3d053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection –internal Control

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3D053 Cyber Surety Journeyman Volume 1. Information Protection – Internal Control URE's

  
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1.  (017) Report loss or suspected loss of removable media containing controlled unclassified information (CUI) or personally identifiable information (PII) according to reporting procedures in which Air Force Instruction (AFI)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  (017) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) guides security policy and guidance for government contractors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  (023) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  (018) What type of access is given to remote users who access, download, or upload data?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  (009) Breaking down the packets’ addresses to act as a gateway to allow traffic to pass between networks involves which transition technology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  (031) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a TCP/IP-based network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  (008) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  (013) What shall be assigned to all Department of Defense information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  (006) Which class of internet protocol addresses is used for very large networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  (020) By providing users with the necessary level of access to perform their jobs, you are
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  (035) In basic circuit theory, if the power source is disconnected or if there is a break in the wire, then there is a loss of
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  (029) From which media type must you remove the outer chassis and electronic circuit boards when practical prior to destroying?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  (027) Examples of where sanitization and declassification are appropriate include all the following except?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  (026) No procedures exist for cleaning which media type?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  (036) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the loss of services provided by the operation of an information system (IS) for a period of time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  (003) To use VPN products, obtain interim approval from?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  (009) Setting up a secure point-to-point communication is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  (035) The main source of compromising emanations is the result of
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  (026) Degaussing with an NSA-approved degausser is the only way to clear which media type?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  (037) Before selecting a protective distribution system (PDS), with what two entities must the requesting agency consider other communication security (COMSEC) solutions first?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  (013) Requirements for availability and integrity are associated with
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  (012) Which WiFi standard is the slowest yet least expensive?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  (027) Sanitizing sealed disks, removable disk packs, magnetic bubble memory, core memory, and flash memory is not complete until how many passes with a degausser?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  (023) What should be implemented on desktop systems connected to critical networks to prevent unauthorized people from gaining control of the system when the system is powered up?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  (033) What is the term for any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  (002) What minimum milli-ampere current can be lethal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  (022) What is the lowest level information condition (INFOCON)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  (024) Who reviews information assurance assistance program (IAAP) reports and has the final authority to downgrade IAAP report ratings when it is clear that incidents or deviations are involved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  (034) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) will the wing information assurance office (WIAO) use to conduct an emissions security (EMSEC) assessment and determine the required information assurance (IA) countermeasures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  (038) Within how many minutes should an individual respond if a protective distribution system (PDS) alarm is activated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  (018) What type of access is given to users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  (019) To improve system security, several services that are preloaded on many UNIX systems can be disabled except
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  (005) In which network does every device have exactly two neighbors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  (016) When network password composition rules are not automatically enforced, what process should network administrators use to enforce good password stringency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  (019) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and its other products, Microsoft releases
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  (029) Which media destruction option method involves the application of concentrated hydriodic acid (55 percent to 58 percent solution) to a gamma ferric oxide disk surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  (032) For in-transit storage, an installation commander can authorize what classifications to be kept on the flightline?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  (002) What is the fourth step in the operational risk management (ORM) process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  (020) To virus-protect your system, make sure you perform all the following steps except
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  (040) In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) does the AF-DAA review the recommendations and issue an approving/authorization to operate (ATO)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  (011) When coupled with standardized network policy, the standard desktop configuration (SDC) substantially
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  (021) What category is an incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer/information system/network device?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  (019) Whenever possible, in which environment would you run the UNIX Apache server?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  (008) As the migration to internet protocol (IP) V6 continues, many organizations rely upon what to compensate for the lack of usable IP addresses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  (030) When overwriting hard drives, examine what minimum percentage to verify the overwriting process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  (011) With the consolidation of the several Network Operations and Security Centers (NOSC), the Air Force
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  (037) A protective distribution system (PDS) is usually installed between two
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  (001) The Cyber Surety journeyman monitors all of the following programs except
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  (030) To ensure the integrity of the overwriting process, overwriting software must have the following functions and capabilities except?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  (041) Cyber Surety specialists do not review information system audit logs to
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.   (015) With what agency must the contract manager validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government PKI certificate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  (028) How often must a degausser be recertified for the first two years of operation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  Air Force information systems must complete the information technology (IT) Lean process to obtain an approval to operate unless these systems have been designated as a
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  (038) Who is the final authority granting approval to operate a protective distribution system (PDS)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  (023) Information security-related access controls that include segregation of duties and security screening of users can be classified as which category of access preservation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  (005) Which network integrates multiple topologies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  (041) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval from
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  (025) Threats that include flaws in building construction, improper implementation of utilities, inadequate wiring, and poor housekeeping practices can be best classified as what type of threat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  (007) Which protocol has the job of verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  (033) Which Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of Department of Defense’s (DOD) TEMPEST program for the Air Force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  (022) All agencies/organizations implement information condition (INFOCON) measures except
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  (031) What Standard Form label is used as a data descriptor label?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using AF Form 4160 every 2 years or sooner?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  (036) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  (012) Which wireless standard originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  (020) A companion file virus is one that
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  (034) Emissions security (EMSEC) reassessments are made when any of the following take place except when?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  (039) What is the risk outcome that results in the physical loss of assets rendering them inoperable and usually requiring replacement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  (028) The coercivity of a Type II extended range degausser is
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  (015) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  (010) To make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors, administrators must be in the habit of
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  (014) Initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users ensures all of the following except that users
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  (021) What category is an incident in which an Air Force computer/information system/network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  (014) Who is responsible for verifying proper security clearances and background investigation checks prior to granting a network user access to the Air Force Provisioned Portion of the Global Information Grid (AF GIG)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  (020) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
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