Patient care And Communication Quiz! MCQ Trivia
Welcome to the Patient Care and Communication MCQ Quiz. In order to correctly care for a patient, you need to have a certain degree of knowledge about the human body and how it operates. Not only should one know how the human body works but the laws surrounding patient care and information privacy. By taking this quiz, you will get to see how safe patients are in your hands. Be sure to check it out!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Anthropometrics are:
- A.
BP, P, RR
- B.
BP, P, RR, height/weight
- C.
Height and weight
- D.
BP, P
Correct Answer
C. Height and weightExplanation
Anthropometrics refers to the measurement of the physical characteristics of the human body, particularly height and weight. This allows for the assessment of an individual's body composition and can provide valuable information about their overall health and development. The other options listed, such as BP (blood pressure), P (pulse), and RR (respiratory rate), are not considered anthropometric measurements as they do not directly relate to the physical dimensions of the body.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is a CLIA waived test?
- A.
POL testing
- B.
KUB
- C.
Blood Cultures
- D.
CBC
Correct Answer
A. POL testingExplanation
POL testing refers to Point-of-Care Testing, which is a type of diagnostic testing that can be performed at the bedside or in a healthcare provider's office. CLIA waived tests are those that have been determined by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) program to be simple and accurate enough to be performed by non-laboratory personnel with minimal training. Therefore, the correct answer is POL testing, as it is a type of testing that meets the criteria for CLIA waived tests.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the largest part of the brain?
- A.
Cerebellum
- B.
Cerebrum
- C.
Brainstem
- D.
Medulla Oblongata
Correct Answer
B. CerebrumExplanation
The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and perception. It is divided into two hemispheres and is involved in controlling voluntary movements, interpreting sensory information, and processing emotions. The cerebrum plays a crucial role in complex tasks such as problem-solving, language processing, and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The CCMA is to perform an ESR on a patient in for fatigue and painful joints. Which of the following does the CCMA need to perform this test?
- A.
Lavendar tube
- B.
Urine sample
- C.
Fecal specimen
- D.
Red tube
Correct Answer
A. Lavendar tubeExplanation
The CCMA needs a lavender tube to perform an ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) test on a patient with fatigue and painful joints. The lavender tube is used to collect a blood sample for the test, which measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a specific period of time. This test can help diagnose and monitor inflammatory conditions, such as arthritis, which could be causing the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The CCMA is recording the patient's CC. The patient reports that he has difficulty breathing when in the lying position. How would the CCMA record this in the medical record?
- A.
Dyspnea
- B.
Orthopnea
- C.
Apnea
- D.
Eupnea
Correct Answer
B. OrthopneaExplanation
Orthopnea is a medical term used to describe difficulty breathing when in the lying position. It is characterized by the need to sit up or prop oneself up with pillows in order to breathe comfortably. This symptom is commonly associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Therefore, if a patient reports difficulty breathing when lying down, the CCMA would record this symptom as orthopnea in the medical record.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The patient has arrived at the gastroenterologists office for a surgical procedure involving repair of the small intestine. The CCMA is to prepare the consent form for the physician. How is this procedure noted?
- A.
Colonoplasty
- B.
Colonotomy
- C.
Enterotomy
- D.
Enteroplasty
Correct Answer
D. EnteroplastyExplanation
Enteroplasty is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical procedure involving repair of the small intestine. Colonoplasty and colonotomy are not relevant as they involve the colon, not the small intestine. Enterotomy is also not correct as it refers to the incision into the small intestine, not the repair.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is the medical term for heart muscle disease?
- A.
Cardiopathy
- B.
Cardiomegaly
- C.
Cardiomyopathy
- D.
Cardioplegia
Correct Answer
C. CardiomyopathyExplanation
Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer because it refers to a medical condition that affects the heart muscle. It is characterized by the weakening or enlargement of the heart muscle, leading to impaired heart function. Cardiopathy, cardiomegaly, and cardioplegia are not specific terms for heart muscle disease and do not encompass the full range of symptoms and conditions associated with cardiomyopathy.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Your patient presents to the clinic status post nephrectomy. What does the suffix of this diagnosis mean?
- A.
Removal
- B.
Incision
- C.
Kidney
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
A. RemovalExplanation
The suffix "-ectomy" in the term "nephrectomy" refers to the surgical removal of the kidney. This suffix is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate the excision or removal of a specific organ or part of the body. In this case, "nephro-" refers to the kidney and "-ectomy" indicates the removal of the kidney through surgical intervention. Therefore, the correct answer "removal" accurately describes the meaning of the suffix in this diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the initial information required prior to scheduling an inpatient procedure for a patient?
- A.
The patient's name
- B.
The patient's physician's order
- C.
The patient's insurance approval
- D.
The patient's diagnosis
Correct Answer
B. The patient's physician's orderExplanation
Prior to scheduling an inpatient procedure for a patient, the initial information required is the patient's physician's order. This is essential as it provides the necessary details and instructions from the physician regarding the specific procedure that needs to be performed. Without the physician's order, the scheduling of the procedure cannot take place as there would be no clear guidance on what needs to be done. The patient's name, insurance approval, and diagnosis may also be important for the scheduling process, but the physician's order is the most crucial piece of information.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Your patient is a 13-year-old who has visited the OB/GYN status post a miscarriage. The girl's Mother calls the office and asks to speak with the office manager to discuss her daughter's visit. What is the correct response?
- A.
Inform the Mother that HIPPA rules apply and you nor the physician can discuss her daughters treatment
- B.
Tell the Mother that you can have the physician contact her back after patient hours to discuss the visit
- C.
Tell the Mother that she needs to obtain a consent form from the insurance company to discuss the visit
- D.
Give the Mother the information requested about her daughter since she is a minor
Correct Answer
A. Inform the Mother that HIPPA rules apply and you nor the physician can discuss her daughters treatmentExplanation
The correct response is to inform the Mother that HIPAA rules apply and neither the office manager nor the physician can discuss her daughter's treatment. This is because HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) protects the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information, including minors. It is important to respect and uphold these rules to ensure the patient's privacy and maintain trust in the healthcare system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A patient has just had their blood drawn and they begin to twitch and their eyes roll back in their head. The CCMA response is to:
- A.
Begin CPR
- B.
Restrain patient to prevent injury
- C.
Leave to get the nurse
- D.
Observe
Correct Answer
D. ObserveExplanation
In this situation, the correct response is to observe the patient. The patient's twitching and eyes rolling back in their head could be a result of a vasovagal response or a seizure. It is important to closely monitor the patient's condition and observe any changes or worsening symptoms. Starting CPR or restraining the patient without proper assessment may not be necessary and could potentially cause harm. Getting the nurse involved may be necessary depending on the patient's condition, but initially, observation is the appropriate response.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the term for the suffix in neuropathy?
- A.
Disease
- B.
Nerves
- C.
Neurology
- D.
Neuro
Correct Answer
A. DiseaseExplanation
The term for the suffix in neuropathy is "disease". Neuropathy refers to a condition that affects the nerves, causing pain, numbness, and weakness. The suffix "-pathy" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a disorder or disease of a specific organ or system. In this case, "neuro-" refers to the nerves, and the suffix "-pathy" indicates a disease or disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is "disease".Rate this question:
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- 13.
CMA is drawing an A1C on a patient, what is the tube additive?
- A.
EDTA
- B.
SST
- C.
None
- D.
Heparin
Correct Answer
A. EDTAExplanation
The tube additive for drawing an A1C on a patient is EDTA. EDTA is commonly used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes to prevent clotting and preserve the integrity of the sample. It works by binding to calcium ions, which are necessary for the coagulation process. By inhibiting clot formation, EDTA ensures that the blood sample remains suitable for testing and analysis, such as measuring the A1C levels in this case.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient arrives after being involved in an MVA and is vomiting blood. The correct charting for this condition is:
- A.
Emesis
- B.
Hemouria
- C.
Hematemesis
- D.
Hematopenia
Correct Answer
C. HematemesisExplanation
The patient is experiencing hematemesis, which refers to the vomiting of blood. This term accurately describes the symptom of vomiting blood in the patient's medical chart. "Emesis" is a general term for vomiting, "hemouria" refers to blood in the urine, and "hematopenia" is not a recognized medical term. Therefore, "hematemesis" is the correct charting for this condition.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Where on the CMS 1500 form would you find the diagnostic code?
- A.
Box1 Box1
- B.
Encounter From
- C.
Patient's insurance card
- D.
Patient's demographics
Correct Answer
B. Encounter FromExplanation
The correct answer is "Encounter From." On the CMS 1500 form, the diagnostic code can be found in the Encounter From section. This section is used to provide information about the patient's diagnosis and the corresponding code. The diagnostic code is important for insurance purposes and helps in determining the medical necessity of the services provided.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The term for excessive urination at night is:
- A.
Polyuria
- B.
Hematuria
- C.
Uritis
- D.
Nocturia
Correct Answer
D. NocturiaExplanation
Nocturia refers to the condition of excessive urination at night. It is characterized by the need to wake up frequently during the night to urinate. This can disrupt sleep patterns and cause discomfort. Nocturia can be caused by various factors such as urinary tract infections, bladder or prostate problems, diabetes, or certain medications. The term "polyuria" refers to excessive urination in general, not specifically at night. "Hematuria" refers to the presence of blood in the urine, and "uritis" is not a recognized medical term.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What determines the technique to use when drawing a child's blood?
- A.
Age and development
- B.
Parent's preference
- C.
Size of the child
- D.
Equipment available
Correct Answer
A. Age and developmentExplanation
The technique to use when drawing a child's blood is determined by their age and development. Different age groups require different methods for blood collection, such as using smaller needles or different positioning. Additionally, the child's development may affect their ability to cooperate during the procedure, which may influence the choice of technique.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When performing phlebotomy, after anchoring the vein, the next step the CMA should take is:
- A.
Clean the site
- B.
Tie the tourniquet
- C.
Assemble the needle
- D.
Draw the blood
Correct Answer
D. Draw the bloodExplanation
After anchoring the vein during phlebotomy, the next step for the CMA is to draw the blood. This involves inserting the needle into the vein and collecting the required amount of blood for testing or donation. The other options listed, such as cleaning the site, tying the tourniquet, and assembling the needle, are necessary steps in the phlebotomy process but should be performed before anchoring the vein.Rate this question:
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- 19.
ICD coding is used to determine the patient's:
- A.
Determining procedure to be performed
- B.
Plan of care
- C.
Patient's primary diagnosis
- D.
Billing
Correct Answer
C. Patient's primary diagnosisExplanation
ICD coding is used to determine the patient's primary diagnosis. This means that the coding system helps healthcare professionals identify and classify the main health condition or disease that the patient is experiencing. By accurately coding the primary diagnosis, healthcare providers can ensure appropriate treatment plans, monitor patient outcomes, and facilitate effective communication among medical professionals. Additionally, the primary diagnosis is essential for billing purposes, as it determines the medical necessity of the procedures and services provided to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the amount of fluid to be drawn up for a purified protein derivative?
- A.
0.1 ml
- B.
1 ml
- C.
0.5 ml
- D.
5 ml
Correct Answer
A. 0.1 mlExplanation
The amount of fluid to be drawn up for a purified protein derivative is 0.1 ml.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The common pulse site used for taking a pulse on a patient is:
- A.
Brachial artery
- B.
Radial artery
- C.
Apical pulse
- D.
Temporal artery
Correct Answer
B. Radial arteryExplanation
The radial artery is the common pulse site used for taking a pulse on a patient. This artery is located on the wrist, on the thumb side. It is easily accessible and can be palpated by gently pressing the fingers on the wrist. The radial artery is a good site for measuring the pulse because it is close to the surface of the skin and can provide an accurate representation of the heart rate.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A family brings their 12 yo son in with a fracture that is broken through the skin. The CMA would chart this as a(n)
- A.
Greenstick fracture
- B.
Compound fracture
- C.
Spiral Fracture
- D.
Simple fracture
Correct Answer
B. Compound fractureExplanation
A compound fracture occurs when the broken bone pierces through the skin. In this case, the family brought their 12-year-old son with a fracture that is broken through the skin. Therefore, the CMA would chart this as a compound fracture.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patients health status ensuring the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating error is:
- A.
HIPAA
- B.
CLIA
- C.
Quality Control
- D.
OSHA
Correct Answer
C. Quality ControlExplanation
Quality control is the correct answer because its primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patient's health status and ensure the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating errors. Quality control measures involve monitoring and evaluating the entire testing process, including equipment calibration, reagent preparation, and specimen handling, to ensure that accurate and precise results are obtained. This helps to maintain the quality and integrity of laboratory testing, ultimately improving patient care and outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When administering a 1ml amount fo medication to a patient, all the following are acceptable routes except:
- A.
Intradermal
- B.
Intramuscular
- C.
Subcutaneous
- D.
Intravenously
Correct Answer
A. IntradermalExplanation
Intradermal administration involves injecting medication into the dermis, the layer of skin just below the epidermis. This route is commonly used for skin testing or administering small amounts of medication. However, when administering a 1ml amount of medication, intradermal is not an acceptable route because it can only accommodate small volumes, typically up to 0.1ml. The other routes mentioned - intramuscular, subcutaneous, and intravenously - are all suitable for administering larger volumes of medication.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the medical assistants' main responsibility in maintaining exam rooms?
- A.
Preparing needles and venipuncture equipment
- B.
Cleaning and disinfecting rooms
- C.
Assisting patients to exam room
- D.
Restocking of supplies
Correct Answer
D. Restocking of suppliesExplanation
The medical assistants' main responsibility in maintaining exam rooms is restocking supplies. This involves ensuring that all necessary medical equipment, instruments, and materials are readily available for use by healthcare providers during patient examinations or procedures. By restocking supplies, medical assistants contribute to the smooth functioning of the exam rooms and help provide efficient and effective patient care.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which type of scheduling consists of scheduling all the patients at the beginning of the hour and and are then seen in the order of their arrival:
- A.
Wave
- B.
Cluster
- C.
Open
- D.
Advance
Correct Answer
A. WaveExplanation
Wave scheduling consists of scheduling all the patients at the beginning of the hour and then seeing them in the order of their arrival. This type of scheduling allows for better patient flow and reduces waiting times as patients are seen as soon as they arrive. It also helps in managing the workload of healthcare providers by evenly distributing the patients throughout the hour.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following forms informs the patient of the risks and dangers associated with a procedure?
- A.
.ICD 9
- B.
CMS 1500 Form
- C.
Encounter Form
- D.
Consent Form
Correct Answer
D. Consent FormExplanation
A consent form is a document that informs the patient about the risks and dangers associated with a medical procedure. It is used to obtain the patient's voluntary agreement to undergo the procedure after understanding the potential risks involved. This form ensures that the patient is fully informed and gives their consent before proceeding with the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Your patient is to supple a clean catch mid stream urine sample. What medicated pad does the patient use to clean with?
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Iodine
- C.
Benzakonium
- D.
Hydrogen Peroxide
Correct Answer
C. BenzakoniumExplanation
The patient should use a medicated pad containing Benzakonium to clean before providing a clean catch mid-stream urine sample. Benzakonium is a disinfectant and antiseptic agent that is commonly used for cleaning the skin. It helps to reduce the risk of contamination and ensures a clean sample for accurate testing. Alcohol, iodine, and hydrogen peroxide are not recommended for cleaning in this case, as they may interfere with the test results or cause irritation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not in the mediastinum?
- A.
Pancreas
- B.
Aorta
- C.
Trachea
- D.
Heart
Correct Answer
A. PancreasExplanation
The pancreas is not located in the mediastinum. The mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity, located between the two pleural cavities. It contains various structures such as the heart, aorta, and trachea. However, the pancreas is situated in the abdominal cavity, specifically in the retroperitoneal space, behind the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How many tests should a CCMA obtain to run a valid quality sample when collecting an occult blood stool sample?
- A.
3
- B.
2
- C.
1
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
To run a valid quality sample when collecting an occult blood stool sample, a CCMA should obtain 3 tests. This is because multiple tests are necessary to ensure accuracy and reliability of the results. Having a larger sample size helps to minimize the chances of false negatives or false positives, increasing the overall validity of the test. Therefore, obtaining 3 tests is the most appropriate approach for running a valid quality sample in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Your patient comes in with bilateral lower extremity amputation, where would you place the lower limb ECG leads?
- A.
Wrists
- B.
Just above the site of the amputation
- C.
Lower trunk
- D.
Rib cage
Correct Answer
B. Just above the site of the amputationExplanation
In cases of bilateral lower extremity amputation, the lower limb ECG leads should be placed just above the site of the amputation. This is because the leads need to be positioned as close as possible to the area where the limbs were amputated in order to accurately capture the electrical activity of the heart. Placing the leads at the wrists, lower trunk, or rib cage would not provide accurate readings as they are not directly above the site of amputation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
You are preparing a patient for a Pap smear exam, which position should the CCMA put this patient in?
- A.
Sims
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lithotomy
- D.
Supine
Correct Answer
C. LithotomyExplanation
The CCMA should put the patient in the lithotomy position for a Pap smear exam. This position involves the patient lying on their back with their feet in stirrups, allowing for easy access to the genital area. It provides the necessary exposure and access for the healthcare provider to perform the exam comfortably and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following requires the highest level of disinfectant?
- A.
BP cuff
- B.
Ear scapula
- C.
Hemastat
- D.
Stethocope
Correct Answer
C. HemastatExplanation
The hemastat requires the highest level of disinfectant because it is a surgical instrument that comes into direct contact with bodily fluids and tissues during medical procedures. Disinfecting the hemastat thoroughly is crucial to prevent the spread of infections and ensure patient safety.Rate this question:
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- 34.
You are giving a medication per the doctor's order to a patient and the medication is one that has local and systemic effects. Which type of medication is this?
- A.
Elixir
- B.
Emulsifiers
- C.
Ointments
- D.
Oral
Correct Answer
C. OintmentsExplanation
Ointments are a type of medication that has both local and systemic effects. When applied topically, ointments can provide localized relief or treatment for conditions such as skin infections or inflammation. However, some of the active ingredients in ointments can also be absorbed into the bloodstream, leading to systemic effects throughout the body. Therefore, ointments can have both local and systemic effects, making them the correct answer to this question.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The CCMA is performing CPR on a patient. In order to deliver the CPR effectively and correctly, how many compressions per minute is the CCMA delivering?
- A.
90
- B.
50
- C.
100
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 100Explanation
The CCMA is delivering 100 compressions per minute in order to perform CPR effectively and correctly. This rate is in line with the current guidelines for CPR, which recommend a range of 100-120 compressions per minute. By delivering compressions at this rate, the CCMA is ensuring that the patient's blood is being circulated adequately to maintain vital organ function during the resuscitation effort.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 27, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 22, 2014Quiz Created by
Kkrash99
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