2F071 CDC Review Exam Style
Review of 2F071 CDC URE presented in Exam-Style
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?
- A.
Isopropyl alcohol.
- B.
Petroleum ether.
- C.
Turbine fuel.
- D.
Acetone.
Correct Answer
A. Isopropyl alcohol.Explanation
Isopropyl alcohol is the correct cleaning agent to use for cleaning the probe on the conductivity meter. Isopropyl alcohol is a commonly used solvent that is effective in removing dirt, oils, and other contaminants from surfaces. It evaporates quickly and leaves no residue, making it ideal for cleaning sensitive electronic equipment like conductivity meters. Petroleum ether and turbine fuel are not suitable for cleaning the probe as they are flammable and can leave residue. Acetone, although a solvent, can damage the probe and should not be used for cleaning.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?
- A.
Prior to first use.
- B.
Weekly, and prior to first use.
- C.
Daily, or when changing test water.
- D.
Monthly, or when changing test water.
Correct Answer
C. Daily, or when changing test water.Explanation
A refractometer is a device used to measure the refractive index of a substance, in this case, the fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII). The refractive index of the FSII can change over time or when the test water is changed. Therefore, to ensure accurate and reliable results, the refractometer should be calibrated daily or whenever the test water is changed. This regular calibration helps to maintain the accuracy of the measurements and ensures that the FSII is functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
- A.
ABFDS
- B.
Ocean tanker
- C.
Aircraft systems
- D.
The same source of supply used by the host airfield
Correct Answer
D. The same source of supply used by the host airfieldExplanation
The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that instead of relying on additional resources such as ABFDS (Advanced Bulk Fuel Delivery System), ocean tankers, or aircraft systems, the fuel can be obtained directly from the existing supply at the airfield. This method is likely to be the easiest and quickest way to refuel, as it eliminates the need for additional transportation or transfer of fuel.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?
- A.
1.
- B.
5.
- C.
7.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
B. 5.Explanation
You should file technical order (TO) changes and supplements within 5 days of receipt. This ensures that any necessary updates or modifications are implemented in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of outdated or incorrect information being used. Filing the changes and supplements promptly also helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the publications.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
- A.
A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.
- B.
A gas is far less compressible than a liquid.
- C.
A liquid is more combustible than a gas.
- D.
A gas is more combustible than a liquid.
Correct Answer
A. A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.Explanation
Liquids are far less compressible than gases because the particles in a liquid are already close together and have stronger intermolecular forces compared to the particles in a gas. This makes it difficult to compress a liquid, as the particles are already packed tightly. In contrast, gases have particles that are more spread out and have weaker intermolecular forces, allowing them to be easily compressed.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
- A.
Laminar.
- B.
Interface.
- C.
Buoyance.
- D.
Dynamic pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Buoyance.Explanation
Buoyancy refers to the upward force exerted on an object submerged in a fluid, such as a liquid. This force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. It is the lifting force experienced by an object in a liquid, allowing it to float or be partially submerged. Laminar, interface, and dynamic pressure are not directly related to the lifting force of a liquid.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which best describes immiscible liquids?
- A.
They mix well together.
- B.
One liquid will float on the other.
- C.
They will become an intrained solution.
- D.
They will repel each other and react violently.
Correct Answer
B. One liquid will float on the other.Explanation
Immiscible liquids are liquids that do not mix together and form separate layers when combined. One liquid will float on top of the other because they have different densities and do not form a homogeneous mixture. This is the best description of immiscible liquids.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
- A.
Feet per second
- B.
Gallons per minute.
- C.
Cubic feet per second.
- D.
Cubic gallons per minute.
Correct Answer
A. Feet per secondExplanation
Feet per second is the correct answer because it is a unit of measurement commonly used to indicate the velocity of flow. Velocity is a measure of the rate at which something moves in a particular direction, and in the context of flow, it represents how fast a fluid is moving through a given space. Feet per second specifically measures the distance traveled in feet per unit of time, indicating the speed of the flow. The other options, gallons per minute and cubic feet per second, are not appropriate units for measuring velocity as they represent volume per unit of time rather than distance per unit of time. Cubic gallons per minute is not a recognized unit of measurement.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?
- A.
Friction, applied forces, and gravity.
- B.
Friction, inertia, and atmospheric pressure.
- C.
Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and inertia.
- D.
Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.
Correct Answer
D. Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.Explanation
The behavior of liquids in both rest and motion is affected by gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces. Gravity causes liquids to flow downwards, atmospheric pressure affects the pressure within the liquid, and applied forces can change the direction or speed of the liquid's motion.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?
- A.
The size of the pipe.
- B.
The specific gravity of the fuel.
- C.
The change in gallons per minute.
- D.
The amount of extinguished velocity.
Correct Answer
D. The amount of extinguished velocity.Explanation
The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. When there is a sudden change in the flow rate of water in a pipe, it creates a water-hammer effect, causing pressure waves to propagate through the pipe. The intensity of these pressure waves depends on the velocity of the water that is suddenly brought to rest or extinguished. The higher the velocity of the water, the greater the intensity of the pressure wave.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
- A.
Kilograms.
- B.
Pounds.
- C.
Tons.
- D.
Pounds per square inch.
Correct Answer
D. Pounds per square inch.Explanation
Pounds per square inch (psi) is a unit of measurement commonly used to express pressure. Pressure is defined as the force applied per unit area, and psi represents the amount of force exerted on one square inch of area. Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of weight, not pressure. Therefore, psi is the correct answer as it specifically measures pressure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?
- A.
13.1 psi.
- B.
14.7 psi.
- C.
15.2 psi.
- D.
17.9 psi.
Correct Answer
B. 14.7 psi.Explanation
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the Earth's atmosphere. This measurement is commonly used in various fields such as meteorology, aviation, and scuba diving to understand and predict weather patterns, calculate aircraft performance, and determine diving depths, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What type of pressure reading is also referred to as overpressure?
- A.
Zero pressure.
- B.
Gauge pressure.
- C.
Absolute pressure.
- D.
Atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer
B. Gauge pressure.Explanation
Gauge pressure is a type of pressure reading that is also referred to as overpressure. It is the measurement of pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. Gauge pressure is commonly used in various applications, such as measuring the pressure in tires or in industrial processes. It provides information about the pressure above or below atmospheric pressure, allowing for accurate measurements and control of pressure systems.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
- A.
Overpressure.
- B.
Gauge pressure.
- C.
Absolute pressure.
- D.
Atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Absolute pressure.Explanation
Absolute pressure is the term used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas. It is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and the gauge pressure, which measures the pressure above or below atmospheric pressure. Absolute pressure is important in many applications, such as in engineering and physics, where precise measurements of pressure are required. It is typically measured in units such as pascals or pounds per square inch (psi).Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
- A.
Kelvin scale.
- B.
Rankine scale.
- C.
Réaumur scale.
- D.
Fahrenheit scale.
Correct Answer
A. Kelvin scale.Explanation
The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments, as it provides a consistent and standardized reference point. In contrast, the Rankine scale is rarely used outside of certain engineering applications, the Réaumur scale is mostly used in some European countries, and the Fahrenheit scale is commonly used in the United States but not as widely accepted in scientific settings.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?
- A.
Boyle’s law.
- B.
Charles’ law.
- C.
Dalton’s law.
- D.
Gay-Lussac’s law.
Correct Answer
B. Charles’ law.Explanation
Charles' law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming pressure and amount of gas remain constant. According to this law, cooling a gas decreases its temperature, which in turn decreases its volume. Boyle's law, on the other hand, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, Dalton's law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases, and Gay-Lussac's law states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming volume and amount of gas remain constant. None of these laws directly state that cooling a gas decreases its volume.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Two or more atoms combined is called a
- A.
A compound.
- B.
An element.
- C.
A molecule.
- D.
A mixture.
Correct Answer
C. A molecule.Explanation
When two or more atoms combine, they form a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the chemical properties of that compound. It consists of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. In contrast, an element refers to a pure substance made up of only one type of atom. A compound, on the other hand, is a substance composed of two or more different elements chemically bonded together. Lastly, a mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are physically mixed together but not chemically bonded.Rate this question:
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- 18.
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
- A.
Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
- B.
Neutrons, elements, and protons.
- C.
Electrons, molecules, and elements.
- D.
Electrons, neutrons, and matter.
Correct Answer
A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.Explanation
The electron theory states that atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom, neutrons are neutral particles also found in the nucleus, and electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus. This theory provides a basic understanding of the fundamental particles that make up an atom.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
- A.
Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.
- B.
Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- C.
Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- D.
Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.
Correct Answer
D. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.Explanation
Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental concept in atomic structure and is essential to understanding how atoms interact with each other. The attraction between the positive protons in the nucleus and the negative electrons in the electron cloud holds the atom together.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
- A.
Electrical potential.
- B.
Free electrons.
- C.
Electric current.
- D.
Ionization.
Correct Answer
C. Electric current.Explanation
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called electric current. When there is a flow of electrons in a conductor, it creates a continuous flow of charge, which we refer to as electric current. This movement of electrons is responsible for the transfer of energy and is essential for the functioning of electrical devices.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?
- A.
The outermost shell.
- B.
The middle shell.
- C.
The second shell.
- D.
The first shell.
Correct Answer
A. The outermost shell.Explanation
The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity because it is responsible for the material's chemical properties and its ability to form bonds with other atoms. The outermost shell is also involved in the flow of electrons, which is essential for conducting electricity. Therefore, the number and arrangement of electrons in the outermost shell greatly influence the material's conductivity.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which statement best describes a positive ion?
- A.
An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.
- B.
An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
- C.
An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.
- D.
An atom that cannot throw off any protons.
Correct Answer
B. An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.Explanation
A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in an imbalance between the number of protons and electrons, with the atom having more protons than electrons. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?
- A.
Heat.
- B.
Magnetism.
- C.
Chemical.
- D.
Reactance.
Correct Answer
B. Magnetism.Explanation
When an electric current flows through a wire, it creates a magnetic field around the wire. In an electric motor, this magnetic field interacts with the magnetic field of a permanent magnet, causing a force that rotates the motor's shaft. This rotation converts electrical energy into mechanical energy, allowing the motor to perform its intended function. Therefore, the effect of current that causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy is magnetism.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
- A.
Watts.
- B.
Volts.
- C.
Amps.
- D.
Ohms.
Correct Answer
A. Watts.Explanation
The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which energy is transferred or used, representing the amount of work done per unit of time. Volts measure electrical potential difference, amps measure electrical current, and ohms measure electrical resistance. However, none of these units directly measure power. Only watts are specifically used to quantify electrical power.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
- A.
755 W.
- B.
1,534 W.
- C.
2,023 W.
- D.
2,238 W.
Correct Answer
D. 2,238 W.Explanation
A 3-horsepower motor consumes 2,238 watts of power. Horsepower is a unit of power commonly used in the United States, and 1 horsepower is equal to approximately 746 watts. Therefore, to convert 3 horsepower to watts, we multiply 3 by 746, which gives us 2,238 watts.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called
- A.
A natural magnet.
- B.
An electromagnet.
- C.
An artificial magnet.
- D.
An electromechanical magnet.
Correct Answer
C. An artificial magnet.Explanation
A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called an artificial magnet. This is because it is not naturally occurring and requires an external source to magnetize it. Natural magnets, on the other hand, are found in nature and do not require any external source for magnetization. Electromagnets are magnets that are created by passing an electric current through a coil of wire, while electromechanical magnets combine the principles of both electricity and mechanics to generate a magnetic field. However, in this scenario, the magnet is magnetized by induction, making it an artificial magnet.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
- A.
When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.
- B.
When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.
- C.
When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.
- D.
Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.
Correct Answer
D. Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.Explanation
Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the direction of the magnetic field. If the lines were to cross, it would mean that the magnetic field would have to have two different directions at the same point, which is not possible. The lines always follow a continuous path from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet, or from a magnet to a magnetic material.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
- A.
Magnetic and heat.
- B.
Chemical and heat.
- C.
Chemical and mechanical.
- D.
Magnetic and mechanical.
Correct Answer
C. Chemical and mechanical.Explanation
The correct answer is chemical and mechanical. Chemical methods, such as batteries, generate voltage through chemical reactions. Mechanical methods, such as generators, produce voltage through the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy. Both of these methods are commonly used to produce voltage in various applications.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?
- A.
Open current.
- B.
Direct current.
- C.
Latent current.
- D.
Alternating current.
Correct Answer
B. Direct current.Explanation
The correct answer is direct current. Direct current is the type of current flow that is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples. Direct current flows in only one direction and is commonly used in electronic devices and power transmission systems. Unlike alternating current, which periodically changes direction, direct current provides a steady flow of electric charge.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
- A.
Latent current.
- B.
Direct current.
- C.
Latent and open current.
- D.
Alternating and direct current.
Correct Answer
B. Direct current.Explanation
Direct current (DC) cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage. This is because DC flows in only one direction and does not alternate like alternating current (AC). Transformers are designed to work with AC, as they utilize the changing magnetic field to induce a voltage in the secondary coil. However, DC does not have this changing magnetic field, making it impossible to transform from a higher voltage to a lower voltage using a transformer.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?
- A.
Coil, core, and current.
- B.
Magnet, housing, and prime mover.
- C.
Coil, conductors, and relative motion.
- D.
Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion.
Correct Answer
D. Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion.Explanation
According to the principle of electromagnetic induction, voltage is produced when there is a change in magnetic field strength, a conductor is present, and there is relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor. This is known as Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction. The options "Coil, core, and current", "Magnet, housing, and prime mover", and "Coil, conductors, and relative motion" do not accurately represent the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?
- A.
Titanium.
- B.
Stainless steel.
- C.
Sheet aluminum alloy.
- D.
Steel-reinforced carbon fiber.
Correct Answer
C. Sheet aluminum alloy.Explanation
The correct answer is sheet aluminum alloy. This material is commonly used in the construction of fuel tanks due to its lightweight and corrosion-resistant properties. It is also relatively easy to fabricate and has good structural integrity. Stainless steel is another option, but it is heavier and more expensive. Titanium and steel-reinforced carbon fiber are not commonly used for fuel tanks in this context.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Piston.
- C.
Rotary.
- D.
Centrifugal.
Correct Answer
D. Centrifugal.Explanation
Centrifugal pumps are not a type of positive displacement pump. Unlike positive displacement pumps, which displace a fixed amount of fluid with each stroke or rotation, centrifugal pumps work by using centrifugal force to move the fluid. They are commonly used for high flow rate applications, but they do not have the same ability to accurately control or measure the fluid being pumped as positive displacement pumps do. Therefore, the correct answer is Centrifugal.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?
- A.
Separation.
- B.
Integration.
- C.
Coalescing.
- D.
Commingling.
Correct Answer
C. Coalescing.Explanation
Coalescing is the term used to define the process of water forming into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or combining of smaller droplets into larger ones. In the context of filtration, coalescing is an important process as it helps to separate and remove contaminants from the water, allowing for cleaner and purer water to be obtained.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?
- A.
Air eliminator.
- B.
Water slug valve.
- C.
Float control valve.
- D.
Mainline control valve.
Correct Answer
A. Air eliminator.Explanation
An air eliminator is a filter separator component that prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems. It removes air bubbles or pockets from the system, ensuring a consistent and stable pressure. This helps to prevent any sudden increases or decreases in pressure that could potentially damage the system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
- A.
Tri-rotor, positive displacement.
- B.
Bi-rotor, positive displacement.
- C.
Single-stage, bi-directional.
- D.
Dual-stage, bi-directional.
Correct Answer
B. Bi-rotor, positive displacement.Explanation
Bi-rotor, positive displacement meters are commonly used on most fuel dispensing systems. These meters work by using two rotating rotors that trap and measure a fixed volume of fuel with each rotation. The positive displacement design ensures accurate measurement of fuel flow, making it suitable for dispensing systems where precision is crucial.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?
- A.
Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.
- B.
Manual reset-type circuit breakers.
- C.
Twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse.
- D.
Ten amp ATO fuse.
Correct Answer
A. Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.Explanation
Automatic reset-type circuit breakers protect fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload. These circuit breakers automatically trip and disconnect the circuit when the current exceeds a certain limit, preventing damage to the electrical components. Once the overload is removed, the circuit breakers reset themselves and restore power to the system. This feature ensures the continuous and safe operation of the fuel dispensing system by preventing electrical components from overheating or getting damaged due to excessive current flow.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?
- A.
Thirty-weight motor oil.
- B.
Ninety-weight gear oil.
- C.
Synthetic gear lube.
- D.
Silicone grease.
Correct Answer
B. Ninety-weight gear oil.Explanation
Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer for lubricating the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system. Gear oil is specifically designed to provide lubrication and protection for gears, and the higher weight of ninety ensures that it can handle the heavy load and high temperatures of the PTO. This type of lubricant is commonly used in automotive and industrial applications where heavy-duty gear lubrication is required.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?
- A.
PTO interlock system.
- B.
Throttle interlock system.
- C.
Emergency shutdown switch.
- D.
Emergency engine kill switch.
Correct Answer
B. Throttle interlock system.Explanation
The throttle interlock system is a component found on R-11s and R-12s that prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged. This system ensures that the auxiliary throttle can only be used when the PTO is active, providing an additional safety measure to prevent accidental or unauthorized use of the throttle.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?
- A.
Bypass system.
- B.
Mainline system.
- C.
Hose reel control.
- D.
Deadman control.
Correct Answer
A. Bypass system.Explanation
The bypass system is responsible for controlling the fuel pressure in a fuel dispensing system. It allows excess fuel to be diverted back to the tank, preventing an increase in pressure. This ensures that the fuel is dispensed at the correct pressure and prevents any potential damage to the system or fuel leaks.Rate this question:
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- 41.
During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
- A.
The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.
- B.
The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.
- C.
The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.
- D.
The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.
Correct Answer
D. The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.Explanation
When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid will no longer receive power and will not be able to operate. This is likely done as a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or accidents that could occur if the solenoid continues to operate without proper signal input.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
- A.
Quarterly.
- B.
Semiannually.
- C.
Annually.
- D.
Biennially.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.Explanation
Bourdon gauges should be calibrated annually. Calibration is the process of comparing the measurements of a device to a known standard to ensure accuracy. By calibrating Bourdon gauges once a year, any potential inaccuracies or drift in the measurements can be identified and corrected. Regular calibration helps maintain the reliability and precision of the gauges, ensuring that they provide accurate readings for pressure measurements.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?
- A.
Clean coalescer elements.
- B.
Damaged coalescer screens.
- C.
Clogged or dirty coalescers.
- D.
A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.
Correct Answer
D. A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.Explanation
A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a low pressure reading suggests that there is a loss of pressure across the coalescer elements, which could be caused by a faulty O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This can result in reduced efficiency of the coalescers and potential contamination of the separated fluids.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?
- A.
½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.
- B.
½ gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.
- C.
1 gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.
- D.
1 gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.
Correct Answer
A. ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.Explanation
The acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated is ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except
- A.
Nomenclature.
- B.
Quantity on hand.
- C.
Quantity authorized.
- D.
Tool national stock number (NSN).
Correct Answer
B. Quantity on hand.Explanation
The initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include the nomenclature, quantity authorized, and tool national stock number (NSN). However, the quantity on hand is not included in the initial tool listings. This means that the listings provide information about the tools that are authorized and their NSN, but do not indicate the actual quantity of each tool that is currently available.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How often should joint inventories for all individual tool kits (ITK) be accomplished?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
Joint inventories for all individual tool kits (ITK) should be accomplished annually. This means that once a year, a thorough inventory should be conducted to assess the quantity and condition of all the tools in the ITK. This allows for proper maintenance, replacement, and planning for future needs. Conducting joint inventories annually ensures that the ITK is well-maintained and any necessary adjustments can be made in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
- A.
Urgent action.
- B.
Routine action.
- C.
Scheduled action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
D. Immediate action.Explanation
Immediate action is the correct answer because it refers to a type of Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) that is issued for safety conditions that, if not corrected, could lead to fatal or serious injuries to personnel or significant damage to valuable property. This type of TCTO requires immediate attention and action to prevent any potential harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?
- A.
10 days.
- B.
20 days.
- C.
30 days.
- D.
60 days.
Correct Answer
A. 10 days.Explanation
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are directives that require immediate action to address a critical issue. These orders are time-sensitive and must be followed within a specific timeframe to ensure safety and prevent any potential risks. In this case, the correct answer is 10 days, indicating that compliance with the TCTO must be completed within this maximum amount of time.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?
- A.
TCTO.
- B.
Service bulletin.
- C.
Technical manual.
- D.
Manufacturer’s recall.
Correct Answer
B. Service bulletin.Explanation
A service bulletin is a publication issued by commercial manufacturers to inform maintainers about minor defects with a product. It serves as a memorandum that provides guidance on how to address and resolve these issues. Unlike a TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) which is used for mandatory modifications or repairs, a service bulletin focuses on non-critical problems and provides recommendations for their resolution. A technical manual is a comprehensive document that provides detailed instructions for maintenance and repair procedures, while a manufacturer's recall is issued when a product poses a safety risk and requires immediate action.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?
- A.
Service bulletin.
- B.
Urgent action TCTO.
- C.
Manufacturer’s recall.
- D.
Immediate action TCTO.
Correct Answer
C. Manufacturer’s recall.Explanation
A manufacturer's recall is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product. This is done to alert consumers and request them to return the product for repair or replacement. A manufacturer's recall is a formal announcement made by the manufacturer to ensure the safety of the consumers and to address any potential risks associated with the product. It is an important measure taken by the manufacturer to rectify any issues and prevent harm to the users of the product.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 29, 2012Quiz Created by
Brandon_tate_198
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