • B. 

      Twice the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell.

    • C. 

      Identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell.

    • D. 

      Half the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell.


  • 54. 
    Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1½ times moreDNA than do G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are in ________.
    • A. 

      The process of cytokinesis

    • B. 

      The G2 phase of the cell cycle.

    • C. 

      S Phase

    • D. 

      M Phase


  • 55. 
    The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phasesof the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Centromere

    • B. 

      Cell plate

    • C. 

      Kinetochore

    • D. 

      Centrosome


  • 56. 
    The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in ________.
    • A. 

      Triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes.

    • B. 

      Disassembly of the nucleolus.

    • C. 

      Separation of sister chromatids.

    • D. 

      Splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis.


  • 57. 
    Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How might such multinucleated cells arise?
    • A. 

      Repeated mitosis without cytokinesis

    • B. 

      Multiple S phases before the entry of a cell into mitosis

    • C. 

      Repeated mitosis with concomitant cytokinesis

    • D. 

      Repeated cytokinesis with no mitosis


  • 58. 
    In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores andshorten at the same time?
    • A. 

      The centrosomes move apart, so the microtubular proteins do not need to shorten.

    • B. 

      The centrosomes create the shortening/depolymerization of the microtubular proteins.

    • C. 

      Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle.

    • D. 

      Actin microfilaments cause the microtubular proteins to slide past each other.


  • 59. 
    Stomata, openings in the leaf, are important to photosynthesis for ________.
    • A. 

      Removal of nitrogen-containing waste products

    • B. 

      Entry of carbon dioxide that is used in the Calvin cycle.

    • C. 

      Entry of oxygen that is used in the Calvin cycle.

    • D. 

      Removal of water and carbon dioxide, the end-products of photo-oxidation


  • 60. 
    CAM plants function using crassulacean acid metabolism. Like C4 plants, CAM plants provide a preparatory stepfor the Calvin cycle. CAM plants are found in hot, dry environments; to prevent dessication, they keep theirstomata closed during the day. They take in carbon dioxide at night while stomata are open. To increase theconcentration of carbon dioxide available to the enzyme rubisco and minimize the degree of photorespiration, theCAM plants carboxylate ________.
    • A. 

      Phosphoenolpyruvate

    • B. 

      Ribose

    • C. 

      Organic acids

    • D. 

      Oxaloacetate


  • 61. 
    Which of the following is a reasonable pathway for a carbon atom in a CO2 molecule, released from the Krebscycle in one of your cells, to re-enter the Krebs cycle in another one of your cells?
    • A. 

      Diffuses into the bloodstream → is breathed out through the lungs → is inhaled by a mouse → becomes fixed into a C4 acid by PEP carboxylase → is converted to glucose in the Calvin cycle → the mouse climbs into your freezer and is frozen→ you mistake the mouse for a popsicle and eat it → you digest the mouse and glucose is transported through your bloodstream into a muscle cell → glucose moves through the glycolytic pathway → is converted to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

    • B. 

      Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → is incorporated into G-3-P by the Calvin cycle in a sugar plant → is converted into sucrose → the sugar plant is used to make cane sugar, which then is used as an ingredient in Tang → you are sent to Mars as an astronaut/biologist to look for evidence of life → your get thirsty and drink the Tang → glucose enters your bloodstream from intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion → glucose enters your muscle cells and moves into the glycolytic pathway → the end product of glycolysis is converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

    • C. 

      Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled though your lungs → is inhaled by your friend Stan → is fixed into G-3-P in the Calvin cycle in one of Stan’s mitochondria → is pumped into Stan’s bloodstream through a GLUT-1 transporter → is exhaled by Stan while the two of you are dining at Taco Bell → is picked up by an E. coli cell in your taco → you eat the E. coli cell → the cell diffuses into your bloodstream then into a muscle cell → it enters the mitochondrion and is digested to form G-3-P and acetyl coA.

    • D. 

      Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → diffuses into a Dictyostelium cell → causes Dictyostelium to form a fruiting body which releases the molecule as a spore → you inhale the spore and it diffuses into your bloodstream → it is incorporated into acetyl coA through and exergonic reaction catalyzed by the enzyme hexokinase → is imported into a muscle cell via osmosis→ it diffuses into the mitochondrion and combines with citrate to form rubisco.

    • E. 

      Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → diffuses into a raindrop and soaks into the ground → is converted into ethanol through fermentation by an anaerobic fungus → moves into the roots of an apple tree by pinocytosis → moves through the plant’s vascular system to a cell in a developing fruit → enters the Z-scheme and is converted to NADPH → moves into the mitochondrion and is converted to acetyl CoA in the Calvin cycle → you eat the apple and acetyl CoA is moved into your bloodstream through a ATPase ion pump → it diffuses into a muscle cell and undergoes β-oxidation, which is yet another name for the Krebs cycle.


  • 62. 
    Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrowsinvolved in animal cell cytokinesis?
    • A. 

      Tubulin

    • B. 

      Actin

    • C. 

      Dynein

    • D. 

      Elastin


  • 63. 
    FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein. It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function isanalogous to ________.
    • A. 

      The cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells.

    • B. 

      The cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells.

    • C. 

      The mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells.

    • D. 

      The microtubular organizing center of eukaryotic cells.


  • 64. 
    Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle microtubules, the next question theywanted to answer is how the microtubules function to bring about this process. They used fluorescent labels tomake the chromosomes and the microtubular structures fluoresce. When anaphase began (centromeres split),they photobleached a section of microtubules. As chromosomes moved toward the poles of the daughter cells,the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary. This result suggests that ________.
    • A. 

      The microtubules elongate and shorten at their kinetochore end.

    • B. 

      The microtubules overlap, and slide with respect to each other, effectively shortening the microtubules without depolymerizing the actual fiber.

    • C. 

      The microtubules are of constant length; centrosomes move farther apart to separate chromosomes

    • D. 

      The microtubules elongate and shorten at the centrosome end.


  • 65. 
    Nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis. Instead, they are permanently stuck in ________.
    • A. 

      S of interphase.

    • B. 

      G2

    • C. 

      G0

    • D. 

      Meiosis


  • 66. 
    Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF duringmitosis?
    • A. 

      Cyclin is degraded; the concentration of cyclin-dependent kinase remains unchanged, but without cyclin, MPF is not formed.

    • B. 

      The cyclin-dependent kinases take on a function unrelated to mitosis.

    • C. 

      Cyclin-dependent kinase is degraded; cyclin concentration remains constant, but without cyclin-dependent kinase, MPF is not formed.

    • D. 

      It is completely degraded.


  • 67. 
    Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) involved in moving a cell into M phase?Correct Answers Percent Answered
    • A. 

      Phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule

    • B. 

      Phosphorylation of lamins, initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane

    • C. 

      Phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins, triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle

    • D. 

      Degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase


  • 68. 
    The M-phase checkpoint is designed to make sure all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If thisfails to happen, in which stage of mitosis would the cells be most likely to arrest?
    • A. 

      Metaphase

    • B. 

      Prophase

    • C. 

      Telophase

    • D. 

      Prometaphase


  • 69. 
    If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.
    • A. 

      Pass the G2 checkpoint.

    • B. 

      Synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases.

    • C. 

      Enter G1 from mitosis.

    • D. 

      Activate DNA repair mechanisms.


  • 70. 
    9 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.92 pointsRegulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage arealso known as ________.
    • A. 

      Tumor suppressors.

    • B. 

      Antibodies

    • C. 

      Cyclin-dependent kinases.

    • D. 

      Cyclins.


  • 71. 
    10 Multiple Choice Average Score 0.71 pointsFor cells to divide more rapidly, increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteinsexcept ________.
    • A. 

      PDGF

    • B. 

      P53

    • C. 

      Activated MPF

    • D. 

      Cyclins


  • 72. 
    Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a process called ________.
    • A. 

      Meiosis

    • B. 

      Binary fission

    • C. 

      Mitosis

    • D. 

      Fertilization


  • 73. 
    Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a process called ________.
    • A. 

      Meiosis

    • B. 

      Mitosis

    • C. 

      Binary fission

    • D. 

      Fertilization


  • 74. 
    Sister chromatids in meiosis separate during ________.
    • A. 

      Anaphase I

    • B. 

      Anaphase II

    • C. 

      Interkinesis

    • D. 

      Metaphase


  • 75. 
    What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?
    • A. 

      Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis II.

    • B. 

      Meiosis II takes place in a haploid cell, while mitosis takes place in diploid cells

    • C. 

      Homologues align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.

    • D. 

      Crossover takes place in meiosis II.


  • 76. 
    Crossover, the exchange of segments of homologous chromosomes, takes place during which of the followingprocesses?
    • A. 

      Cytokinesis

    • B. 

      Anaphase I

    • C. 

      Synapsis

    • D. 

      DNA replication


  • 77. 
    Homologous chromosomes ________.
    • A. 

      Are identical

    • B. 

      Align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.

    • C. 

      Carry information on the same trait

    • D. 

      Carry the same alleles


  • 78. 
    The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      8


  • 79. 
    What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g., triploidy)?Correct Answers Percent Answered 8.696%
    • A. 

      They go through three sets of meiosis (meiosis I, meiosis II, and meiosis III)

    • B. 

      They produce offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (e.g., tetraploid, hexaploid).

    • C. 

      Their offspring are often sterile.

    • D. 

      Their cells are unable to complete meiosis.


  • 80. 
    At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?
    • A. 

      Between meiosis I and meiosis II

    • B. 

      Prophase I

    • C. 

      DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.

    • D. 

      None. DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.


  • 81. 
    The diploid number of a roundworm species is 4. You have a male and a female roundworm that are planninga family. Assuming there is no crossover, and random segregation of homologues during meiosis, how manydifferent possible combinations of chromosomes might there be in the offspring?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      64


  • 82. 
    Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through which of the following processes?
    • A. 

      Sexual reproduction

    • B. 

      Mutation

    • C. 

      Asexual reproduction and genetic recombination

    • D. 

      Pangenisis


  • 83. 
    What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?Correct Answers Percent Answered
    • A. 

      Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis.

    • B. 

      Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.

    • C. 

      DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I.

    • D. 

      Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis I.


  • 84. 
    If an individual has two copies of the same allele at a given locus, which of the following terms would describehis/her genotype for that specific trait?
    • A. 

      Dominant

    • B. 

      Recessive

    • C. 

      Homozygous

    • D. 

      Diploid

    • E. 

      Dihybrid


  • 85. 
    Multiple Choice Average Score 0 pointsWhy was Mendel able to recover a three to one ratio of parental types in the F2 generations of his monohybridcrosses?
    • A. 

      He worked with round rather than wrinkled peas

    • B. 

      He only used co-dominant alleles in his crosses.

    • C. 

      He avoided large sample sizes and never took a quantitative approach.

    • D. 

      Mendel didn't recover a 3:1 phenotype ratio in the F2 generation. All of F2 progeny showed the same phenotype.

    • E. 

      He used only true-breeding parental lines.


  • 86. 
    The following is a reasonable modern statement of Mendel's two laws of inheritance: "each individual has twoalleles at a given locus, which segregate from each other at meiosis and assort independently from other unlinkedloci."
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 87. 
    A recessive allele is defined as any allele that results in a deleterious or negative phenotype.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 88. 
    A mother with type A blood and a father with type B blood produce a child with type O blood. Which of thefollowing statements must be true?
    • A. 

      The mother is heterozygous for the A allele, and the father is homozygous for the B allele.

    • B. 

      Both parents are homozygous at the blood-type locus.

    • C. 

      Both parents are heterozygous at the blood-type locus.

    • D. 

      Someone else must be the father, because a child of these two parents could not possibly have type O blood.

    • E. 

      The mother is homozygous for the A allele, and the father is heterozygous for the B allele.


  • 89. 
    A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melaninpigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What is the probability that theirfirst child will be an albino girl?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1/2

    • C. 

      1/4

    • D. 

      1/8

    • E. 

      100


  • 90. 
    Two white-flowered parental plants from independent but true-breeding genetic lineages produce an F1 generationwith all purple flowers. Which of the following is a reasonable explanation?
    • A. 

      Epistasis.

    • B. 

      Flower color is a quantitative trait.

    • C. 

      Purple is recessive to white.

    • D. 

      Flower color must be encoded for genes in the chloroplast genome.

    • E. 

      Mendel was wrong, after all!


  • 91. 
    Which of the following is the genetic basis for a phenotypic trait that has a normal distribution in a population (forexample, height of individuals in the population).
    • A. 

      Everyone in the population is heterozygous at the height locus.

    • B. 

      Many different genetic loci contribute to a given height phenotype.

    • C. 

      Tall and short are co-dominant alleles at a single height locus.

    • D. 

      Height is inherited in a non-Mendelian fashion.

    • E. 

      Height is an X-linked trait


  • 92. 
    A standard dihybrid cross of two true-breeding individuals produces the following phenotypic ratios in the F2generation: 9:3:3:1. You would be safe coming to which of the following conclusions?
    • A. 

      There is a dominant and recessive allele at both loci used in the cross.

    • B. 

      The loci encoding the two traits in this cross are unlinked.

    • C. 

      The original parental plants both were homozygous at both loci studied in this cross.

    • D. 

      The alleles at each locus segregate from each other during meiosis, and assort independently from the alleles at the other locus.

    • E. 

      All The Above


  • 93. 
    If you performed a dihybrid cross of two loci that were 100 centimorgans apart, you would expect to see 100%recombinant phenotypes in the F2 generation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 94. 
    Which of the following individuals provided the first empirical evidence that genes are located on specificchromosomes, using genetic crosses in the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster?
    • A. 

      Thomas Hunt Morgan

    • B. 

      Gregor Mendel

    • C. 

      Carl Correns

    • D. 

      T.A. Knight

    • E. 

      Giggles, the dancing ostrich


  • 95. 
    Question 12 Multiple Choice Average Score 0 points (Extra credit)In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessivetrait. A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also hasnormal color vision. He has brown eyes but his mother had blue eyes. Which of the following do you expect tobe true for their daughters?
    • A. 

      One-half of their daughters will be color blind and have blue eyes; 1/2 their daughters will be color blind and have brown eyes

    • B. 

      One-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes; 1/2 of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes.

    • C. 

      Their daughters will all have normal color vision and brown eyes.

    • D. 

      One-fourth of their daughters will be color blind and have blue eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will be color blind and have brown eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes.

    • E. 

      Their daughters will all have normal color vision and have blue eyes.


  • 96. 
    RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not needed for transcript elongation. What is thesubunit?
    • A. 

      The holoenzyme

    • B. 

      Sigma

    • C. 

      Mg2

    • D. 

      Rho


  • 97. 
    2 Multiple Choice Average Score 1 pointsThe segments of DNA where transcription begins have a binding site for RNA polymerase. These segments areknown as ________.
    • A. 

      Sigma

    • B. 

      Promotors

    • C. 

      The holoenzyme

    • D. 

      Initiation factors


  • 98. 
    A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA, while a primarytranscript in a prokaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA.
    • A. 

      The same size as; larger than

    • B. 

      Larger than; smaller than

    • C. 

      The same as; the same size as

    • D. 

      Larger than; the same size as


  • 99. 
    What molecule is responsible for the catalytic activity in the spliceosomes that are involved in removal of introns?
    • A. 

      Autocatalysis by introns

    • B. 

      Proteins of the spliceosome

    • C. 

      RNA polymerase

    • D. 

      Ribozymes


  • 100. 
    Which of the following is(are) post-transcriptional modifications occurring in eukaryotic mRNAs?
    • A. 

      Addition of a methyl-guanosine cap

    • B. 

      Removal of introns

    • C. 

      Addition of a poly (A) tail

    • D. 

      All the above


  • 101. 
    Multiple Choice Average Score 1 pointsWhich of the following occurs in prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes?
    • A. 

      Post-transcriptional splicing

    • B. 

      Concurrent transcription and translation

    • C. 

      Gene regulation

    • D. 

      Translation in the absence of a ribosome


  • 102. 
    What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added with reading of a specific codon duringtranslation?
    • A. 

      The poly (A) tail of a properly modified mRNA

    • B. 

      The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA

    • C. 

      The twisting number of a properly supercoiled DNA

    • D. 

      The methyl-guanosine cap of a properly modified mRNA


  • 103. 
    What is the function of the 3′ end of the tRNA?
    • A. 

      It base pairs with the codon of mRNA

    • B. 

      It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex

    • C. 

      It attaches to the amino acid.

    • D. 

      It is the active site of this ribozyme.


  • 104. 
    There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino acid, and three stop codons for whichthere is no corresponding amino acid. However, there are only about 40 tRNA molecules, representing 40anticodons. How is that possible?
    • A. 

      There are tRNAs that can bind one of two related amino acids.

    • B. 

      Only 20 of the codons are active–one for each amino acid

    • C. 

      An anticodon forms hydrogen bonds with the codon; it must match the first two bases of the codon, but is less specific with respect to the third base.

    • D. 

      Only about 40 of the recognized 61 codons are present in mRNA


  • 105. 
    The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is the start codon?
    • A. 

      AUG

    • B. 

      GGC

    • C. 

      An anticodon

    • D. 

      ATG


  • 106. 
    Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order.1. Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit.2. Recognition of initiation codon3. Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA4. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA5. Attachment of the large subunit
    • A. 

      2,1,4,3,5

    • B. 

      5,4,3,2,1

    • C. 

      1,2.3.5.4

    • D. 

      1,2,3,4,5


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