3d154 Vol 1 & 2

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

URE Questions from Vol 1 & 2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What document ensures that individuals receive required training as their career progresses?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • B.

      On-The Job training Records.

    • C.

      Career Development Course (CDC)

    • D.

      Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) ensures that individuals receive the required training as their career progresses. This document outlines the training and education requirements for each career field, providing a roadmap for individuals to follow in order to advance in their careers. It ensures that individuals receive the necessary training to develop their skills and knowledge in their specific career field, allowing them to meet job performance requirements and excel in their roles. The CFETP serves as a guide for both individuals and their supervisors to track and document the training received throughout their career progression.

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  • 2. 

    What career group is specific to Chaplain Support functions?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    D. Five
    Explanation
    The career group specific to Chaplain Support functions is represented by option Five.

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  • 3. 

    Which Classification uses a combination of the first digit and second position letter in an Air Force Specialty Code and is a function grouping of personnel requiring the same knowledge and skills?

    • A.

      Career Group

    • B.

      Career Field

    • C.

      Career field subdivision

    • D.

      Skill level

    Correct Answer
    B. Career Field
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career Field. In the Air Force Specialty Code, the Career Field classification uses a combination of the first digit and second position letter. It is a function grouping of personnel who require the same knowledge and skills. This classification helps in organizing and categorizing individuals based on their specific area of expertise and job requirements within the Air Force.

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  • 4. 

    What are three of the knowledge requirements a Spectrum Operations technician should possess to be selected for the 3D1X4 career field?

    • A.

      Communications administration, information manangement, and computer components.

    • B.

      Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications

    • C.

      Plans and implementation, land mobile radio, and programming

    • D.

      Cyber surety, C4 systems, and transmission lines.

    Correct Answer
    B. Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Electronic principles, transmission systems, and wireless communications." These three knowledge requirements are essential for a Spectrum Operations technician in the 3D1X4 career field. Electronic principles knowledge is important for understanding the fundamental principles of electronic systems. Transmission systems knowledge is necessary for managing and maintaining communication systems. Wireless communications knowledge is crucial for working with wireless technologies and networks.

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  • 5. 

    In general, which agencies would you coordinate frequency requirements?

    • A.

      Private, federal, and military spectrum manangement

    • B.

      Military, federal, and civil spectrum management

    • C.

      Military and civil spectrum management only

    • D.

      Comercial and federal only

    Correct Answer
    B. Military, federal, and civil spectrum management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Military, federal, and civil spectrum management. These three agencies are responsible for coordinating frequency requirements. The military needs to ensure that their communication systems are not interfered with, while the federal government has the authority to regulate and allocate spectrum usage. Civil spectrum management is necessary to coordinate frequencies for various non-military and non-federal purposes such as commercial, public safety, and other civilian uses.

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  • 6. 

    On an installation who is responsible for reporting electromagnetic interference?

    • A.

      The using activity

    • B.

      The radio technician

    • C.

      Installation spectrum manager

    • D.

      Communications squadron officer

    Correct Answer
    A. The using activity
    Explanation
    The using activity is responsible for reporting electromagnetic interference because they are the ones who are directly using the equipment or systems that may cause interference. They have firsthand knowledge of any interference issues that may arise and are in the best position to report and address them. The radio technician, installation spectrum manager, and communications squadron officer may also play a role in managing and addressing interference, but the using activity is ultimately responsible for reporting it.

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  • 7. 

    What is required for spectrum managers to initiate, review, or change frequency dependent equipment?

    • A.

      Equipment manual

    • B.

      Spectrum XXI database

    • C.

      Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)

    • D.

      DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation
    Explanation
    To initiate, review, or change frequency dependent equipment, spectrum managers require DD Form 1494, Application for Equipment Frequency Allocation. This form is used to request frequency allocation for specific equipment and must be submitted to the appropriate authorities for approval. It ensures that the equipment operates within the allocated frequency spectrum and prevents interference with other systems. The form provides essential information about the equipment and its intended use, allowing spectrum managers to effectively manage and allocate frequencies. The Equipment manual, Spectrum XXI database, and Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF) may be useful for other aspects of spectrum management but are not specifically required for initiating, reviewing, or changing frequency dependent equipment.

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  • 8. 

    Which career field performs system hardware and software operations, management, and administration?

    • A.

      Client systems technician (3D1X1)

    • B.

      Cyber transport technician (3D1X2)

    • C.

      Computer systems programmer (3D0X4)

    • D.

      Knowledge operations management (3D0X1)

    Correct Answer
    A. Client systems technician (3D1X1)
    Explanation
    The career field that performs system hardware and software operations, management, and administration is the Client systems technician (3D1X1). This career involves working with computer systems and networks, troubleshooting issues, installing software and hardware, and providing technical support to users. Client systems technicians are responsible for ensuring that computer systems are running smoothly and efficiently, and they play a crucial role in maintaining the functionality of an organization's IT infrastructure.

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  • 9. 

    When is ordnance most affected by electromagnetic radiation?

    • A.

      During flight

    • B.

      While in storage

    • C.

      During disassembly

    • D.

      Upon contact with target

    Correct Answer
    C. During disassembly
    Explanation
    During disassembly, ordnance is most affected by electromagnetic radiation. This is because during this process, the components of the ordnance are being taken apart, exposing sensitive electronics and circuitry. Electromagnetic radiation can interfere with these components and cause malfunctions or damage. It is crucial to handle ordnance carefully during disassembly to minimize the risk of electromagnetic interference.

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  • 10. 

    The Spectrum Operations technicians supply which organization with radio frequency information to conduct an electromagnetic radiation survey?

    • A.

      Base Safety

    • B.

      Ground Radio

    • C.

      Wing OPSEC

    • D.

      Civil Engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Safety
    Explanation
    Spectrum Operations technicians supply Base Safety with radio frequency information to conduct an electromagnetic radiation survey. This is because Base Safety is responsible for ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment on the base, including monitoring and managing potential hazards such as electromagnetic radiation. By providing radio frequency information, Spectrum Operations technicians assist Base Safety in conducting thorough surveys and implementing appropriate safety measures.

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  • 11. 

    Which security program deals with with denying the enemy information of value that might be derived from the possession of telecommunications?

    • A.

      Emission security

    • B.

      Operations security

    • C.

      Transmission security

    • D.

      Communications security

    Correct Answer
    D. Communications security
    Explanation
    Communications security is the correct answer because it specifically focuses on denying the enemy valuable information that could be obtained through the possession of telecommunications. This includes protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications and information systems by implementing measures such as encryption, authentication, and access controls. Communications security aims to prevent unauthorized access, interception, and exploitation of sensitive information, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to the information and that it remains secure during transmission.

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  • 12. 

    During which step of the communications security (COMSEC) process must individual pages of COMSEC material be accounted for?

    • A.

      Storing

    • B.

      Receiving

    • C.

      Destroying

    • D.

      Inventorying

    Correct Answer
    B. Receiving
    Explanation
    Individual pages of COMSEC material must be accounted for during the receiving step of the communications security (COMSEC) process. This is because when the material is received, it is important to ensure that all pages are present and accounted for to maintain the security and integrity of the information. By carefully checking and documenting the receipt of each page, any discrepancies or missing pages can be identified and addressed promptly. This helps to prevent unauthorized access or compromise of sensitive information.

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  • 13. 

    Two-person integrity communications security material is considered properly controlled when the

    • A.

      Facility is a class B rated vault and personnel gaurding the material know the combination to the lock

    • B.

      Facility is a class B rated vault and personnel gaurding the material do not know the combination to the lock

    • C.

      Stroage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with a hasp and an approved dial-type lock

    • D.

      Stroage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with two hasps and two approved three position dial-type locks.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stroage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with two hasps and two approved three position dial-type locks.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the storage container is a non-GSA approved security container, but is modified with two hasps and two approved three position dial-type locks. This ensures two-person integrity, as both individuals must be present and have access to their respective locks in order to open the container. This adds an extra layer of security and control over the communication material, making it properly controlled.

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  • 14. 

    Which statement best meets the requirements for transporting communications security (COMSEC) material?

    • A.

      On installations, COMSEC material need not to be sealed

    • B.

      During convoys, position COMSEC material in the lead vehicle.

    • C.

      During convoys, position COMSEC material in the middle of the convoy.

    • D.

      Off installations, enclose material in a sealed package or within a sealed briefcase.

    Correct Answer
    C. During convoys, position COMSEC material in the middle of the convoy.
  • 15. 

    Which of the following are types of communications security incidents?

    • A.

      Personnel, electronic, and physical

    • B.

      Physical, personnel, and cryptographic

    • C.

      Physical, electronic, and cryptographic.

    • D.

      Cryptographic, personnel, and electronic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Physical, personnel, and cryptographic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is physical, personnel, and cryptographic. Communications security incidents can occur in various ways. Physical incidents involve unauthorized access to physical devices or infrastructure, such as theft or tampering. Personnel incidents involve actions by individuals, such as unauthorized disclosure of information or misuse of privileges. Cryptographic incidents involve the compromise or misuse of cryptographic keys or algorithms, which can lead to unauthorized access or manipulation of data. These three types of incidents cover a wide range of potential security breaches in communication systems.

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  • 16. 

    When and how do you report a suspected COMSEC insecurity?

    • A.

      Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager.

    • B.

      Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the group commander and security manager.

    • C.

      Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the CRO or COMSEC manager

    • D.

      Within 12 hours of the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the unit commander and security manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately after the occurrence of the incident, and report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager.
    Explanation
    In order to ensure the security of communications, any suspected COMSEC insecurity should be reported immediately after the incident occurs. The correct protocol is to report it to the COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) or COMSEC manager. This ensures that the appropriate personnel are informed promptly and can take the necessary actions to address the potential security breach. Reporting the incident to the CRO or COMSEC manager is the most effective way to handle suspected COMSEC insecurities.

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  • 17. 

    Which action would not be considered a cryptographinc COMSEC incident?

    • A.

      Using a compromised, superseded, or defective COMSEC key

    • B.

      Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility

    • C.

      Using COMSEC equipment without completing a required alarm-check test.

    • D.

      Discussing the details of a COMSEC equipment failure over an unsecured phone.

    Correct Answer
    B. Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility
    Explanation
    Finding an electronic surveillance device in or near a COMSEC facility would not be considered a cryptographic COMSEC incident because it indicates a potential security breach or threat to the facility's security. This action would actually be considered a positive outcome as it helps to identify and address potential vulnerabilities in the facility's security measures.

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  • 18. 

    Which type of situation often causes a communications security violation?

    • A.

      Fatigue

    • B.

      Carelessness

    • C.

      Lack of training

    • D.

      Disregarding procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lack of training
    Explanation
    Lack of training often causes a communications security violation because individuals may not be aware of the proper protocols and procedures to follow in order to maintain secure communication. Without proper training, they may unknowingly engage in practices that compromise the security of the communication system, such as using weak passwords or sharing sensitive information with unauthorized individuals. Training helps to educate individuals on the importance of communications security and equips them with the knowledge and skills to prevent violations from occurring.

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  • 19. 

    Which security program protects against the enemy's interception of compromising emanations from information systems?

    • A.

      Communications security

    • B.

      Transmission security

    • C.

      Computer security

    • D.

      Emissions security

    Correct Answer
    D. Emissions security
    Explanation
    Emissions security is the security program that protects against the enemy's interception of compromising emanations from information systems. This program focuses on preventing the leakage of sensitive information through unintentional electromagnetic emissions. It involves measures such as shielding, filtering, and encryption to protect against eavesdropping and interception of these emissions.

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  • 20. 

    What determine(s) the need to implement Emissions Security countermeasures on a system that processes classified information?

    • A.

      The level of classification on the system

    • B.

      Emissions security assessments

    • C.

      Technical surveillance team investigations

    • D.

      The dimensions of the building housing the equipment

    Correct Answer
    B. Emissions security assessments
    Explanation
    Emissions security assessments determine the need to implement Emissions Security countermeasures on a system that processes classified information. These assessments evaluate the potential for electromagnetic emissions from the system and assess the risks associated with these emissions. Based on the findings of these assessments, countermeasures can be implemented to mitigate any potential vulnerabilities and ensure the security of the classified information. The level of classification on the system, technical surveillance team investigations, and the dimensions of the building housing the equipment may also be factors to consider, but the primary determinant is the emissions security assessments.

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  • 21. 

    Without complying with Emissions Security procedures, processing what type of information would be a reportable security incident?

    • A.

      Classified

    • B.

      Unclassified

    • C.

      Unenvrypted

    • D.

      For Official Use Only

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified
    Explanation
    Without complying with Emissions Security procedures, processing classified information would be a reportable security incident. Classified information refers to sensitive data that is designated by the government as requiring protection against unauthorized disclosure. Processing classified information without following the necessary security procedures could lead to the compromise of national security and potentially harm individuals or organizations. Therefore, any incident involving the mishandling or unauthorized processing of classified information would be considered a serious security breach and must be reported.

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  • 22. 

    Which Security discipline outlines security features needed to protect hardware, software, or data associated with any automated information system?

    • A.

      Communications security

    • B.

      Transmission security

    • C.

      Computer security

    • D.

      Emissions security

    Correct Answer
    C. Computer security
    Explanation
    Computer security is the discipline that outlines security features needed to protect hardware, software, or data associated with any automated information system. This includes measures such as access control, encryption, authentication, and backup systems to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system and its data. Communications security focuses on securing the transmission of information, transmission security specifically deals with protecting the integrity and confidentiality of information during transmission, and emissions security involves preventing unauthorized access to information through electromagnetic emissions.

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  • 23. 

    Which word-processing feature causes data to be temporarily stored on the hard disk causing a security concern to classified data processing?

    • A.

      Backup files

    • B.

      Personal dictionary

    • C.

      Cut-and-paste buffer

    • D.

      Buffer overflow files

    Correct Answer
    C. Cut-and-paste buffer
    Explanation
    The cut-and-paste buffer is a word-processing feature that temporarily stores data on the hard disk. This can pose a security concern for classified data processing because if the data is not properly deleted or overwritten, it can potentially be accessed by unauthorized individuals. This is especially true if the hard disk is not properly secured or if the data is not encrypted. Therefore, the cut-and-paste buffer feature should be used with caution when dealing with classified data to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information.

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  • 24. 

    An unauthorized disclosure of what type of information can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security?

    • A.

      North Atlantic Treaty Organization Restricted

    • B.

      Confidential communications security

    • C.

      Secret

    • D.

      Top Secret

    Correct Answer
    D. Top Secret
    Explanation
    Top Secret information refers to highly sensitive information that, if disclosed without authorization, can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security. This level of classification is reserved for information that, if accessed by unauthorized individuals, could potentially jeopardize ongoing military operations, intelligence sources, or national defense plans. It is the highest level of classification and requires strict control and protection to prevent unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 25. 

    What is the highest level of classification of frequency records that are kept in the Department of Defense central database?

    • A.

      Unclassified

    • B.

      Confidential

    • C.

      Secret

    • D.

      Top Secret

    Correct Answer
    C. Secret
    Explanation
    The highest level of classification of frequency records kept in the Department of Defense central database is "Secret." This level of classification indicates that the information is sensitive and should only be accessed by individuals with the appropriate security clearance. It is a higher level of classification than "Unclassified" and "Confidential," but lower than "Top Secret."

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  • 26. 

    If your frequency database contains all Department of defense frequency records, at what level, if any, would the database be classified?

    • A.

      Unclassified

    • B.

      For Official Use Only

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      Secret

    Correct Answer
    C. Confidential
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Confidential" because the question states that the frequency database contains all Department of Defense frequency records. Since the Department of Defense deals with sensitive and classified information, it is reasonable to assume that the frequency database would also be classified at a similar level to ensure the protection of national security.

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  • 27. 

    What should be the classification of the retrieved data if you create an aggregate list of US Army unclassified assignments by producing a query using SFAF item 200 equals "USA" and SFAF item 300 equals "ANDREWS?"

    • A.

      Unclassified, because the frequency assignments are unclassified.

    • B.

      Unclassified, because you are not selecting the entire US Army database.

    • C.

      Conrfidential, because the aggregate list is Confidential

    • D.

      Confidential, because you are searching from the entire US Army database.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unclassified, because you are not selecting the entire US Army database.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unclassified, because you are not selecting the entire US Army database." This is because the query is specifically filtering the data based on two criteria - SFAF item 200 equals "USA" and SFAF item 300 equals "ANDREWS." Since the query is only retrieving data that meets these specific criteria, it does not encompass the entire US Army database, and therefore the classification of the retrieved data would be unclassified.

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  • 28. 

    In the prevention and detection of unauthorized users to our computer systems, what should be used as a last line of defense?

    • A.

      Government-owned software

    • B.

      Authentication procedures

    • C.

      Access controls

    • D.

      Security checks

    Correct Answer
    C. Access controls
    Explanation
    Access controls should be used as a last line of defense in the prevention and detection of unauthorized users to computer systems. Access controls refer to mechanisms that restrict and regulate access to resources, data, and functionalities within a computer system. By implementing access controls, organizations can enforce authentication and authorization procedures, limit user privileges, and monitor and audit user activities. This helps in preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems. Government-owned software, authentication procedures, and security checks are important components of overall security measures, but access controls serve as the final layer of defense against unauthorized users.

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  • 29. 

    The main objective of risk analysis is to

    • A.

      Identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events

    • B.

      Ensure wires carrying classified information are properly shieled

    • C.

      Ensure the enemy does not intercept any our sensitive unclassified conversations

    • D.

      Determine if the person receiving classified information has the proper security clearance

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events
    Explanation
    The main objective of risk analysis is to identify, control, and minimize the impact of uncertain events. Risk analysis involves assessing potential risks and their potential impact on a project, organization, or system. By identifying and understanding these risks, measures can be put in place to control and mitigate them, reducing the likelihood and impact of negative events. This helps in making informed decisions and taking proactive steps to manage and minimize risks effectively.

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  • 30. 

    At what interval must Entry Authorization Lists be reviewed to ensure they are current?

    • A.

      5 days

    • B.

      10 days

    • C.

      30 days

    • D.

      90 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 days
    Explanation
    Entry Authorization Lists must be reviewed at a 30-day interval to ensure that they are current. This regular review is necessary to keep the lists up to date and accurate, as changes in personnel or access permissions may occur within this timeframe. By conducting reviews every 30 days, organizations can maintain the security and integrity of their entry authorization processes and ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the necessary resources.

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  • 31. 

    Personnel not on the Entry Authorization List must be signed in on a/an

    • A.

      Standard Form (SF) 700, Security Container Information

    • B.

      Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log

    • C.

      Standard Form (SF) 702, Security Container Check Sheet

    • D.

      Air Force (AF) Form 1875, Controlled Documents Log

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force (AF) Form 1109, Visitor Register Log. This form is used to record the entry and exit of visitors who are not on the Entry Authorization List. It helps to track and monitor the presence of unauthorized personnel in a secure area. The form includes important information such as the visitor's name, organization, purpose of visit, and the date and time of entry and exit. By using this form, security personnel can ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the area and maintain a record of all visitors for security purposes.

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  • 32. 

    Which security program deals with the improper handling of classified material?

    • A.

      Physical Security

    • B.

      Computer Security

    • C.

      Transmission Security

    • D.

      Communications Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical Security
    Explanation
    Physical Security deals with the protection of physical assets, including classified material. It involves measures such as access control, surveillance, and storage to prevent unauthorized access, theft, or damage to classified information. This includes safeguarding physical documents, files, and storage devices that contain classified information. Therefore, Physical Security is the security program that deals with the improper handling of classified material.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is not considered a violation of physical security?

    • A.

      Open and ungaurded safes

    • B.

      Improper password protection

    • C.

      Unattended classified documents

    • D.

      Misplaced or misfiled documents

    Correct Answer
    B. Improper password protection
    Explanation
    Improper password protection is not considered a violation of physical security because it pertains to the security of digital systems and not physical assets. Physical security focuses on protecting physical objects, facilities, and information from unauthorized access, theft, or damage. While improper password protection may pose a security risk to digital systems, it does not directly involve physical security measures such as guarding safes, protecting classified documents, or properly handling physical documents.

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  • 34. 

    Which international organization is responsible for international frequency allocations, worldwide telecommunications standards, and telecommunications development activities?

    • A.

      International Telecommunications Union (ITU)

    • B.

      International frequency Registration Board

    • C.

      Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee (IRAC)

    • D.

      International Radio Consultative Committee

    Correct Answer
    A. International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
    Explanation
    The International Telecommunications Union (ITU) is responsible for international frequency allocations, worldwide telecommunications standards, and telecommunications development activities. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations and plays a crucial role in coordinating global telecommunications networks and services. The ITU sets regulations and standards to ensure efficient and equitable use of radio frequencies and promotes the development of telecommunications infrastructure in developing countries. It also facilitates international cooperation and collaboration among its member states to foster innovation and advancement in the field of telecommunications.

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  • 35. 

    What are the three International telecommunications Union sectors?

    • A.

      Telecommunication standardization, radio communications, and development

    • B.

      Telecommunication communications, radio standardization, and engineering.

    • C.

      Radio standardization, telecommunications standardization, and engineering.

    • D.

      International telecommunication, radio standardization, and development

    Correct Answer
    A. Telecommunication standardization, radio communications, and development
    Explanation
    The International Telecommunications Union (ITU) is divided into three sectors: telecommunication standardization, radio communications, and development. The telecommunication standardization sector focuses on developing and maintaining international standards for telecommunication technologies and services. The radio communications sector deals with spectrum management, radio frequency allocation, and radio regulations. The development sector aims to promote the use of telecommunications in developing countries and bridge the digital divide.

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  • 36. 

    Which sector within the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) studies technical, operating, and tariff questions? 

    • A.

      Telecommunication standardization

    • B.

      Radio communications

    • C.

      Development

    • D.

      General Secretariat

    Correct Answer
    A. Telecommunication standardization
    Explanation
    The sector within the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) that studies technical, operating, and tariff questions is the Telecommunication standardization sector. This sector focuses on developing and promoting international telecommunications standards, ensuring interoperability and compatibility among different systems and networks. It also addresses various technical and operational aspects of telecommunications, such as network protocols, quality of service, and tariff regulations.

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  • 37. 

    How many geographical regions does the International Telecommunications Union divide the world within the International Table of Frequency Allocations? 

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The International Telecommunications Union divides the world into three geographical regions within the International Table of Frequency Allocations. These regions are used to allocate and manage frequency bands for various telecommunications services and systems. Each region has its own specific frequency allocations and regulations to ensure efficient and coordinated use of the radio spectrum.

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  • 38. 

    How often are new editions of the international frequency list provided?

    • A.

      Every 3 months

    • B.

      Every 6 months

    • C.

      Every 8 months

    • D.

      Every 12 months

    Correct Answer
    B. Every 6 months
    Explanation
    New editions of the international frequency list are provided every 6 months. This means that the list is updated twice a year. The frequency list likely contains information on the usage and popularity of different words or phrases in a specific language or across multiple languages. By updating the list every 6 months, it ensures that the information remains current and reflects any changes in language usage over time.

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  • 39. 

    The communications Act of 1934 established which two spectrum management organizations to control the federal and non-federal spectrum respectively?

    • A.

      National Telecommunications and Inforamation Administration and the Federal Communications Commission.

    • B.

      National Telecommunications and Information Administration and the Federal Aviation Administration

    • C.

      Department of Commerce and the Federal Communications Commission

    • D.

      Defense Spectrum Office and the Federal Aviation Administration

    Correct Answer
    A. National Telecommunications and Inforamation Administration and the Federal Communications Commission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is National Telecommunications and Information Administration and the Federal Communications Commission. The Communications Act of 1934 established these two organizations to control the federal and non-federal spectrum respectively. The National Telecommunications and Information Administration is responsible for managing the federal spectrum, while the Federal Communications Commission is responsible for managing the non-federal spectrum.

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  • 40. 

    Which National telecommunications and Information Administration entity assists the Office of Spectrum Management with development and execution of policies, programs, procedures, and criteria for allocating, managing and using the radio frequence spectrum?

    • A.

      Radio Communication Bureau

    • B.

      World Telecommunication Advisory Council

    • C.

      Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee

    • D.

      United States Military Communications-Electronics Board

    Correct Answer
    C. Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee
    Explanation
    The Interdepartmental Radio Advisory Committee assists the Office of Spectrum Management in the development and execution of policies, programs, procedures, and criteria for allocating, managing, and using the radio frequency spectrum.

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  • 41. 

    Which agency under the National Telecommunications and Information Administration prepares wide-reanging studies of the US telecommunication industry as well as arguments for the telecommunication policy proceedings conducted by the Federal Communications Commission?

    • A.

      Office of International Affairs.

    • B.

      Office of Spectrum Management.

    • C.

      Institute for Telecommunication Sciences.

    • D.

      Office of Policy Analysis and Development.

    Correct Answer
    D. Office of Policy Analysis and Development.
    Explanation
    The Office of Policy Analysis and Development is the agency under the National Telecommunications and Information Administration that prepares wide-ranging studies of the US telecommunication industry. They also provide arguments for the telecommunication policy proceedings conducted by the Federal Communications Commission.

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  • 42. 

    Which publication contains regulatory and technical guidance for federal users as well as the international table of allocations and the US table of allocations to include federal and non-federal frequency bands?

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–118, Radio Frequency Spectrum Management.

    • B.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 33–120, Radio Frequency (RF) Spectrum Management

    • C.

      Military Communications-Electronics Board (MCEB) Pub 7, Frequency Resource Record System (FRRS) Standard Frequency Action Format (SFAF)

    • D.

      National Telecommunications and Information Administration Manual of Regulations & Procedures for Federal Radio Frequency Management

    Correct Answer
    D. National Telecommunications and Information Administration Manual of Regulations & Procedures for Federal Radio Frequency Management
    Explanation
    The National Telecommunications and Information Administration Manual of Regulations & Procedures for Federal Radio Frequency Management contains regulatory and technical guidance for federal users, as well as the international table of allocations and the US table of allocations, which includes both federal and non-federal frequency bands.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following are technical guidelines by which the frequencies within a given frequency band are to be assigned?

    • A.

      Communication annexes

    • B.

      Channeling plans

    • C.

      Allocation tables.

    • D.

      Allotment plans.

    Correct Answer
    B. Channeling plans
    Explanation
    Channeling plans are technical guidelines that determine how frequencies within a given frequency band are assigned. These plans outline the specific frequencies that can be used in different areas and for different purposes, ensuring efficient and interference-free communication. They help in organizing and managing the allocation of frequencies, allowing for effective utilization of the available spectrum resources.

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  • 44. 

    Which agency maintains frequency records, analyzes frequency use, and requests assignment of frequencies needed by the Defense Communication System

    • A.

      Federal Communications Commission.

    • B.

      Defense Information Systems Agency.

    • C.

      National Telecommunications and Information Administration.

    • D.

      United States Military Communications-Electronics Board.

    Correct Answer
    B. Defense Information Systems Agency.
    Explanation
    The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the agency responsible for maintaining frequency records, analyzing frequency use, and requesting the assignment of frequencies needed by the Defense Communication System. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is responsible for regulating and managing the use of the electromagnetic spectrum in the United States, but it does not specifically focus on the Defense Communication System. The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) is responsible for managing federal spectrum use, but it does not specifically handle the Defense Communication System either. The United States Military Communications-Electronics Board is not a known agency and does not have a role in maintaining frequency records or analyzing frequency use.

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  • 45. 

    Which organization is responsible for developing integrated spectrum planning and long-term strategies to address current and future needs for Department of Defense spectrum access?

    • A.

      Defense Spectrum Organization.

    • B.

      Defense Information Systems Agency.

    • C.

      Air Force Spectrum Management Office.

    • D.

      United States Military Communications-Electronics Board.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Spectrum Organization.
    Explanation
    The Defense Spectrum Organization is responsible for developing integrated spectrum planning and long-term strategies to address the current and future needs for Department of Defense spectrum access. This organization focuses on coordinating and managing the use of electromagnetic spectrum resources within the Department of Defense, ensuring that the military has reliable and secure access to the spectrum for its communication and operational needs.

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  • 46. 

    Which organization represents and defends the Air Force radio frequency spectrum technical interests in committees, groups, and organizations that address RF spectrum management matters?

    • A.

      Joint Spectrum Center

    • B.

      Major command spectrum managers.

    • C.

      Air Force Spectrum Management Office

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Communications Agency.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Spectrum Management Office
    Explanation
    The Air Force Spectrum Management Office represents and defends the Air Force radio frequency spectrum technical interests in committees, groups, and organizations that address RF spectrum management matters. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the RF spectrum within the Air Force, ensuring efficient and effective utilization of the spectrum for communication and other purposes.

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  • 47. 

    Who manages, coordinates, and schedules the use of frequencies at specified ranges or areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Joint Spectrum Center personnel

    • B.

      Installation spectrum management office personnel.

    • C.

      Major command spectrum management personnel.

    • D.

      Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel.
    Explanation
    Air Force-sponsored DOD Area Frequency Coordinator personnel are responsible for managing, coordinating, and scheduling the use of frequencies at specified ranges or areas of responsibility. They ensure that frequencies are allocated efficiently and effectively, avoiding interference and maximizing the utilization of available resources. This role is crucial in maintaining effective communication and ensuring that different users can operate their equipment without conflicts or disruptions.

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  • 48. 

    Frequency assignments received for all non-North Atlantic Treaty Organization requirements are processed by the

    • A.

      Air Forces Europe FMO.

    • B.

      Frequency Management Field Office.

    • C.

      International Frequency Support Office.

    • D.

      US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE.

    Correct Answer
    D. US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE. This office processes frequency assignments for all non-North Atlantic Treaty Organization requirements in Air Forces Europe.

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  • 49. 

    All contingency and Joint Chief of Staff/European Command-sponsored exercise frequency requests would be received by the

    • A.

      Air Forces Europe FMO.

    • B.

      Frequency Management Field Office.

    • C.

      International Frequency Support Office.

    • D.

      US European Command Joint Frequency Management Office EUROPE.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Forces Europe FMO.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Forces Europe FMO. This is because the question is asking about where contingency and Joint Chief of Staff/European Command-sponsored exercise frequency requests would be received. Out of the given options, the Air Forces Europe FMO is the most appropriate entity to handle these requests.

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  • 50. 

    Which organization was established for the purpose of advising users on complex technical and procedural issues involving electromagnetic spectrum management?

    • A.

      Special Operations Command, Pacific.

    • B.

      Joint Frequency Management Office-Guam.

    • C.

      Pacific Command (PACOM) Joint Frequency Coordinating Committee.

    • D.

      US Forces Korea Joint Frequency Management Office Korea

    Correct Answer
    C. Pacific Command (PACOM) Joint Frequency Coordinating Committee.
    Explanation
    The Pacific Command (PACOM) Joint Frequency Coordinating Committee was established to advise users on complex technical and procedural issues involving electromagnetic spectrum management. This organization specifically focuses on coordinating frequency usage in the Pacific Command area of responsibility, providing guidance and expertise to ensure efficient and effective spectrum utilization.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 11, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Juney329
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