Anatomy & Physiology Exam#2

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Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia
(Bones and joints and muscles)

  
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Questions and Answers

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  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a step in the formation of endochondral bone?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage develops in to the shape of the future bone

    • B. 

      Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone

    • C. 

      Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of the disintegrating cartilage.


  • 2. 
    The hard palate is composed of the
    • A. 

      Sphenoid and ethmoid bones

    • B. 

      Nasal conchae and vomer bones

    • C. 

      Zygomatic and lacrimal bones

    • D. 

      Maxillary and palatine bones


  • 3. 
    The coxal bones include the
    • A. 

      Ilium

    • B. 

      Ischium

    • C. 

      Pubis

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 4. 
    Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
    • A. 

      Responsible for the production of blood cells

    • B. 

      Storage of inorganic salts

    • C. 

      Protection of organs, especially in the head and thorax

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 5. 
    Which of the following is an example of the intramembranous bone?
    • A. 

      The parietal bone of the skull

    • B. 

      The phalanges of the fingers

    • C. 

      The humerus of the arm

    • D. 

      The femur of the leg


  • 6. 
    The presence of a cartilaginous epiphyseal disk indicates that 
    • A. 

      The bone length is increasing

    • B. 

      The bone length is no longer increasing

    • C. 

      The bone diameter is increasing

    • D. 

      The bone is dead


  • 7. 
    At what age are all bones normally ossified?
    • A. 

      At birth

    • B. 

      5 years

    • C. 

      15 years

    • D. 

      25 years


  • 8. 
    Endochondral ossification involves ___________, whereas intramembranous ossification involves _________.
    • A. 

      Forming bone by replacing hyaline cartilage; replacing connective tissue

    • B. 

      Forming bone in broad, flat area of the skull; the arms and legs

    • C. 

      Hardening of the bone as a result of deposition of calcium salts; osteoclast cells

    • D. 

      Forming bone by the action of the osteocytes; the action of osteoblasts


  • 9. 
    Osteoblasts are _________, whereas osteoclasts are _____________.
    • A. 

      Bone forming cells; bone destroying cells

    • B. 

      Mature bone cells ; bone forming cells

    • C. 

      Bone forming cells; mature bone cells

    • D. 

      Bone destroying cells; bone forming cells


  • 10. 
    Osteoclast cells are defined as
    • A. 

      Bone cells that secrete bone matrix

    • B. 

      Mature bone cells that maintain the matrix

    • C. 

      Immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes

    • D. 

      Bone cells that resorb bone tissue


  • 11. 
    The effects of exercise on bones are to _________ and to __________.
    • A. 

      Thicken ; elongate

    • B. 

      Elongate; weaken

    • C. 

      Thicken ; strengthen

    • D. 

      Thin; atrophy


  • 12. 
    The proximal ___________ is an expanded portion of the bone that articulates with another bone.
    • A. 

      Cartilage

    • B. 

      Trabeculae

    • C. 

      Epiphysis

    • D. 

      Diaphysis


  • 13. 
    The white substance that reduces friction, found at the ends of bones is called
    • A. 

      The epiphysis

    • B. 

      Articular cartilage

    • C. 

      The periosteum

    • D. 

      The endosteum


  • 14. 
    Articular cartilage is made from
    • A. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • B. 

      Endochondral cartilage

    • C. 

      Hyoid cartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage


  • 15. 
    Osteoclasts are large cells that cause breakdown of osseous tissue
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 16. 
    The tarsal bones form the wrist
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 17. 
    The appendicular skeleton consists of parts that support and protect the head, neck and trunk.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 18. 
    Osteocytes become osteoblasts when they are completely surrounded by bony matrix.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 19. 
    The tough, fibrous tissue that encloses a long bone is called the ________.

  • 20. 
    The xyphoid process is part of the _______.

  • 21. 
    Bone forming cells are called __________.

  • 22. 
    The joints between the bodies of the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as
    • A. 

      Immovable

    • B. 

      Slightly movable

    • C. 

      Freely movable

    • D. 

      Synovial


  • 23. 
    Which of the following is a synovial joint?
    • A. 

      Condyloid

    • B. 

      Ball and socket

    • C. 

      Saddle

    • D. 

      Symphysis pubis


  • 24. 
    A suture is an example of a(n)
    • A. 

      Fibrous joint

    • B. 

      Cartilaginous joint

    • C. 

      Synovial joint

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 25. 
    Cartilaginous joints are connected by
    • A. 

      Synovial fluid

    • B. 

      Bibrous connective tissue

    • C. 

      Hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      A joint capsule


  • 26. 
    Bones of a synovial joint are held together by
    • A. 

      A synovial membrane

    • B. 

      A joint capsule

    • C. 

      A meniscus

    • D. 

      A bursa


  • 27. 
    Fluid filled sacs found between the skin and underlying bony prominences are called
    • A. 

      Ligaments

    • B. 

      Menisci

    • C. 

      Bursae

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 28. 
    In which of the following is rotational movement possible?
    • A. 

      Ball and socket

    • B. 

      Condyloid joint

    • C. 

      Hinge joint

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 29. 
    A muscle end attached to a relatively immovable part is called the
    • A. 

      Symphysis

    • B. 

      Articulation

    • C. 

      Origin

    • D. 

      Insertion


  • 30. 
    Which of the following movements could occur at the hip joint?
    • A. 

      Extension

    • B. 

      Rotation

    • C. 

      Adduction

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 31. 
    Joints serve to
    • A. 

      Bind skeletal parts together

    • B. 

      Allow bone growth to occur

    • C. 

      Enable body parts to move

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 32. 
    A gomphosis is an example of a(n)
    • A. 

      Fibrous joint

    • B. 

      Cartilaginous joint

    • C. 

      Synovial joint

    • D. 

      Ball and socket


  • 33. 
    Which of the following allows the most possible movements?
    • A. 

      Condyloid joint

    • B. 

      Hinge joint

    • C. 

      Ball and socket

    • D. 

      Pivot joint


  • 34. 
    Articular cartilage receives oxygen and nutrients from
    • A. 

      A direct blood supply

    • B. 

      Blood vessels in underlying spongy bone

    • C. 

      Surrounding synovial fluid

    • D. 

      Chondrocytes


  • 35. 
    Movements permitted by the elbow are
    • A. 

      Adduction, flexion and extension

    • B. 

      Movement in any plane

    • C. 

      Flexion and extension

    • D. 

      Rotation and circumduction


  • 36. 
    A joint capsule is reinforced by
    • A. 

      Tendons binding articular ends of bone together

    • B. 

      Articular cartilage cushioning ends of bones

    • C. 

      Ligaments binding articular ends of bones together

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage providing strength to the capsule walls


  • 37. 
    Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces within a joint
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 38. 
    The hip joint is a ball and socket joint
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 39. 
    The basic structure of the knee joint permits flexion and extension
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 40. 
    Straightening the leg at the knee is a type of movement called _______.

  • 41. 
    Closed, fluid filled sacs that act as cushions are called _________.

  • 42. 
    The type of synovial joint in which only rotation may occur is a

  • 43. 
    The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is called the
    • A. 

      Epimysium

    • B. 

      Perimysium

    • C. 

      Endomysium

    • D. 

      Sacromysium


  • 44. 
    Myofibrils are primarily composed of
    • A. 

      Actin and myosin

    • B. 

      ATP and ADP

    • C. 

      Troponin

    • D. 

      Tropomyosin


  • 45. 
    Neorotransmitters are stored in vesicles within
    • A. 

      Myofibrils

    • B. 

      Motor units

    • C. 

      Motor end plates

    • D. 

      Motor neuron endings


  • 46. 
    The enzyme acetycholinesterase causes acetylcholine to
    • A. 

      Bond to actin

    • B. 

      Be secreted from the motor end plate

    • C. 

      Decompose

    • D. 

      Form cross bridges


  • 47. 
    The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glycogen and restore intracellular ATP and creatine phosphate to normal levels, is called the
    • A. 

      Refractory quantity

    • B. 

      Oxygen debt

    • C. 

      Anaerobic concentration

    • D. 

      Aerobic conversion


  • 48. 
    Creatine phosphate serves to
    • A. 

      Cause the decomposition of ATP

    • B. 

      Cause the decomposition of ADP

    • C. 

      Supply energy for the synthesis of ATP

    • D. 

      Supply energy for the change of ATP to ADP


  • 49. 
    The all or none response means that
    • A. 

      All of the muscles in a region contract together

    • B. 

      All of the muscle fibers within a muscle contract together

    • C. 

      When a muscle fiber contracts, it contracts completely

    • D. 

      When a muscle fiber contracts, all of its ATP is changed to ADP


  • 50. 
    Multiunit smooth muscle
    • A. 

      Is composed of sheets of muscle cells

    • B. 

      Tends to display ryhthmicity

    • C. 

      Occurs in the walls of the stomach and intestines

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 51. 
    Compared to skeltal muscle, smooth muscle
    • A. 

      Contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly

    • B. 

      Contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly

    • C. 

      Contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly

    • D. 

      Contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly


  • 52. 
    The striated appearance of the skeltal muscle results from the
    • A. 

      Transverse tubule pattern

    • B. 

      Sarcoplasmic reticulum network

    • C. 

      Sarcomere arrangement

    • D. 

      Cisternae placement


  • 53. 
    What is the function of the transverse tubules?
    • A. 

      Storage of sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface

    • B. 

      Transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior

    • C. 

      Storage of calcium ions

    • D. 

      The place where actin and myosin interact


  • 54. 
    The botulinus toxin that causes botulism acts by
    • A. 

      Preventing the release of acetylcholine

    • B. 

      Promoting the release of acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Causing acetylcholine to be decomposed

    • D. 

      Preventing the decomposition of acetylcholine


  • 55. 
    Rigor mortis occurs in the skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to
    • A. 

      Excessive ATP and decreased permeability to calcium

    • B. 

      A decrease of ATP and increased permeability to calcium

    • C. 

      Excessive ATP

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 56. 
    In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the
    • A. 

      Refractory period

    • B. 

      Relaxation period

    • C. 

      Latent period

    • D. 

      Contraction period


  • 57. 
    The very brief moment following stimulation when the muscle remains unresponsive to additional stimulation is called the
    • A. 

      Refractory period

    • B. 

      Relaxation period

    • C. 

      Latent period

    • D. 

      Contraction period


  • 58. 
    A neuromusculer junction can be decribed as
    • A. 

      Being composed of a junction between a motor neuron and muscle fiber

    • B. 

      A site where there is actually a gap, or cleft between the neuron and muscle

    • C. 

      A site where neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft from the motor neuron

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 59. 
    The first event in muscle fiber contraction is that
    • A. 

      A muscle fiber membrane is stimulated and a muscle impulse travels deep in to the fiber through transverse tubules

    • B. 

      Actylcholine diffuses across a gap at a neuromuscular junction

    • C. 

      Stimulation occurs when acetylcholine is released from the end of the motor neuron

    • D. 

      Calcium ions diffuse from sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm and bind to tropoinin


  • 60. 
    Which of the following major events in muscle contraction are stated properly?
    • A. 

      Tropomyosin molecules move and expose specific sites on myosin filaments

    • B. 

      Actin filaments slide inward along myosin fibers

    • C. 

      Cross bridges form between actin and sarcolemma filaments

    • D. 

      All of the above


  • 61. 
    The role of ATP in muscle contraction is to supply energy for
    • A. 

      Creatine phosphate synthesis

    • B. 

      Glycogen synthesis

    • C. 

      Cellular respiration

    • D. 

      Myofilament movement


  • 62. 
    Short muscle cells with centrally located nuclei are
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle fibers


  • 63. 
    Transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are well developed in
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle fibers


  • 64. 
    Both actylcholine and norepinephrine can affect
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle contraction

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle contraction


  • 65. 
    The functional unit of contraction is
    • A. 

      The muscle

    • B. 

      The muscle fiber

    • C. 

      Myosin cross bridge

    • D. 

      The sarcomere


  • 66. 
    The endomysium separates individual muscle fibers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 67. 
    A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a motor unit.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 68. 
    During muscle contraction, calcium ions combine with tropomyosin, and this exposes the active sites for cross bridge formation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 69. 
    The enzyme ATPase occurs in the globular portion of myosin molecules
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 70. 
    The anaerobic phase phase of respiration occurs primarily in the mitochondria
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 71. 
    Liver cells convert lactic acid to ATP
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 72. 
    If a muscle contracts and its fibers shorten, the contraction is isometric
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 73. 
    A broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue that attaches the coverings of adjacent muscles is called a

  • 74. 
    During anaerobic respiration, glucose molecules are converted into molecules of

  • 75. 
    A forceful sustained muscle contraction is called a

  • 76. 
    In order to stimulate skeletal muscle fibers, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter

  • 77. 
    Muscles that assist a prime mover are called ____________.

  • 78. 
    The combining of a series of twitches to produce a sustained contraction is called _________.

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