4N051 CDC Ure Questions Volume 1
Volume 1 of Set B of 4N051 CDC questions 1-58 (Sections 1-12)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
- C.
Pathogen
- D.
Micro-organism
Correct Answer
C. PathogenExplanation
A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, parasite, or any other microorganism that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens are capable of reproducing within the host and can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild infections to severe diseases. They can be transmitted through various means, such as direct contact, airborne droplets, contaminated food or water, or through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks. Understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?
- A.
Sporozoa
- B.
Chlamydia
- C.
Rickettsiae
- D.
Mycoplasma
Correct Answer
A. SporozoaExplanation
Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is the classification of organisms responsible for causing the disease malaria. Sporozoa are a group of parasitic protozoans that have complex life cycles and are known to cause various diseases in humans and animals. Malaria is caused by a specific type of sporozoan called Plasmodium, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. These parasites invade red blood cells and cause symptoms such as fever, chills, and fatigue. Therefore, Sporozoa is the correct classification for the organisms responsible for malaria.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(002) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of the symptoms of the particular disease?
- A.
Illness
- B.
Virculence
- C.
Incubation
- D.
Convalescence
Correct Answer
C. IncubationExplanation
The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation is the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but the symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this stage, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body. The length of the incubation period varies depending on the specific disease and can range from a few hours to several years. It is important to note that individuals in the incubation stage can still transmit the infection to others, even though they may not show any symptoms themselves.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through?
- A.
Cilia
- B.
Sneezing
- C.
Handwashing
- D.
The Lymphatic System
Correct Answer
A. CiliaExplanation
Cilia are tiny hair-like structures found in the mucous membrane that help to filter and trap foreign bodies. They constantly move in a coordinated manner, creating a wave-like motion that helps to sweep away dust, bacteria, and other particles from the respiratory tract. This mechanism is important for protecting the lungs and preventing the entry of harmful substances into the body.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) Which of the following is not a type of transmisson-based precaution?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Enteric
Correct Answer
D. EntericExplanation
Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that can be transmitted through tiny droplets in the air, such as tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are used for diseases that can be transmitted through larger droplets, such as influenza. Contact precautions are used for diseases that can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions specifically refer to measures taken to prevent the spread of diseases that affect the gastrointestinal tract, such as norovirus or Clostridium difficile.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?
- A.
Droplet
- B.
Contact
- C.
Airborne
- D.
Respiratory
Correct Answer
C. AirborneExplanation
Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitoring of negative air pressure. Negative air pressure is used to prevent the spread of infectious particles by ensuring that air flows into the room, preventing contaminated air from escaping. This is particularly important for airborne diseases that can be spread through tiny particles that remain suspended in the air for long periods. By maintaining negative air pressure, the risk of these particles escaping the room and infecting others is minimized. Therefore, the correct answer is airborne.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) What is the most serious type of meningitis?
- A.
Viral
- B.
Serum
- C.
Bacterial
- D.
Pneumococcal
Correct Answer
C. BacterialExplanation
Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis. Unlike viral meningitis, which is usually less severe and resolves on its own, bacterial meningitis can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream and spreading to the brain and spinal cord, leading to inflammation and potential complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, or even death. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are crucial in managing bacterial meningitis.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is?
- A.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
- B.
Irregular menstral cycles
- C.
Vaginal discharge
- D.
Chlamydia
Correct Answer
A. Pelvic inflammatory diseaseExplanation
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One of the most common and serious complications that can arise from gonorrhea in females is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding tissues. It can lead to chronic pelvic pain, infertility, and an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea and requires prompt medical attention and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(004) Which medical substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
- A.
Disinfectant
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Detergent
- D.
Antitoxin
Correct Answer
B. AntisepticExplanation
Antiseptics are medical substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are specifically designed for use on living tissue to prevent infection. They are commonly used in wound care and surgical procedures to cleanse and protect the skin from harmful bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Antiseptics work by killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, thereby reducing the risk of infection and promoting healing.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(004) Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms?
- A.
Medical sepsis
- B.
Medical asepsis
- C.
Surgical sepsis
- D.
Surgical asepsis
Correct Answer
D. Surgical asepsisExplanation
Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms. This term is specifically related to surgical procedures and is used to ensure a sterile environment in the operating room. It involves using sterile equipment, following strict hand hygiene protocols, and maintaining a sterile field to prevent the introduction of any microorganisms that could cause infection during surgery.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(005) What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Reverse
Correct Answer
D. ReverseExplanation
Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a type of isolation where the patient is protected from any potential sources of infection. This is done by creating a controlled environment that minimizes the risk of exposure to pathogens. It is used for patients with compromised immune systems, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplants, to prevent them from acquiring infections from the outside environment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(005) What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?
- A.
You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient
- B.
Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions
- C.
Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
- D.
Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients
Correct Answer
C. Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transportExplanation
When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is done to prevent the spread of infection to others and to protect the patient from further contamination. By providing the patient with protective clothing, the risk of transmitting the infection is minimized.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is?
- A.
A storage cart
- B.
An isolation cart
- C.
The supply room
- D.
The nurse's station
Correct Answer
C. The supply roomExplanation
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is the supply room. The supply room can serve as a space to store necessary equipment, supplies, and materials for the isolation unit. It can also be used as a staging area for healthcare professionals to prepare before entering the isolation unit. While an anteroom is typically preferred for its ability to provide a buffer zone between the isolation unit and the rest of the healthcare facility, the supply room can still fulfill some of the same functions and meet the needs of an isolation unit to a certain extent.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on?
- A.
After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving
- B.
After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving
- C.
Before entering the unit, and take it off before leaving
- D.
Before entering the unit, and take it off after leaving
Correct Answer
C. Before entering the unit, and take it off before leavingExplanation
The correct answer is "Before entering the unit, and take it off before leaving." This is because when using a mask in an isolation unit, it is important to put the mask on before entering the unit to prevent any potential exposure to harmful substances. Additionally, the mask should be taken off before leaving the unit to avoid contaminating other areas or spreading any potential contaminants.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(006) What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?
- A.
Cleaning
- B.
Disinfection
- C.
Pasteurization
- D.
Decontamination
Correct Answer
A. CleaningExplanation
The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. Cleaning involves removing visible dirt, debris, and organic matter from the objects. This is important because sterilization cannot effectively occur if the objects are not clean. Cleaning helps to reduce the number of microorganisms present on the objects and prepares them for further sterilization processes.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(006) How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?
- A.
3 minutes
- B.
5 minutes
- C.
10 minutes
- D.
12 minutes
Correct Answer
D. 12 minutesExplanation
During the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer, an item is immersed in the sterilant for 12 minutes. This duration allows sufficient time for the sterilant to effectively eliminate any microorganisms present on the item, ensuring a thorough sterilization process.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
- A.
Formaldehydes
- B.
Hydrochloric acid
- C.
Phenolics
- D.
Alcohol
Correct Answer
B. Hydrochloric acidExplanation
Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent. It is a strong acid commonly used in industries for various purposes, such as cleaning and etching metals. However, it is not typically used as a disinfectant due to its corrosive and harmful nature. Formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfecting agents in various settings, such as healthcare facilities, laboratories, and households. They have proven efficacy in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(006) How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Daily and weekly
- C.
Daily and monthly
- D.
Weekly and monthly
Correct Answer
B. Daily and weeklyExplanation
Steam sterilizers need to be cleaned and inspected regularly to ensure their proper functioning and to prevent the buildup of contaminants. Daily cleaning helps remove any visible debris or residue on the sterilizer, while weekly cleaning allows for a more thorough cleaning of the internal components. Regular inspections, both daily and weekly, help identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may affect the sterilizer's performance. Therefore, cleaning and inspecting steam sterilizers on a daily and weekly basis is necessary for maintaining their effectiveness and preventing any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(006) Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every...
- A.
Load
- B.
Other load
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
D. 24 hoursExplanation
Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every 24 hours. This is because regular testing is necessary to ensure that the sterilizer is functioning properly and effectively. By running diagnostic tests every 24 hours, any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of inadequate sterilization and ensuring the safety of the sterilized items.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(006) How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?
- A.
Every load
- B.
Every 30 loads
- C.
At least once per day
- D.
At least once per week
Correct Answer
C. At least once per dayExplanation
Biological testing should be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers at least once per day. This is important to ensure the effectiveness of the sterilization process and to identify any potential issues or failures. Regular testing helps to maintain the safety and quality of the sterilization process, reducing the risk of contamination and ensuring that the sterilizer is functioning properly. Conducting testing every day allows for prompt identification and resolution of any problems that may arise, ensuring the sterilizer is consistently operating at the required standards.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(007) Which basic human need category is rest included in?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Security
- C.
Self-esteem
- D.
Physiological
Correct Answer
D. PhysiologicalExplanation
Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. Rest refers to the physical need for sleep and relaxation, which is essential for maintaining overall health and well-being. Adequate rest helps in restoring energy levels, promoting proper functioning of the body's systems, and supporting cognitive functions. It is a fundamental requirement for the body to repair and rejuvenate itself, ensuring optimal physical functioning. Therefore, rest falls under the physiological category, which encompasses the basic biological needs necessary for survival and physical functioning.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(007) Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?
- A.
Vitamins A
- B.
Vitamins K
- C.
Ascorbic acid
- D.
B-complex vitamins
Correct Answer
D. B-complex vitaminsExplanation
B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. These vitamins include vitamin B12, folic acid, and vitamin B6. Vitamin B12 is required for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of red blood cells. Folic acid is essential for the production and maintenance of new cells, including red blood cells. Vitamin B6 is involved in the metabolism of amino acids, which are building blocks for hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Therefore, all these B-complex vitamins play a crucial role in the production of red blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(007) What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
- A.
Iron
- B.
Soy
- C.
Niacin
- D.
Calcium
Correct Answer
A. IronExplanation
Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen molecules and allows them to be transported to tissues and organs. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, iron is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin and the proper functioning of the circulatory system.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(007) Plasma lipids include what 3 substances?
- A.
Vitamins, minerals, and herbs
- B.
Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats
- C.
Nitrogen, carbon dioxide and glucosaccaride
- D.
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesteral
Correct Answer
D. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesteralExplanation
The correct answer is triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol. Plasma lipids are a type of fat that circulates in the bloodstream. Triglycerides are the most common type of lipid and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are a major component of cell membranes and help with cell structure and function. Cholesterol is another type of lipid that is important for hormone production and cell membrane integrity.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(007) What two actions are included in the physiological need for rest?
- A.
Rest and activity
- B.
Pain free and rest
- C.
Activity and pain free
- D.
Pain free and exercise
Correct Answer
B. Pain free and restExplanation
The physiological need for rest includes two actions: being pain free and engaging in rest. Resting allows the body to recover and recharge, while being pain free ensures that there are no physical discomforts or ailments hindering the restorative process. Together, these actions contribute to the body's overall need for rest and rejuvenation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(008) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birst weight at what age?
- A.
12 months
- B.
18 months
- C.
24 months
- D.
36 months
Correct Answer
C. 24 monthsExplanation
A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months. This means that by the time they reach their second birthday, their weight should have quadrupled from what it was at birth.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(009) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
- A.
Blood pressure screenings
- B.
Assessing current fitness status
- C.
Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants
- D.
Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
Correct Answer
A. Blood pressure screeningsExplanation
Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help identify individuals with high blood pressure, which is a common health issue. By conducting regular screenings, employers can promote early detection and encourage employees to manage their blood pressure levels. This aligns with the goal of a work site wellness program, which is to provide services that support and maintain a healthy lifestyle for employees. Assessing current fitness status, establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants, and providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle may also be part of a wellness program, but blood pressure screenings are the most direct and specific choice.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(010) What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?
- A.
Gastric acid
- B.
Intrinsic factor
- C.
Hydrogen ions
- D.
Red blood cells
Correct Answer
B. Intrinsic factorExplanation
Intrinsic factor is a substance that is needed by the body in order to absorb vitamin B12. It is produced by the parietal cells in the stomach lining and binds to vitamin B12, allowing it to be absorbed in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, the body would not be able to effectively absorb vitamin B12, which is essential for the production of red blood cells and the proper functioning of the nervous system.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(008) What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?
- A.
Babinski
- B.
Grasping
- C.
Rooting
- D.
Moro
Correct Answer
D. MoroExplanation
The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is also known as the startle reflex and is a normal response in newborns. It is believed to be a primitive reflex that helps the infant to protect themselves from potential danger.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(010) B12 deficiency are first noted by?
- A.
Aplastic anemia
- B.
Hemolytic anemia
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Sickle cell anemia
Correct Answer
C. Pernicious anemiaExplanation
Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of healthy red blood cells. The symptoms of pernicious anemia often appear gradually and can include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, pale skin, and neurological problems. It is typically diagnosed through blood tests that measure vitamin B12 levels. Aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia are not directly related to vitamin B12 deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(010) Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through?
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
Packaging
- C.
Cooking
- D.
Freezing
Correct Answer
D. FreezingExplanation
Freezing is a process that can cause the loss of Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources. When food is frozen, the water inside it forms ice crystals, which can damage the structure of the food and lead to the loss of nutrients. Vitamin B6 is a water-soluble vitamin, and its concentration can be affected by the freezing process. Therefore, freezing can result in a decrease in the Vitamin B6 content of food sources.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(010) Large doses of Vitamin C cause all of the following except?
- A.
Heartburn
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Kidney stones
- D.
Abdominal cramps
Correct Answer
B. ConstipationExplanation
Large doses of Vitamin C can cause a variety of gastrointestinal symptoms, including heartburn, kidney stones, and abdominal cramps. However, constipation is not typically associated with high doses of Vitamin C. In fact, Vitamin C is often used as a natural remedy for constipation due to its ability to soften stools and promote bowel movements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(010) Vitamin D interacts with all the following except?
- A.
Digitalis
- B.
Calcium
- C.
Mineral oil
- D.
Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer
B. CalciumExplanation
Vitamin D interacts with several substances in the body, but it does not interact with calcium. Vitamin D actually helps the body absorb calcium from the diet and plays a crucial role in maintaining healthy bones and teeth. It works by promoting the absorption of calcium from the intestines and regulating its levels in the blood. Therefore, there is no interaction between vitamin D and calcium.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(010) A primary sign of a Vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of?
- A.
Rickets
- B.
Night blindness
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Prolonged clotting times
Correct Answer
D. Prolonged clotting timesExplanation
A primary sign of a Vitamin E overdose is prolonged clotting times. Vitamin E is known for its role in blood clotting, and an excessive amount of this vitamin can interfere with the normal clotting process. This can lead to prolonged bleeding and difficulty in stopping bleeding. Other symptoms of a Vitamin E overdose may include fatigue, muscle weakness, and digestive problems. However, it is important to note that Vitamin E toxicity is rare and usually only occurs with high-dose supplementation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(010) Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Heparin overdose
- C.
Malabsorption syndromes
- D.
Prolonged use of salicylates
Correct Answer
B. Heparin overdoseExplanation
Vitamin K is not used to treat heparin overdose because heparin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents blood clotting, while vitamin K is involved in the clotting process. Therefore, administering vitamin K would counteract the effects of heparin and potentially increase the risk of clot formation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(010) Which of the following is not fat-soluble?
- A.
Vitamin A
- B.
Vitamin C
- C.
Vitamin E
- D.
Vitamin K
Correct Answer
B. Vitamin CExplanation
Vitamin C is not fat-soluble. Fat-soluble vitamins are those that dissolve in fats and oils, and are stored in the body's fatty tissues. Vitamin A, Vitamin E, and Vitamin K are all fat-soluble vitamins, meaning they can be stored in the body for longer periods of time. On the other hand, Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, which means it dissolves in water and is not stored in the body. Instead, any excess Vitamin C is excreted through urine.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(010) Signs of sodium chloride defiency can be seen when?
- A.
During a blood transfusion
- B.
As a result of not using table salt
- C.
When a individual is unable to sink in water
- D.
Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
Correct Answer
D. Through an excessive amount of fluid lossExplanation
When an individual experiences an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, it can lead to sodium chloride deficiency. Sodium chloride, also known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids, the concentration of sodium chloride in the body decreases, leading to symptoms of deficiency. These symptoms may include muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and in severe cases, confusion and seizures.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(010) Half-normal saline solution is represented by?
- A.
0.20%
- B.
0.40%
- C.
0.45%
- D.
0.50%
Correct Answer
C. 0.45%Explanation
Half-normal saline solution is represented by 0.45%. This solution contains 0.45 grams of sodium chloride per 100 milliliters of water, which is equivalent to 0.45%. It is commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, such as rehydration and maintaining electrolyte balance.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(010) Potassium helps to maintain what?
- A.
Facial muscle tone
- B.
Clarity of eye sight
- C.
Heartbeat regulation
- D.
Alertness in the cerebellum
Correct Answer
C. Heartbeat regulationExplanation
Potassium helps to regulate heartbeat. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical activity of the heart, which is necessary for the heart to contract and pump blood effectively. Potassium ions are involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses in heart muscle cells. Imbalances in potassium levels can disrupt the normal heart rhythm and lead to irregular heartbeats or arrhythmias. Therefore, maintaining appropriate levels of potassium is essential for the proper functioning of the heart and the regulation of heartbeat.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(010) Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except?
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Gastric ulcers
- C.
Cardiac disease
- D.
Renal impairment
Correct Answer
A. DiabetesExplanation
Individuals with diabetes do not need to exercise caution when administering potassium. Potassium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function, and individuals with diabetes may actually have a higher risk of potassium deficiency due to increased urination caused by high blood sugar levels. Therefore, administering potassium to individuals with diabetes is generally safe and may be necessary to maintain proper potassium levels in the body.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(010) Oral iron supplements should not be taken with?
- A.
Coffee, cranberry juice, or water
- B.
Orange or grapefruit juice
- C.
Soda, water, or milk
- D.
Tea, milk, or coffee
Correct Answer
D. Tea, milk, or coffeeExplanation
Oral iron supplements should not be taken with tea, milk, or coffee because these beverages contain compounds that can inhibit the absorption of iron. Tea contains tannins, which can bind to iron and prevent its absorption. Milk contains calcium, which can form insoluble complexes with iron and reduce its absorption. Coffee contains polyphenols that can also interfere with iron absorption. Therefore, it is recommended to take oral iron supplements with water or citrus juices, such as orange or grapefruit juice, as these can enhance iron absorption.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(010) Which route is injectable iron administered?
- A.
Intramuscular
- B.
Intravenous
- C.
Transdermal
- D.
Z-track
Correct Answer
A. IntramuscularExplanation
Iron is commonly administered through intramuscular injection as it allows for a slow and controlled release of the medication into the muscle tissue. This route is preferred when oral iron supplements are not effective or tolerated by the patient. Intravenous administration may be used in certain cases, but it is usually reserved for severe iron deficiency or when rapid iron replacement is needed. Transdermal and Z-track routes are not typically used for iron administration.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(010) When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as what?
- A.
Attraction
- B.
Catabolism
- C.
Anabolism
- D.
Cataclysm
Correct Answer
C. AnabolismExplanation
Anabolism is the correct answer because it refers to the process of building larger molecules from smaller molecules. It involves the synthesis of complex molecules, such as proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids, through a series of chemical reactions. This process requires energy and is essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of cells and tissues in organisms. Catabolism, on the other hand, is the breakdown of complex molecules into smaller ones, while attraction and cataclysm are unrelated terms in this context.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(010) Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of what?
- A.
Muscle
- B.
Protein
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Enzyme
Correct Answer
D. EnzymeExplanation
Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that occur within cells to sustain life. These reactions are regulated and controlled by specific molecules called enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts, speeding up the rate of these reactions. They are responsible for breaking down molecules, synthesizing new molecules, and regulating the flow of metabolic pathways. Without enzymes, cellular metabolism would not be able to occur efficiently, leading to disruption in cellular function and ultimately, cell death. Therefore, enzymes play a crucial role in controlling cellular metabolism.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(010) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called?
- A.
Salts
- B.
Acids
- C.
Catalyzed
- D.
Synthesized
Correct Answer
B. AcidsExplanation
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH less than 7 and can donate protons or hydrogen ions when dissolved in water. They are known for their sour taste and ability to react with bases to form salts and water. Acids play important roles in various chemical reactions and are commonly used in industries, laboratories, and everyday life.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(010) When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by?
- A.
Excessive thirst and nocturia
- B.
Acetone in the breath and urine
- C.
Constant hunger despite calorie intake
- D.
Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss
Correct Answer
B. Acetone in the breath and urineExplanation
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body produces ketones as a byproduct. Ketones, including acetone, can be detected in the breath and urine. This is a sign of excessive fat metabolism, which can occur in conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes or a ketogenic diet. Excessive thirst and nocturia may be seen in conditions like diabetes, but they are not specific to excessive fat metabolism. Constant hunger despite calorie intake may be seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism, but again, it is not specific to excessive fat metabolism. Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss is not directly related to excessive fat metabolism.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(011) Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
- A.
Protect against disease at the cellular level
- B.
The body's only defense against infection
- C.
Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
- D.
Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
Correct Answer
A. Protect against disease at the cellular levelExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, play a crucial role in protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level. They are part of the immune system and help to identify and eliminate pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, from the body. Leukocytes are responsible for detecting and destroying foreign substances and abnormal cells, thus providing defense against infections and diseases. Their ability to recognize and respond to different pathogens makes them an important component of the body's immune response.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(011) The only main categories of leukocytes are?
- A.
Agranulocytes and basophils
- B.
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
- C.
Neurtophils and granulocytes
- D.
Monophils and lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. Granulocytes and agranulocytesExplanation
Granulocytes and agranulocytes are the only main categories of leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are an essential part of the immune system and play a crucial role in defending the body against infections. Granulocytes are characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm, which contain enzymes and other substances involved in immune responses. Agranulocytes, on the other hand, lack these granules. This categorization helps to differentiate and classify different types of leukocytes based on their specific characteristics and functions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(011) Neutrophils are also known as?
- A.
Polypetides
- B.
Polysaccharides
- C.
Multigranulocytes
- D.
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Correct Answer
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesExplanation
Neutrophils are a type of white blood cells that are part of the immune system. They are called polymorphonuclear leukocytes because their nucleus is multilobed or segmented. This characteristic gives them a polymorphic or varied appearance under a microscope. Neutrophils are known for their ability to quickly respond to infections and inflammation, making them an important component of the body's defense against pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(011) The life span of leukocytes is?
- A.
12 hours
- B.
2 weeks
- C.
Years
- D.
Days
Correct Answer
C. YearsExplanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, have a longer lifespan compared to other blood cells. They can live for years, unlike red blood cells that have a lifespan of about 120 days. This extended lifespan allows leukocytes to continuously defend the body against infections and diseases. They play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and eliminating pathogens, damaged cells, and foreign substances. Therefore, the correct answer is "Years."Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 01, 2012Quiz Created by
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