US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! Trivia Questions Quiz
US Air Force Security Forces Responsibilities! When it comes to the defense forces, everyone appointed has a specific role they need to play, and there are set rules on how they meet their roles. By taking this quiz, you will get to test how much you know about the responsibilities of those in the air force. Do give it a try!
- 1.
What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?
- A.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.
- B.
Maintenance and Supply Training, Military Police, Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM
- C.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM
- D.
Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and Maintenance and Supply Training.
Correct Answer
A. Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM. -
- 2.
Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. What subject action level is it?
- A.
Verbal controls
- B.
Neuromuscular controls
- C.
Baton as a leverage device
- D.
Military working dog (off leash)
Correct Answer
A. Verbal controlsExplanation
This scenario involves using verbal controls as the subject action level. The solicitor is asked to depart the base, and they comply with this request after proper identification is provided. Verbal controls refer to using verbal commands or instructions to manage a situation or control the behavior of individuals. In this case, the solicitor's compliance with the verbal request demonstrates the effectiveness of verbal controls in resolving the situation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?
- A.
A. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.
- B.
B. Place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, switch hands on linking chain, and then switch your feet position.
- C.
C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.
- D.
D. Switch hands on linking chain, have suspect turn head, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, and then switch your feet position.
Correct Answer
C. C. Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position. -
- 4.
SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?
- A.
5-skill level (Journeyman)
- B.
7-skill level (Craftsman)
- C.
9-skill level (Superintendent)
- D.
One is not required
Correct Answer
A. 5-skill level (Journeyman)Explanation
Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and experience in their field. The 5-skill level is likely necessary to ensure that SF members have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before they begin training as MWD handlers.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
- A.
A. Objective
- B.
B. Re-entry
- C.
C. Enroute
- D.
D. Initial
Correct Answer
A. A. ObjectiveExplanation
The rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed because the objective is the main goal or target that needs to be achieved. Until the objective is identified and clarified, the rally point cannot be finalized as it is dependent on the location or direction needed to reach the objective. Therefore, the rally point remains uncertain or subject to change until the objective is determined.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…
- A.
Contains 90 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- B.
Contains 100 click; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- C.
Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
- D.
Contains 180 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.
Correct Answer
C. Contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees.Explanation
The correct answer is that the bezel ring contains 120 clicks, with each click equal to 3 degrees. This means that when the bezel ring is rotated fully, it will cover a total of 360 degrees (120 clicks x 3 degrees per click), which is a complete circle. The number of clicks and the degree measurement indicate the precision and accuracy of the rotation, allowing for precise adjustments or measurements to be made.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?
- A.
Air Force Battlespace
- B.
Force Protection Battlespace
- C.
IBD Battlespace
- D.
Base Battlespace
Correct Answer
D. Base BattlespaceExplanation
The correct answer is "Base Battlespace." This is because the question asks for the option that does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace. The other three options, Air Force Battlespace, Force Protection Battlespace, and IBD Battlespace, are all related to battlespaces that are relevant to IBD. However, Base Battlespace is not directly related to IBD battlespace and therefore does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?
- A.
Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.
- B.
Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water.
- C.
Seek medical attention.
- D.
Report the incident to your supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding.Explanation
When suspecting exposure through a laceration, the first step is to apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding. This is important because it helps to flush out any potential contaminants that may have entered the wound. By applying pressure, it can help to clean the wound and prevent further infection. This step should be taken before washing the area thoroughly with soap and water, seeking medical attention, or reporting the incident to a supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 9.
As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.” This is an example of?
- A.
Real evidence
- B.
Direct evidence
- C.
Testimonial evidence
- D.
Documentary evidence
Correct Answer
C. Testimonial evidenceExplanation
Testimonial evidence refers to evidence that is presented orally by a witness, based on their personal knowledge or observations. In this scenario, the security forces member is testifying about what they personally saw, stating that they witnessed the car being driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road. This statement is based on the member's personal observation and is therefore considered testimonial evidence.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What does the term OCOKA stand for?
- A.
Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
- B.
Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.
- C.
Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.
- D.
Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
Correct Answer
A. Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.Explanation
OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics and planning to assess and analyze the environment and potential threats in a given area. By considering these factors, military personnel can effectively plan and execute operations, ensuring the best use of available resources and minimizing risks.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?
- A.
Be noisy and stay in every ones business.
- B.
Talk to experienced SF members.
- C.
Get stressed out.
- D.
Let it come to you.
Correct Answer
B. Talk to experienced SF members.Explanation
Talking to experienced SF (Special Forces) members can be a way to identify stressors on the job. As SF members have more experience and knowledge, they can provide insights into the various stressors that may arise in their line of work. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain valuable information about the potential stressors and how to manage them effectively. This approach allows individuals to learn from the experiences of others and develop strategies to cope with stressors in their own job.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?
- A.
A bipod
- B.
A tripod
- C.
The buddy system
- D.
Your gear
Correct Answer
A. A bipodExplanation
A bipod is a piece of equipment that is used to provide stability and support to a firearm when firing. It typically consists of two legs that can be extended or retracted to adjust the height and angle of the firearm. Firing into the secondary sector refers to firing in a direction that is not directly in front of the shooter, but rather to the side. Using a bipod can help maintain accuracy and control while firing in this direction.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?
- A.
A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.
- B.
B. Additional security personnel.
- C.
C. Less military working dogs.
- D.
D. Revised security thinking.
Correct Answer
D. D. Revised security thinking.Explanation
During the Vietnam Conflict, the traditional approach to security was challenged as the guerrilla warfare tactics used by the Viet Cong were difficult to combat using conventional military strategies. This led to a reevaluation of security thinking, as it became clear that new and innovative approaches were needed to effectively address the challenges posed by unconventional warfare. Therefore, the Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for revised security thinking.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?
- A.
Non-nuclear alert forces
- B.
C4 systems of active nuclear missions
- C.
Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment
- D.
Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas
Correct Answer
B. C4 systems of active nuclear missionsExplanation
C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource. This means that these systems are of the highest priority and require the most stringent security measures to protect them. These systems are directly involved in active nuclear missions, which are critical to national security. Therefore, they are classified as protection level 1 resources to ensure their integrity and prevent unauthorized access or tampering.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When was the first trial issue shield approved?
- A.
1943
- B.
1945
- C.
1950
- D.
1957
Correct Answer
D. 1957 -
- 16.
During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?
- A.
Department of Justice
- B.
Department of State
- C.
Department of Terrorist
- D.
Department of Concept
Correct Answer
B. Department of StateExplanation
The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This department is responsible for handling foreign affairs and diplomatic relations, making it the appropriate agency to handle incidents that occur outside of the country's borders. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily deals with domestic law enforcement and legal matters within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual government departments and do not exist.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How do MWDs impact crime?
- A.
They are a deterrent to crime
- B.
They are very smart
- C.
They catch every single bad guy
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. They are a deterrent to crimeExplanation
MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, are a deterrent to crime. These highly trained dogs possess exceptional senses and skills that make them valuable assets in law enforcement and military operations. Their presence alone can discourage criminals from committing crimes, as they act as a visible and formidable force. Additionally, their ability to detect explosives, drugs, and track down suspects enhances the effectiveness of law enforcement efforts, making them a significant deterrent to criminal activities.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
C. 5Explanation
There are five basic fundamentals of defense.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How many different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
D. 7Explanation
The M4 carbine has seven different types of ammunition available.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
- A.
Code of Conduct only
- B.
SF General Orders only
- C.
Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
- D.
Performance Fitness Examination
Correct Answer
C. Code of Conduct and SF General OrdersExplanation
The Code of Conduct and SF General Orders are both forms of guidance that ensure mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct outlines the ethical and moral obligations for members of the military, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, provide specific instructions and regulations for security forces personnel to follow in order to maintain discipline and ensure the safety and security of military installations. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can contribute to the successful completion of missions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…
- A.
Security
- B.
Warfare
- C.
Analysis
- D.
Intelligence
Correct Answer
C. AnalysisExplanation
The primary focus of OPSEC (Operations Security) is to deny the exploitation of open source information. This means that OPSEC aims to prevent adversaries from gathering and utilizing information that is publicly available to gain an advantage. By analyzing potential vulnerabilities and taking necessary precautions, OPSEC ensures that sensitive information remains protected and not easily accessible to those who may seek to exploit it.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?
- A.
Two-person SRT (DOD UCNI)
- B.
Three-person SRT (DOD UCNI)
- C.
Mobile Fore Teams (MFT) (DOD UCNI)
- D.
Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)
Correct Answer
D. Camper Alert Team (CAT) (DOD UCNI)Explanation
The Camper Alert Team (CAT) is responsible for providing on-site security when alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time. This team ensures that the site remains secure and alerts authorities of any potential threats or breaches. The CAT plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of the area, especially when alarm systems are not functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How many range cards are prepared for each position?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Each position requires two range cards.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
- A.
600
- B.
800
- C.
1,100
- D.
1,800
Correct Answer
D. 1,800Explanation
The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately hitting a target up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range is quite impressive for a pistol and indicates the weapon's effectiveness in engaging targets at long distances.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?
- A.
Knowledge of the enemy
- B.
Unity of command
- C.
Economy of Force
- D.
Responsiveness
Correct Answer
D. ResponsivenessExplanation
Responsiveness is the key principle to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields because it refers to the ability to quickly and effectively react to enemy actions. By being responsive, we can promptly identify and counter enemy threats, minimizing the potential damage and disruption to our airfields. It allows us to adapt our strategies and tactics in real-time, ensuring that we can effectively defend our airfields against any enemy incursions.Rate this question:
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- 26.
On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?
- A.
Good terrain analysis
- B.
Bad terrain analysis
- C.
The floating dial on the compass
- D.
The weather
Correct Answer
A. Good terrain analysisExplanation
A patrol leader bases the tentative patrol plan on good terrain analysis. This means that they consider the topography, vegetation, and other physical features of the area to determine the best route, potential obstacles, and suitable camping locations. By analyzing the terrain, the patrol leader can make informed decisions to ensure the safety and efficiency of the patrol. They can also consider factors such as visibility, cover, and potential water sources. Overall, good terrain analysis allows the patrol leader to create a well-thought-out plan that maximizes the patrol's chances of success.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?
- A.
The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.
- B.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.
- C.
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.
- D.
The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.
Correct Answer
C. The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.Explanation
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This means that it is designed to be easily carried and operated by an individual soldier. It can fire one grenade at a time and is loaded by opening the breech. The pump action allows for quick and efficient reloading. It is specifically designed to be attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series, enhancing the firepower and versatility of these rifles.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What should a flight sector sketch show?
- A.
Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them.
- B.
Flight and squadron identification.
- C.
Squad leader positions.
- D.
True south.
Correct Answer
B. Flight and squadron identification.Explanation
A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This is important for identifying the different flights and squadrons operating in the sector. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination between the different units involved in the flight operations. By displaying the identification information on the sketch, it becomes easier to track and locate specific flights and squadrons within the sector. This information is crucial for effective command and control of the airspace and ensuring the safety and efficiency of flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?
- A.
Ground level
- B.
1 inch
- C.
2 inch
- D.
3 inch
Correct Answer
C. 2 inchExplanation
The fence for a restricted area must be 2 inches close to firm ground to ensure proper security and restriction. This proximity helps to prevent unauthorized access and ensures that the fence is firmly anchored to the ground, providing stability and durability. Being too close to the ground may cause the fence to be easily bypassed or damaged, while being too far away may compromise its effectiveness in restricting access. Therefore, a distance of 2 inches is considered optimal for maintaining the integrity and functionality of the restricted area's fence.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?
- A.
400
- B.
800
- C.
1,100
- D.
1,800
Correct Answer
B. 800Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?
- A.
Principles of War
- B.
Rules of Engagement
- C.
Integrated Base Defense
- D.
Defense Force Doctrine
Correct Answer
C. Integrated Base DefenseExplanation
The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" is known as Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within the base, regardless of their role, has a responsibility to be aware of their surroundings and report any suspicious activities or threats. It promotes a collective effort in ensuring the security and defense of the base, making it more resilient against potential attacks.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What map reference do you use to determine distances?
- A.
Declination
- B.
Bar scale
- C.
Grid North
- D.
Base line
Correct Answer
B. Bar scaleExplanation
A bar scale is used to determine distances on a map. It is a graphic representation of a specific distance on the map compared to the actual distance on the ground. By using the bar scale, one can measure distances accurately by comparing the length of a line on the map to the corresponding length on the bar scale. This allows for precise calculations of distances between different points on the map.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The correct answer is 5. The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or seriously injured. Hand grenades are designed to be highly effective in close-quarters combat and can cause significant damage within their kill radius. It is important for soldiers and individuals handling hand grenades to be aware of this kill radius and take appropriate precautions to ensure their safety and the safety of others.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
20
- D.
25
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
In the case of a misfire while using the M72 LAW launcher, it is recommended to wait for 10 seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This waiting period allows time for any delayed ignition or potential malfunction to resolve itself. It is important to exercise caution and follow proper safety protocols when handling explosive devices to minimize the risk of accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What are the standard whistle signals?
- A.
Two short blast for STOP, one long blast for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.
- B.
Two short blast for ATTENTION, One long blast for STOP, and several short blasts for GO.
- C.
One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.
- D.
Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
Correct Answer
C. One long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.Explanation
The standard whistle signals are one long blast for STOP, two short blasts for GO, and several short blasts for ATTENTION.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
- A.
A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.
- B.
The police getting involved with local youth programs.
- C.
The police handling random calls to solve community problems.
- D.
Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
Correct Answer
D. Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.Explanation
Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and trust between the police and the community, leading to more effective problem-solving and crime prevention strategies. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can better understand the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, and tailor their efforts accordingly. This philosophy encourages community members to take ownership of their own safety and well-being, fostering a sense of empowerment and unity within the neighborhood.Rate this question:
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- 37.
If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?
- A.
5 minutes after removing the goggles.
- B.
4 minutes after removing the goggles.
- C.
3 minutes after removing the goggles.
- D.
2 minutes after removing the goggles.
Correct Answer
D. 2 minutes after removing the goggles.Explanation
When a soldier adapts to the dark before putting on goggles, it means that their eyes have already adjusted to low light conditions. This adaptation allows them to see better in the dark. When the goggles are removed, it would take less time for their eyes to readjust to the darkness compared to someone who did not adapt beforehand. Therefore, the individual would gain full dark adaptation within 2 minutes after removing the goggles.Rate this question:
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- 38.
US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?
- A.
Federal statutes
- B.
US Constitution
- C.
Article 2/UCMJ
- D.
Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
Correct Answer
D. Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)Explanation
The correct answer is Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA). SOFAs are agreements between the US and host nations that define the legal status of US military personnel and their activities in the host nation's territory. These agreements outline the rights and responsibilities of both parties and govern the jurisdiction and control over US military personnel. They provide a framework for cooperation and ensure that US military authority is properly regulated and aligned with the laws and regulations of the host nation.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?
- A.
Normally found in the lower right margin.
- B.
Always found in the upper right margin.
- C.
Sometimes found in the middle of the map.
- D.
Normally found in the back of the map.
Correct Answer
A. Normally found in the lower right margin.Explanation
The elevation guide on a map is typically located in the lower right margin. This is a common convention followed by cartographers to provide information about the elevation levels of different areas on the map. It helps users understand the topography of the area and identify any changes in altitude. By placing the elevation guide in the lower right margin, it is easily accessible and does not obstruct other important information on the map.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?
- A.
The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.
- B.
The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).
- C.
The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.
- D.
The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.
Correct Answer
A. The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.Explanation
The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It highlights that the M240B is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It further specifies that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive understanding of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When was the current SF shield adopted?
- A.
1965
- B.
1966
- C.
1970
- D.
1982
Correct Answer
B. 1966Explanation
The current SF shield was adopted in 1966.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?
- A.
Alco-sensor
- B.
Breathalyzer
- C.
Urine Tests
- D.
Blood Tests
Correct Answer
D. Blood TestsExplanation
Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of various substances in the blood, such as drugs, alcohol, or other chemicals. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors like hydration levels or recent consumption, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. Additionally, blood tests can detect substances that may have been metabolized or broken down in the body, providing a more comprehensive understanding of a person's chemical makeup.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?
- A.
A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.
- B.
B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.
- C.
C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.
- D.
D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.
Correct Answer
B. B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.Explanation
The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy, preventing them from advancing quickly and forcing them to slow down or change their tactics. By doing so, the Claymore helps to buy time for the defending forces to react and respond to the enemy's assault, increasing the chances of successfully repelling the attack and defending the base.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?
- A.
You must be a SrA with college background
- B.
Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.
- C.
Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.
- D.
You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.
Correct Answer
B. Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.Explanation
The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals must have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service. This requirement ensures that individuals attending the school have a certain level of experience and time in service before taking on leadership roles.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?
- A.
SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor
- B.
SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor
- C.
ECSI Active Infrared Sensor
- D.
Optex LX-2AU
Correct Answer
C. ECSI Active Infrared SensorExplanation
The ECSI Active Infrared Sensor is the correct answer because it is the only sensor system mentioned that alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam. The other sensor systems listed, such as the SW385 Monostatic Microwave Sensor and SW310 Bistatic Microwave Sensor, do not specify this requirement. The Optex LX-2AU is also not mentioned to have this specific feature. Therefore, the ECSI Active Infrared Sensor is the most suitable option for the given criteria.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the most common round used in the M870?
- A.
15 gauge, “05” buck shot
- B.
10 gauge, “02” buck shot
- C.
12 gauge, “01” buck shot
- D.
12 gauge, “00” buck shot
Correct Answer
D. 12 gauge, “00” buck shotExplanation
The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. The gauge refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and 12 gauge is a common size for shotguns. The "00" buck shot refers to the size of the pellets in the shotgun shell, with "00" being larger and therefore more effective for close-range shooting.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?
- A.
4 meters
- B.
8 meters
- C.
10 meters
- D.
13 meters
Correct Answer
C. 10 metersExplanation
An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within 10 meters of a point on a map. This means that if you have the precise 8-digit grid coordinate, you can locate a point on the map with an accuracy of 10 meters.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…
- A.
When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- B.
During government elections.
- C.
When declared by state governors.
- D.
In time of emergency.
Correct Answer
D. In time of emergency.Explanation
Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed on the civilian population during times of emergency. During such situations, the government may deem it necessary to temporarily suspend normal laws and regulations to maintain order and security. This could occur in the event of natural disasters, widespread civil unrest, or threats to national security. The declaration of martial law is typically made by the highest authority in the country, such as the president or state governors, depending on the level of government involved.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
- A.
Every 5 minutes
- B.
Every 10 minutes
- C.
Every 15 minutes
- D.
Every 20 minutes
Correct Answer
C. Every 15 minutesExplanation
During southward star navigation, azimuth checks are made every 15 minutes. This is done to ensure that the ship or aircraft is staying on the correct course and heading in the right direction. By regularly checking the azimuth, which is the angular distance of a celestial body from the observer's meridian, navigators can make adjustments and corrections as needed to maintain the desired course. Making these checks every 15 minutes allows for timely course corrections and helps to ensure accurate navigation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?
- A.
Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.
- B.
Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.
- C.
Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.
- D.
Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.
Correct Answer
B. Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go. -
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 06, 2009Quiz Created by
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