6c071 Vol 1 Analysis

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6c071 Vol 1 Analysis - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method

    • A.

      Permits the use of tradeoffs between price and non-price factors.

    • B.

      May include non-price factors such as technical and past performance

    • C.

      Allows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal.

    • D.

      Requires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation

    Correct Answer
    B. May include non-price factors such as technical and past performance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance. This means that although price is the primary consideration, other factors such as the vendor's technical capabilities and past performance can also be taken into account during the selection process. This allows the government to consider the overall value and quality of the proposals, rather than solely focusing on the lowest price.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?

    • A.

      Section C

    • B.

      Section K

    • C.

      Section L

    • D.

      Section M

    Correct Answer
    C. Section L
    Explanation
    Section L of a request for proposal (RFP) typically provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation. This section may include information on the format, content, and submission requirements for the proposals. It guides the offerors on how to structure their proposals and what specific information needs to be included.

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  • 3. 

    (001) An offeror’s technical volume is used by offerors to

    • A.

      Provide offeror representations and certifications.

    • B.

      Identify previous experience with similar requirements.

    • C.

      Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.

    • D.

      Demonstrate the financial capacity to complete the subsequent contract.

    Correct Answer
    C. Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
    Explanation
    An offeror's technical volume is used to address how it intends to meet the government's requirement. This volume provides a detailed explanation of the offeror's approach, methodology, and technical solutions to fulfill the requirements specified by the government. It outlines the offeror's understanding of the project and their proposed plan to successfully execute it. By addressing how they intend to meet the government's requirement, the offeror demonstrates their capability and suitability for the contract.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?

    • A.

      Determine the contractor non-responsive.

    • B.

      Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range

    • C.

      Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.

    • D.

      Accept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
    Explanation
    If a proposal exceeds the established page limitations stated in the solicitation, the correct action to take is to remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. This means that any pages that go beyond the specified page limit should be removed from the proposal. This ensures that the proposal complies with the stated requirements and allows for fair evaluation and comparison with other proposals.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which of the following is true regarding awards made without discussions?

    • A.

      The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions.

    • B.

      The government is not obligated to notify offerors of its intent to award without discussions.

    • C.

      It is in the government’s best interest to avoid discussions for time-sensitive acquisitions.

    • D.

      Discussions may be held with only the most favored offerors still within the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    A. The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the RFP instructions. This means that even if the RFP explicitly states that discussions will not be held, the government still has the authority to hold discussions if they deem it necessary. This highlights the flexibility and discretion that the government has in the procurement process.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by

    • A.

      Using discriminators.

    • B.

      Using non-commercial specifications

    • C.

      Including as many evaluation factors as possible.

    • D.

      Tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K

    Correct Answer
    A. Using discriminators.
    Explanation
    Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by using discriminators. This means that the evaluation factors are designed to identify unique and distinguishing characteristics or features of each proposal. By using discriminators, the evaluation process can effectively compare and differentiate between different proposals, allowing for a fair and objective assessment of each one's strengths and weaknesses. This helps the evaluators in making an informed decision and selecting the most suitable proposal for the given requirements.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Price or cost to the government

    • A.

      Is only evaluated when using tradeoffs.

    • B.

      Must be evaluated in every source selection.

    • C.

      May not be used as an evaluation factor when using tradeoffs.

    • D.

      Is only evaluated when an acquisition is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Must be evaluated in every source selection.
    Explanation
    Price or cost to the government must be evaluated in every source selection. This means that when the government is selecting a source for a particular procurement, they must consider the price or cost associated with each potential source. This evaluation ensures that the government is making a cost-effective decision and getting the best value for their money. It is a crucial factor in determining the most suitable source for the procurement.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections consider

    • A.

      Price only

    • B.

      The acceptability of a product or service only.

    • C.

      The acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.

    • D.

      The rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service

    Correct Answer
    C. The acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
    Explanation
    LPTA source selections consider the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors. This means that in addition to considering the price, the selection process also takes into account other factors such as quality, performance, and technical capabilities of the product or service being evaluated. The decision is based on whether the product or service meets the minimum requirements and standards set by the buyer, rather than solely on the lowest price.

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  • 9. 

    (001) A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given what color/rating?

    • A.

      Green/Good.

    • B.

      Yellow/Marginal.

    • C.

      Blue/Outstanding.

    • D.

      Purple/Acceptable

    Correct Answer
    C. Blue/Outstanding.
    Explanation
    A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given a blue rating. This suggests that the proposal is outstanding and surpasses expectations.

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  • 10. 

    (001) Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except

    • A.

      Complexity

    • B.

      Dollar value

    • C.

      Similarity of service/support.

    • D.

      Number of contracts performed

    Correct Answer
    D. Number of contracts performed
    Explanation
    The common aspects of past performance relevancy include complexity, dollar value, and similarity of service/support. These factors are typically considered when evaluating a contractor's past performance. However, the number of contracts performed is not directly related to the relevancy of past performance. It may indicate experience, but it does not necessarily reflect the contractor's ability to perform a specific type of service or support.

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  • 11. 

    (001) Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance confidence rating?

    • A.

      No Confidence

    • B.

      Limited Confidence

    • C.

      Unknown Confidence

    • D.

      Satisfactory Confidence

    Correct Answer
    C. Unknown Confidence
    Explanation
    Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive an "Unknown Confidence" performance confidence rating. This means that there is no information available to assess their past performance and determine their level of confidence.

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  • 12. 

    (002) Which of the following methods is not used in support of price analysis?

    • A.

      Use of weighted guidelines.

    • B.

      Comparison of proposed prices

    • C.

      Use of parametric estimating methods

    • D.

      Analysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of weighted guidelines.
  • 13. 

    (002) Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?

    • A.

      Type of funding being used.

    • B.

      . Differences in quantities or size

    • C.

      Use of federal supply schedules

    • D.

      Differences in contractor business size

    Correct Answer
    B. . Differences in quantities or size
    Explanation
    Differences in quantities or size can affect comparability during price analysis because when comparing prices, it is important to ensure that the quantities or sizes being compared are similar. If there are significant differences in quantities or sizes, it can distort the comparison and make it difficult to determine the true cost or value of the items being analyzed. Therefore, it is important to consider and account for any differences in quantities or sizes when conducting price analysis.

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  • 14. 

    When the price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price,

    • A.

      The requirement must be cancelled and resolicited.

    • B.

      Other than certified cost or pricing data may be used.

    • C.

      use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.

    • D.

      Offerors must provide certified cost or pricing data to support the proposed cost

    Correct Answer
    C. use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.
    Explanation
    When the price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price, the requirement must be cancelled and resolicited. In such cases, a cost analysis is necessary to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data. This means that the evaluation of the price must go beyond the certified cost or pricing data provided by the offerors. The cost analysis helps in assessing other relevant data to determine a fair and reasonable price for the requirement.

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  • 15. 

    (002) Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past performance?

    • A.

      Past performance information provided directly by the offeror should not be relied upon

    • B.

      The past performance evaluation satisfies the responsibility determination required under FAR subpart 9.1.

    • C.

      Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies.

    • D.

      Offerors with demonstrated past performance that is neither relevant nor recent must not be removed from further consideration for award.

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies.
    Explanation
    When evaluating past performance, it is important to consider information regarding predecessor companies. This means that the performance of a company's previous iterations or subsidiaries should also be taken into account. This can provide valuable insights into the overall track record and capabilities of the offeror.

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  • 16. 

    (002) Technical analysis of offeror proposals should

    • A.

      Analyze each offeror’s profit margin

    • B.

      Only be conducted by the contract officer (CO).

    • C.

      Review each offeror’s experience on similar projects

    • D.

      Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed

    Correct Answer
    D. Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to examine the types and quantities of materials proposed. This is because when conducting a technical analysis of offeror proposals, it is important to evaluate the materials that each offeror is proposing to use. This analysis helps to determine if the materials are suitable for the project and if they meet the required specifications. It also allows for a comparison of the different offerors' proposed materials, which can help in making a decision on the most suitable offer.

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  • 17. 

    (002) Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?

    • A.

      Only the top five firms should be included in the competitive range

    • B.

      A proposal may be included in the competitive range even though it is not among the most highly rated

    • C.

      . Include only those proposals within 20 percent of the most favorable proposal in the competitive range

    • D.

      Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals

    Correct Answer
    D. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals
    Explanation
    When determining the competitive range, it is important to limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will allow for an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals. This means that only the top-rated proposals should be included in the competitive range, ensuring that the selection process focuses on the most qualified and competitive firms. Including only the top-rated proposals helps to streamline the evaluation process and make a more informed decision.

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  • 18. 

    (002) Communications are held after receipt of proposals to

    • A.

      Negotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range

    • B.

      Determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range

    • C.

      Identify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly

    • D.

      Discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to materially enhance the proposal’s potential for award

    Correct Answer
    B. Determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range
    Explanation
    After receiving proposals, communications are held to determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range. This means that the purpose of the communication is to evaluate the proposals and decide which ones are eligible to move forward in the competitive process. This step helps narrow down the pool of offerors and select the most competitive proposals for further consideration.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?

    • A.

      Discussions allow for revisions to proposals.

    • B.

      Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.

    • C.

      Discussions must be held with only those offerors in the competitive range

    • D.

      Discussions permit offerors to clarify aspects of the proposal that are deficient

    Correct Answer
    B. Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.
    Explanation
    Discussions are not used to establish the competitive range. The competitive range is determined before discussions take place. Discussions are held with offerors in the competitive range to allow them to clarify and revise their proposals, as well as address any deficiencies.

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  • 20. 

    002) What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?

    • A.

      Discussions.

    • B.

      Notifications.

    • C.

      Clarifications.

    • D.

      Communications

    Correct Answer
    C. Clarifications.
    Explanation
    Clarifications are a type of exchange in the procurement process where the government can seek limited information to clarify aspects of a proposal or to correct minor errors or discrepancies. Unlike discussions, clarifications do not allow for negotiations or the opportunity to address weaknesses in the proposal. Instead, they are used to ensure that the proposal is complete and accurate. This allows the government to make a more informed decision without reopening the competition or engaging in extensive negotiations.

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  • 21. 

    (003) The overall objective of negotiations is to

    • A.

      Obtain the lowest price possible.

    • B.

      . never settle on a price that is outside of the government’s minimum and maximum objective

    • C.

      Negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance

    • D.

      Negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance
    Explanation
    The overall objective of negotiations is to negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance. This means that the negotiations aim to find a contract that not only meets the government's requirements but also encourages the contractor to perform their best and deliver high-quality results. By providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance, the government can ensure that they are getting the best value for their money and achieving their objectives effectively. The objective is not to obtain the lowest price possible or negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable, but rather to focus on performance incentives.

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  • 22. 

    (003) In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?

    • A.

      Minimum price position.

    • B.

      Objective price position.

    • C.

      Median price position

    • D.

      Maximum price position.

    Correct Answer
    B. Objective price position.
    Explanation
    In noncompetitive negotiations, the objective price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis. This position takes into account various factors such as market research, cost analysis, and other relevant data to determine a fair and reasonable price. It aims to find a balance between the government's needs and the contractor's capabilities, ensuring that the price is neither too high nor too low. By using the objective price position, the government can negotiate a price that is considered fair and reasonable for both parties involved.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is NOT true regarding negotiations?

    • A.

      Both parties to a negotiation expect movement by the other party.

    • B.

      When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to analyze profit

    • C.

      Before entering into competitive discussions, develop separate minimum, objective, and maximum positions for each proposal

    • D.

      In competitive discussions, minimum contract requirements cannot be changed unless all offerors remaining in the competitive range have an opportunity to revise their proposal

    Correct Answer
    B. When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to analyze profit
    Explanation
    This statement is not true because when the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers are not required to analyze profit. Price analysis focuses on determining whether the proposed price is fair and reasonable based on market research and comparison with similar products or services. Profit analysis, on the other hand, involves assessing the profitability of the proposed price for the contractor.

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  • 24. 

    (003) The inability to compromise may be avoided by

    • A.

      Using concessions to split any differences

    • B.

      Threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement

    • C.

      Using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone

    • D.

      Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise

    Correct Answer
    D. Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise
    Explanation
    Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise is a strategy that can help avoid the inability to compromise. By setting an initial position that is flexible and open to negotiation, it creates space for finding common ground and reaching a mutually agreeable solution. This approach acknowledges that compromise is necessary and demonstrates a willingness to work towards a resolution. It encourages open communication and collaboration, making it more likely to find a middle ground that satisfies both parties.

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  • 25. 

    . (003) It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when

    • A.

      A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.

    • B.

      The government will exceed its maximum price position

    • C.

      The negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time

    • D.

      The parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
    Explanation
    Walking away from negotiations when a reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal is a valid reason because it implies that the terms of the deal are unfavorable or not beneficial. Making a decision based on what a reasonable person would consider is a practical approach to ensure that one does not enter into an agreement that may result in negative consequences or unfavorable outcomes.

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  • 26. 

    (003) When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must

    • A.

      Not further consider the offeror for award

    • B.

      Provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency

    • C.

      Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal

    • D.

      Discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal
    Explanation
    When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. This means that the government will inform the offeror of the deficiency and give them a chance to make necessary corrections or improvements to their proposal. This allows the offeror to address any weaknesses or shortcomings in their initial submission and potentially still be considered for award.

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  • 27. 

    (003) When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are emphasized to offerors except

    • A.

      . discussions will not involve offers and counteroffers

    • B.

      The government will rely on the forces of competition to obtain a win/win result

    • C.

      . the contract officer (CO) may request or allow a proposal revision to clarify the offeror’s position for further discussion

    • D.

      . the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government

    Correct Answer
    D. . the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government. This means that the government will only engage in negotiations with offerors whose proposals are deemed to be the most advantageous for the government's needs. This ensures that the government can obtain the best possible outcome from the competitive discussions.

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  • 28. 

    (003) What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition?

    • A.

      Sole Source Letter.

    • B.

      Best Value Determination

    • C.

      Determination and Findings

    • D.

      Price Negotiation Memorandum

    Correct Answer
    D. Price Negotiation Memorandum
    Explanation
    The Price Negotiation Memorandum is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition. This document outlines the details of the negotiations, including the rationale for the price agreed upon. It provides a record of the negotiation process and helps to ensure that the price is fair and reasonable.

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  • 29. 

     (003) When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection

    • A.

      Compare proposals against each other.

    • B.

      The evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used

    • C.

      The government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors

    • D.

      The government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors

    Correct Answer
    B. The evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used
    Explanation
    When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection, the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used. This means that the government cannot deviate from the criteria outlined in the RFP and must compare the proposals against each other based on these criteria. The government is not allowed to request final proposal revisions from any offerors and can only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.

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  • 30. 

    (004) Which of the following statements regarding the source selection decision document (SSDD) is incorrect?

    • A.

      The SSDD must include the rationale for any business judgments made or relied on.

    • B.

      The SSDD may use reports and analyses prepared by others as supporting rationale

    • C.

      The SSDD must support the selection of the best value proposal consistent with the stated evaluation criteria

    • D.

      The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision

    Correct Answer
    D. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision
    Explanation
    The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision.

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  • 31. 

    (005) Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a preaward debriefing?

    • A.

      The number of offerors.

    • B.

      The identity of other offerors.

    • C.

      The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion

    • D.

      The ranking of the offeror (if rankings were used) in comparison with other offerors

    Correct Answer
    C. The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion
    Explanation
    During a preaward debriefing, the rationale for eliminating the offeror from the competition may be disclosed. This means that the procuring agency can provide an explanation to the offeror as to why their proposal was not selected. This can help the offeror understand the weaknesses in their proposal and improve for future opportunities. However, the number of offerors, the identity of other offerors, and the ranking of the offeror in comparison with others are typically not disclosed during a preaward debriefing to maintain confidentiality and protect the competitive nature of the procurement process.

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  • 32. 

    (005) Post-award debriefings must include

    • A.

      The overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors

    • B.

      The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal

    • C.

      . names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance

    • D.

      A point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors

    Correct Answer
    B. The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal
    Explanation
    Post-award debriefings must include the government's evaluation of the significant weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. This means that the government must provide feedback on the areas where the offeror's proposal fell short or had significant weaknesses. This information is important for the offeror to understand why their proposal was not selected and to improve their future proposals. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process by providing the offeror with a clear understanding of the evaluation criteria and how their proposal was assessed.

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  • 33. 

    . (005) Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that

    • A.

      . no further questions are permissible

    • B.

      Debriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO).

    • C.

      Only the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions

    • D.

      . requests for additional information must be submitted in writing with 3 days after conclusion of the debriefing

    Correct Answer
    A. . no further questions are permissible
    Explanation
    Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that no further questions are permissible. This means that after the debriefing session, the offerors are not allowed to ask any more questions or seek further clarification regarding the evaluation or decision-making process.

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  • 34. 

    (005) What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was received?

    • A.

      The CO may decline to provide the debriefing

    • B.

      The CO must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount

    • C.

      The CO must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness

    • D.

      The CO is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the CO may decline to provide the debriefing. This means that if a request for a debriefing is received after a certain deadline or timeframe, the CO has the option to refuse to provide the debriefing. There may be valid reasons for the CO to decline such as the request being untimely or not meeting the necessary requirements for a debriefing.

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  • 35. 

    (005) All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential for protests, except

    • A.

      . ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.

    • B.

      Provide timely debriefings in response to written requests.

    • C.

      Document when an offeror receives notification of being excluded from the competitive range

    • D.

      Use source selection documents and evaluation reports to form the basis of debriefing material.

    Correct Answer
    A. . ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because ensuring all of an offeror's questions are answered actually helps to eliminate potential protests. By addressing all of the offeror's concerns and providing clear and comprehensive answers, it reduces the likelihood of misunderstandings or dissatisfaction that could lead to protests. The other actions mentioned, such as providing timely debriefings, documenting exclusions, and using source selection documents for debriefing material, also contribute to transparency and fairness in the procurement process, further reducing the potential for protests.

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  • 36. 

    (006) A preconstruction orientation

    • A.

      May only be provided via a formal conference.

    • B.

      . is mandatory and must be provided to all government contractors prior to starting work on a military installation

    • C.

      Is used to validate contractor payrolls and ensure compliance with labor laws

    • D.

      May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.

    Correct Answer
    D. May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
    Explanation
    A preconstruction orientation may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed because it allows the government to provide contractors with important information regarding the project, such as project scope, schedule, and any specific requirements. This orientation serves as a formal communication between the government and the contractors, ensuring that both parties are on the same page before work begins. By issuing the Notice to Proceed during the preconstruction orientation, the government can officially authorize the contractors to start work on the project.

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  • 37. 

    (006) When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be informed of significant matters including all of the following except

    • A.

      Contracting authority.

    • B.

      A review of the pricing schedule.

    • C.

      Statutory matters such as labor standards

    • D.

      A review of performance and payment bonds

    Correct Answer
    B. A review of the pricing schedule.
    Explanation
    During a preconstruction orientation, offerors are informed of significant matters related to the project. This includes contracting authority, statutory matters such as labor standards, and a review of performance and payment bonds. However, the review of the pricing schedule is not included in the information provided during the orientation.

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  • 38. 

    (006) The Material and Workmanship clause

    • A.

      Establishes the submittal process.

    • B.

      Requires all used equipment, material, and articles to be like new

    • C.

      Requires contractors to warrant construction for a minimum of 5 years from the date final payment is made

    • D.

      Provides a detailed list of the most suitable equipment and materials that may be incorporated into work covered by the contract

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishes the submittal process.
    Explanation
    The Material and Workmanship clause establishes the submittal process. This means that it outlines the procedures and requirements for submitting materials and workmanship details for approval during the construction project. It does not necessarily require all used equipment, material, and articles to be like new, or require contractors to provide a warranty for a specific period of time. It also does not provide a detailed list of suitable equipment and materials.

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  • 39. 

    (006) Material Approval Submittals must be approved

    • A.

      Within a reasonable time.

    • B.

      Prior to issuance of the Notice to Proceed.

    • C.

      Within 3 days after receipt of the submittal.

    • D.

      Within 10 days after receipt of the submittal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within a reasonable time.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "within a reasonable time." This means that Material Approval Submittals should be approved in a timely manner, but there is no specific timeframe mentioned. The approval should be done within a reasonable timeframe, which may vary depending on the specific circumstances and requirements of the project.

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  • 40. 

    (006) Contractor progress schedules are required

    • A.

      For all construction contracts.

    • B.

      For only architect and engineering contracts

    • C.

      When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 30 days

    • D.

      When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
    Explanation
    Contractor progress schedules are required when contracts exceed the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 60 days. This means that for construction contracts that are below the SAT or have a performance period of 60 days or less, progress schedules are not required. However, for contracts that exceed the SAT and have a longer performance period, it is necessary to have progress schedules to track the contractor's progress and ensure timely completion of the project.

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  • 41. 

    (006) Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure

    • A.

      The use of subcontractors does not hinder the target performance progress.

    • B.

      The contractor has identified areas in which unforeseen delays are expected.

    • C.

      The target and actual performance progress is plotted prior to beginning work

    • D.

      The length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed

    Correct Answer
    D. The length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed
    Explanation
    Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to ensure that the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed. This is important because if the time allocated for a task is too short, it may hinder the contractor's ability to meet the target performance progress. On the other hand, if the time allocated is too long, it may lead to unnecessary delays and inefficiencies. Therefore, reviewing the length of time allotted for each task helps to ensure that the schedule is realistic and achievable.

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  • 42. 

    (006) Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?

    • A.

      Payrolls

    • B.

      Progress report

    • C.

      Preorientation conference.

    • D.

      Material approval submittal

    Correct Answer
    B. Progress report
    Explanation
    A progress report is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule. This report provides information on the progress made on a project, including the tasks completed, the percentage of completion, and any issues or challenges encountered. By regularly updating and posting this information on the progress schedule, project managers and stakeholders can track the project's progress and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and scheduling adjustments.

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  • 43. 

    (006) Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the government fails to provide timely submittal approval?

    • A.

      Time only.

    • B.

      Money only

    • C.

      Both time and money

    • D.

      Neither time nor money

    Correct Answer
    C. Both time and money
    Explanation
    When the government fails to provide timely submittal approval, a contractor is entitled to both time and money. This means that the contractor can request an extension of the project timeline and also seek compensation for any additional costs incurred due to the delay caused by the government's failure to provide timely approval.

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  • 44. 

    (006) Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration?

    • A.

      It is for the contractor’s benefit.

    • B.

      The acceleration is not government directed

    • C.

      The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue

    • D.

      If the government allows the acceleration and does nothing, it could potentially be held to have constructively accelerated the contractor

    Correct Answer
    C. The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue
    Explanation
    When a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration, it is not always compensable if the government allows it to continue. The statement implies that the government is obligated to compensate the contractor for the acceleration, but this is not always the case. The government may choose to allow the acceleration without providing additional compensation.

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  • 45. 

    (006) Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of Work clause?

    • A.

      Profit cannot be paid during the suspension period.

    • B.

      The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause

    • C.

      The clause provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in cost of performance.

    • D.

      The government may suspend work under the contractor for a period of time the CO deems appropriate

    Correct Answer
    B. The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause
    Explanation
    The Suspension of Work clause allows for the government to suspend work under the contractor for a period of time deemed appropriate by the Contracting Officer (CO). It also provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in the cost of performance. However, it does not explicitly allow for the contractor to be granted a time extension.

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  • 46. 

    (006) Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes?

    • A.

      Default clause.

    • B.

      Changes clause

    • C.

      Suspension of Work clause

    • D.

      Schedules for Construction clause

    Correct Answer
    A. Default clause.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Default clause. The Default clause allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes. This clause is typically included in contracts to address unforeseen circumstances that may cause delays in the project timeline. It provides a mechanism for the parties involved to agree on an extension of time to compensate for the delay caused by these specific events.

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  • 47. 

    (007) The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) provides a centralized repository of contractor performance information for

    • A.

      Official use only.

    • B.

      Classified use only

    • C.

      Unclassified use only

    • D.

      Both unclassified and classified use

    Correct Answer
    C. Unclassified use only
    Explanation
    The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) is a system that stores information about contractor performance. This information is intended for official use, meaning it is meant to be used by authorized personnel within the government. However, it is not classified, meaning it is not restricted to only those with security clearances. Therefore, the information in CPARS is unclassified and can be accessed by individuals who have the appropriate authorization, regardless of their security clearance level.

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  • 48. 

    (007) An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for orders placed against Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) and that exceed what dollar threshold?

    • A.

      Orders placed against FSS are not reportable.

    • B.

      Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.

    • C.

      Only those orders that exceed $1,000,000

    • D.

      Only those orders that exceed $5,000,000

    Correct Answer
    B. Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.
  • 49. 

    (007) What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract?

    • A.

      Final report

    • B.

      Interim report

    • C.

      Addendum report

    • D.

      Annual interim report

    Correct Answer
    D. Annual interim report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Annual interim report. This report is used at the end of the first 12 month option period on a 5 year contract. It provides an assessment of the contractor's performance during the first year of the contract and serves as an interim evaluation before the final report is issued at the end of the contract.

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  • 50. 

    (008) Grounds for a protest include all of the following except

    • A.

      Relaxing the announced criteria.

    • B.

      Failure to follow the existing criteria

    • C.

      Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals

    • D.

      Imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals in the competitive range

    Correct Answer
    C. Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals
    Explanation
    The grounds for a protest include relaxing the announced criteria, failure to follow the existing criteria, and imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals. However, excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals is not a valid ground for a protest.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 20, 2014
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