Anatomy II Quiz 1

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 anatomy II quiz 1
Anatomy. II. Quiz. 1

  
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  • 1. 
    All of the follwing are true of the nervous system except that it does not
    • A. 

      Communicate by the release of neurotransmitters

    • B. 

      Function independently

    • C. 

      Respond with motor output

    • D. 

      Respond to rapidly to stimuli

    • E. 

      Responds specifically to stimuli


  • 2. 
    Endocrine cells
    • A. 

      Release their secretions directly into body fluids

    • B. 

      Are a type of nerve cells

    • C. 

      Are modified connective-tissue cells

    • D. 

      Release their secreations into epithelial surface

    • E. 

      Contains new vesicles


  • 3. 
    Peptide hormones are
    • A. 

      Composed of amino acids

    • B. 

      Chemically related to cholesterol

    • C. 

      Derived from the amino acid tyrpsine

    • D. 

      Prodices by the suprarenal glands

    • E. 

      Lipids


  • 4. 
    All of the following are true of steriod hormones except that they
    • A. 

      Are derived from cholesterol

    • B. 

      Are produced by reproductive glands

    • C. 

      Are produced by the suprarenal glands

    • D. 

      Are lipids

    • E. 

      Bind to receptors within the cell


  • 5. 
    Extracelluar membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?
    • A. 

      Catecholamines

    • B. 

      Peptide hormones

    • C. 

      Eicosanoids

    • D. 

      Thyroid

    • E. 

      A,b,and c


  • 6. 
    Steriod hormones
    • A. 

      Are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma

    • B. 

      Cannot diffuse through the cell membranes

    • C. 

      Bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells

    • D. 

      Are proteins

    • E. 

      Remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time


  • 7. 
    Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. these categories include
    • A. 

      Amino acid derivatives

    • B. 

      Peptides

    • C. 

      Eicosanoids

    • D. 

      Steriods

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 8. 
    Hormonal actions on cells include those that affect
    • A. 

      Quantities of enzymes

    • B. 

      Synthesis of enzymes

    • C. 

      Activities of enyzmyes

    • D. 

      Gating ion channel

    • E. 

      Any of the above


  • 9. 
    The most complex endocrine responses involve the
    • A. 

      Pancreas

    • B. 

      Suprerenal glands

    • C. 

      Hypothalamus

    • D. 

      Thymus gland

    • E. 

      Thyroid gland


  • 10. 
    Hormone release may be controlled by which of the following factors?
    • A. 

      Blood level of an ion like potassim

    • B. 

      Blood level of glucose

    • C. 

      Nervous stimuli

    • D. 

      Blood level of hormone

    • E. 

      Any of the above


  • 11. 
    Changes in bloos osmotic pressure would most affect the secreation of
    • A. 

      Oxytocin

    • B. 

      TSH

    • C. 

      LH

    • D. 

      ADH

    • E. 

      ACTH


  • 12. 
    Regulatory factors that control secration of adenohpophyseal hormones are released by neurons at the _______ of the hypothalamus
    • A. 

      Supraoptic nuclei

    • B. 

      Geniculate bodies

    • C. 

      Infundibulum

    • D. 

      Paraventicular nuclei

    • E. 

      Median eminence


  • 13. 
    The hypothamlamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by
    • A. 

      Altering ion concentraions and pH in the anterior pituitary

    • B. 

      Secreating releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system

    • C. 

      Indirect osmotic control

    • D. 

      Direct neural stimulation

    • E. 

      Gap synaptic junctions


  • 14. 
    Neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypthalamus manufacture
    • A. 

      FSH and PRL

    • B. 

      CRP and GnRH

    • C. 

      TSH and FSH

    • D. 

      ADH and oxytocin

    • E. 

      GHIH and GHRH


  • 15. 
    The posterior pituitary gland secreates
    • A. 

      ACTH

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      TSH

    • D. 

      MSH

    • E. 

      ADH


  • 16. 
    Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis, except
    • A. 

      Oxytocin

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      Corticotropin

    • D. 

      TSH

    • E. 

      Somatotropin


  • 17. 
    Growth hormone does all of the following, except that it
    • A. 

      Promotes muscle growth

    • B. 

      Is gluclose sparing

    • C. 

      Promotes bone growth

    • D. 

      Promotes amino acid uptake by cells

    • E. 

      Causes fat accumulation with adipocytes


  • 18. 
    The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid horomine from the thyroid gland is
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      ACTH

    • D. 

      TSH

    • E. 

      GH


  • 19. 
    The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries and sperm development in testes is
    • A. 

      LH

    • B. 

      TSH

    • C. 

      GH

    • D. 

      ACTH

    • E. 

      FSH


  • 20. 
    The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is
    • A. 

      ACTH

    • B. 

      Prolactin

    • C. 

      FSH

    • D. 

      Growth hormone

    • E. 

      TSh


  • 21. 
    The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      MSH

    • C. 

      TSH

    • D. 

      STH

    • E. 

      ADH


  • 22. 
    Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of
    • A. 

      Hypoparathyroidism

    • B. 

      Hyperthyroidism

    • C. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • D. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • E. 

      Being a turtle on ice


  • 23. 
    A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ions is
    • A. 

      Oxytocin

    • B. 

      Thyroxine

    • C. 

      Calcitonin

    • D. 

      Glucagon

    • E. 

      Parathyroid hormone


  • 24. 
    The C cell of the thyroid gland procude
    • A. 

      Triiodthyronine

    • B. 

      Calcitonin

    • C. 

      PTH

    • D. 

      TSH

    • E. 

      Thyroxine


  • 25. 
    The hormone that does the opposite of calcionin is
    • A. 

      Growth hormone

    • B. 

      Thyroid hormone

    • C. 

      Glucagon

    • D. 

      Insulin

    • E. 

      Parathyroid hormone


  • 26. 
    The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of
    • A. 

      Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • B. 

      Adrenaline

    • C. 

      Angiotensin

    • D. 

      Cortisol

    • E. 

      Erythropoietin


  • 27. 
    The zona fasciculata of the superrenal cortex produces
    • A. 

      Atrial natriuretic peptide

    • B. 

      Adrenaline

    • C. 

      Mineralcorticoids

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

    • E. 

      Glucocorticoids


  • 28. 
    The suprarenal medulla produces
    • A. 

      Glucocorticoids

    • B. 

      Mineralocorticoids

    • C. 

      Corticosteriods

    • D. 

      Catecholamines

    • E. 

      Androgens


  • 29. 
    A hormone that helps to regulare the sodim ion content of the body is
    • A. 

      Thymosin

    • B. 

      Somatotropin

    • C. 

      Parathormone

    • D. 

      Cortisol

    • E. 

      Aldosterone


  • 30. 
    Too little secreation of the cortisol and aldosterone causes
    • A. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • B. 

      Cushing disease

    • C. 

      Goiter

    • D. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • E. 

      Addison disease


  • 31. 
    Pinealocytes produce
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      Melatonin

    • D. 

      Melanin

    • E. 

      MSH


  • 32. 
    Cells of the suprarenal cortex produce
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      ACTH

    • C. 

      Aldosterone

    • D. 

      Norepinephrine

    • E. 

      Angiotensin


  • 33. 
    The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
    • A. 

      Glucagon

    • B. 

      Peptide p

    • C. 

      Cortisol

    • D. 

      Somatostatin

    • E. 

      Insulin


  • 34. 
    The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
    • A. 

      Glucagon

    • B. 

      Peptide p

    • C. 

      Cortisol

    • D. 

      Somatostatin

    • E. 

      Insulin


  • 35. 
    The interstitial cells of the testes produce
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      Inhibin

    • D. 

      FSH

    • E. 

      Progesterone


  • 36. 
    A structure known as corpus lutem secretes
    • A. 

      Androstenedione

    • B. 

      Progesterone

    • C. 

      Cortisone

    • D. 

      Testosterone

    • E. 

      Aldosterone


  • 37. 
    The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are
    • A. 

      Thyroxines

    • B. 

      Somatotropins

    • C. 

      Corticosteriods

    • D. 

      Thymosins

    • E. 

      Aldosterones


  • 38. 
    Proper growth requires which of the following hormones?
    • A. 

      Thyroid

    • B. 

      Growth hormone

    • C. 

      Calcitriol

    • D. 

      Insulin

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 39. 
    Excess secreation of growth hormone during early development will cause
    • A. 

      Rickets

    • B. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • C. 

      Acromegally

    • D. 

      Gigantism

    • E. 

      Dwarfism


  • 40. 
    If stress last longer than a few hours an individual will enter the ______ phase of the general adaption syndrome (GAS)
    • A. 

      Extension

    • B. 

      Alarm

    • C. 

      Prolonged

    • D. 

      Resistance

    • E. 

      Exhaustion


  • 41. 
    During the resistence phase of the general adaption syndrome (GAS)
    • A. 

      Proteins are conserved

    • B. 

      Levels of growth hormone decrease

    • C. 

      Lipid reserves are mobilized

    • D. 

      Levels of insulin decrease

    • E. 

      Blood glucose levels fall drastically


  • 42. 
    Gap junctions
    • A. 

      Coordinate ciliray movement among epithelial cells

    • B. 

      Facilitate the propagation of action potentials from one cell to the next at electrial synapse

    • C. 

      Coordinate the contractions of cardiac muscle cells

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      A and c only


  • 43. 
    Inadequate iodine in the diet may lead to
    • A. 

      Cretinism

    • B. 

      Goiter

    • C. 

      High blood levels of TSH

    • D. 

      Hypthyroidism

    • E. 

      Any of the above


  • 44. 
    Norepinephrine and epinephrine are considered to be _____ when released into the bloodstream but ______ when released synapses.
    • A. 

      Neuropeptides;neurohormones

    • B. 

      Neurotransmitters;hormones

    • C. 

      Neuropeptides;neurotransmitters

    • D. 

      Neurotransmiters;neuropeptides

    • E. 

      Hormones;neurotransmitters


  • 45. 
    The heart is known to secrete all of the following hormones except
    • A. 

      ANP

    • B. 

      BNP

    • C. 

      Thymosin

    • D. 

      Thyroxine

    • E. 

      Both A and D


  • 46. 
    A kinade is an enzyme that performs
    • A. 

      Phosphorylation

    • B. 

      Active transport

    • C. 

      As a membrance channel

    • D. 

      Both a and b

    • E. 

      And a and c


  • 47. 
    The functional organization of the nervous system parallels that of the ____system in many ways
    • A. 

      Hepatic

    • B. 

      Body

    • C. 

      Muscular

    • D. 

      Cardiovascular

    • E. 

      Endocrine


  • 48. 
    The action of the thyroid hormone on a target cell involves all these steps except one. identify the incorrect step
    • A. 

      Activation of a specific gene

    • B. 

      Activation of mitochondria

    • C. 

      Binding to a hormone receptor in the plasma membrane

    • D. 

      Binding to a cytoplasmic receptor protein

    • E. 

      Specific transprot into the target cell


  • 49. 
    Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?
    • A. 

      In the lumen of the thyroid follicle

    • B. 

      In pinocytotic vesicles

    • C. 

      In apical microvilli

    • D. 

      In rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • E. 

      In lysosomes


  • 50. 
    The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce how many hormones?  
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      5

    • E. 

      7


  • 51. 

     Identify the cell labeled "5."  
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Monocyte

    • E. 

      Eosinophil


  • 52. 

    Identify the cell labeled "6."  
    • A. 

      Lymphocyte

    • B. 

      Eosinophil

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Monocyte

    • E. 

      Erythrocyte


  • 53. 

    Identify the cell labeled "7."  
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Lymphocyte

    • E. 

      Platelet


  • 54. 

    Identify the cell labeled "3.
    • A. 

      Monocyte

    • B. 

      lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Eosinophil

    • E. 

      Erythrocyte


  • 55. 

    Identify the cell labeled "2
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      monocyte

    • D. 

      eosinophil

    • E. 

      Basophil


  • 56. 
    Which of the following is a function of the blood? 
    • A. 

      Transport of gases

    • B. 

      Transport of nutrients and wastes

    • C. 

      Transport of body heat

    • D. 

      Defense against toxins and pathogens

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 57. 
    The combination of plasma and formed elements is called  
    • A. 

      Extracellular fluid.

    • B. 

      Serum.

    • C. 

      Packed blood.

    • D. 

      Lymph.

    • E. 

      Whole blood.


  • 58. 
    Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a  
    • A. 

      Built-in system for clotting.

    • B. 

      Viscosity about the same as water.

    • C. 

      Deep red color from hemoglobin.

    • D. 

      Temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.

    • E. 

      PH of 7.4.


  • 59. 
    The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are  
    • A. 

      Albumins.

    • B. 

      Fibrinogens.

    • C. 

      Transport proteins

    • D. 

      Globulins.

    • E. 

      Lipoproteins.


  • 60. 
    The most abundant component of plasma is
    • A. 

      Proteins.

    • B. 

      Gases.

    • C. 

      Nutrients.

    • D. 

      Ions.

    • E. 

      Water.


  • 61. 
    Granulocytes form in  
    • A. 

      The intestines

    • B. 

      The spleen.

    • C. 

      Red bone marrow.

    • D. 

      Yellow bone marrow.

    • E. 

      The thymus.


  • 62. 
    The average lifespan of a red blood cell is  
    • A. 

      4 months.

    • B. 

      Many years.

    • C. 

      1 month.

    • D. 

      About 1 year.

    • E. 

      24 hours.


  • 63. 
    63) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.
    • A. 

      Leukemia

    • B. 

      Polycythemia

    • C. 

      Anemia

    • D. 

      Leukopenia

    • E. 

      Thrombocytopenia


  • 64. 
    Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the  
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Spleen

    • C. 

      Bone marrow

    • D. 

      Digestive tract

    • E. 

      A B and C


  • 65. 
    In adults, erytheopoisis exclusively takes place in
    • A. 

      Ther liver

    • B. 

      Red bone marro

    • C. 

      Yellow bone marrow

    • D. 

      Lymphiod tissue

    • E. 

      The spleen


  • 66. 
    The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulations is as
    • A. 

      Hemocytoblast

    • B. 

      Myeolid cells

    • C. 

      Reticulocytes

    • D. 

      Proerythrocytes

    • E. 

      Band forms


  • 67. 
    The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the
    • A. 

      Packed volume

    • B. 

      Heatocrit

    • C. 

      Differential cell count

    • D. 

      Viscosity

    • E. 

      Specific gravity


  • 68. 
    A person's blood type is determined largely by the  
    • A. 

      Shape of RBC 's

    • B. 

      Sixe of RBC' s

    • C. 

      Chemical character of the hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane

    • E. 

      Volume of RBC's


  • 69. 
    The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the  
    • A. 

      Eosinophils

    • B. 

      Neutrophils

    • C. 

      Basophils

    • D. 

      Lymphocytes

    • E. 

      Monocytes


  • 70. 
    Which of these descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?
    • A. 

      Often elevated in allergic individuals

    • B. 

      Helper cells are one type

    • C. 

      Hormone that regulates blood cell formation

    • D. 

      Kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide

    • E. 

      Adhere to collagen beneath endothelium


  • 71. 
    A hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is  
    • A. 

      Thymosin.

    • B. 

      M-CSF.

    • C. 

      Multi-CSF.

    • D. 

      GM-CSF.

    • E. 

      G-CSF (Neupogen).


  • 72. 
    Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called  
    • A. 

      Megakaryocytes.

    • B. 

      Normoblasts.

    • C. 

      ) erythroblasts.

    • D. 

      Lymphoblasts.

    • E. 

      Myeloblasts.


  • 73. 
    ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.  
    • A. 

      Coagulation

    • B. 

      Vascular spasm

    • C. 

      The platelet phase

    • D. 

      Retraction

    • E. 

      Fibrinolysis


  • 74. 
    The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the  
    • A. 

      Release of heparin from the liver

    • B. 

      Activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.

    • C. 

      Sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.

    • D. 

      Release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

    • E. 

      Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin


  • 75. 
    The process of fibrinolysis  
    • A. 

      Forms thrombi.

    • B. 

      Activates fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Forms emboli.

    • D. 

      Draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.

    • E. 

      Dissolves clots


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