Steves Phlebotomy Final

1. How long may the tourniquet be on the arm?

No longer than one minute.

No longer than ten minutes.

Every two minutes repeating

The tourniquet must never be on the arm

2. What are the most common coagulation tests?

PT and PTT

TP and TPP

FP and FPP

SF and SFP

3. Define negligence?

Failure to exercise due care that a reasonable person would or would not do

Doing what is called for in the procedures manual

Responding to a patients symptoms

Investigating the cause of disease

4. How often should healthcare professionals wash their hands?

At least once a day

No more than five times a day to prevent dry skin

After using the restroom

Submit

21. What are the four initial core measurement areas for hospitals?

Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack)

Community-acquired pneumonia

Pregnancy and related conditions

Heart failure

All of the above

22. What does the test GTT stand for?

Glucose Tolerance Test

Gout Timed Tera

Good Times Test

Gown Time Test

23. What position does the tip of the needle need to be in before puncture?

With the bevel up

With the bevel down

It doesn't matter

None of the above

24. What reason do manufacturers place expiration dates on evacuated tubes?

Outdated tubes may not fill completely, causing dilution of the sample, distortion of the cell components, and erroneous results

Because they know that the tube will last essentially forever but they want to sell more tubes

To let people know that the chemicals in the tube are still okay no matter what the expiration date

25. Define malpractice?

Due to the patient if it goes to court

A type of negligence committed by a professional

Answer to the judgement

Finding out how to get in contact with the specialist

26. What information needs to go onto or be verified on a label on a specimen collector?

Name and date of birth

Date and time of collection

Both A and B

None of the above

27. What is meant by a panel?

A group of tests

Performing an oral test in class

The directors of the insurance company

A group of doctors

28. Define homeostasis?

Releasing of free redicals

Capturing certain live cells for culture

Death

Steady state condition of the body

29. What is the abbreviation for urinalysis and what evaluations are performed?

UA – physical, chemical, and microscopic

URAN - looking, testing, macroscopic

UAnalysis - marketing, bonds, perspectus

UAW - Physical, mental, arterial

30. What manual outlines hand washing and decontamination?

EPA requirements for sterile labs manual

Manual for poor hygiene areas

Local procedures manual

CDC Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings

31. What is HIPAA and what does it do?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act – Helps ensure confidentiality of confidential protected health information (PHI)

Health Insured Possibility and Articulate Act – Helps ensure confidentiality of the latest health trends

There is no such acronym

HIPO stands for lower than the established norm

32. What does HgA1C mean?

Hemoglobin A1C

Hemoglobin A-C

Hemacrit A-C

Hematocritic ABC

33. EDTA, citrate, heparin, oxalates, SPS are all examples of?

Blood disorders

Tube additives

Tubes that must be short draw

Types of vacuum placed on a tube

34. What is the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle called?

Resting

Agitated

Diatribe

Diastole

35. What are the links of the chain of infection?

Infectious agent, reservoir

Exit pathway, means of transmission

Entry pathway, susceptible host

All of the above

36. What is the meaning of blood type B?

Has BD antigens and anti-D antibodies

Has B antigens and anti-A antibodies

Has Anti-AB antibodies and B antigens

Has Anti-AB antibodies and D antigens

37. Define phlebotomy?

To cut out the phlegm

To remove fluids

To add fluids

Process of bloodletting

38. What is the meaning of the word STAT?

Immediately

ASAP

Directly after eating

Directly prior to eating

39. An infection acquired from a healthcare facility is called?

A novice specimen infection

A nosocomial infarction

A nosocomial infection

Infectious bacterium

40. What are the bones of the fingers and toes called?

Phalanges

Meninges

Bettacota Straf

Final digit

41. What is CLSI?

Calculated Lineage Status Inc. - Local for-profit company who takes a portion of the doctor's fee for further research

42. What are QA indicators?

Measure quality, adequacy, accuracy, timeliness, effectiveness of patient care, customer satisfaction

Measure amount, insurance, fraudulently, and billing extras

Find out what resources can be obtained to enforce HIPAA requirements

None of the above

43. What does the abbreviation CHF stand for?

Coerced Histology Fistule

Connective Heart Failure

Congistive Heart Attack (F)

Congestive Heart Failure

44. What does the abbreviation NPO mean?

Not without Physicians Order

Nothing at bedtime

Nurse per orderly

Nothing by mouth

45. What is the correlation between needle gage and needle size?

The higher the gage of the needle, the bigger the size

The lower the gage of the needle, the smaller the size

Any gage may be selected whatever the size

The higher the gage of the needle, the smaller the size

46. What is refusal of consent?

If a patient is sick enough, he has no right to refuse treatment

Always ignore any protestations by the patient

Patient has a constitutional right to refuse treatment or procedures

The doctor and specialist know better than the patient. Always forse the patient to cooperate

47. What principles are involved with minimizing radiation exposure?

Time

Distance

Shielding

All of the above

48. What is the choice criteria for needle size?

Weight, sex, and age of the patient

Sex, age, and whether or not there is a tattoo on the patient

Size and condition of the vein and the age of the patient

Whether or not the patient his had blood drawn before

49. What is TSH and to what department would the specimen go?

Total Shared Hypoproteins, Microbiology

Thyroid stimulating hormone, Chemistry

Tighter standard hemoglobin, Hematology

None of the above

50. What tube color is used to draw blood for a PT/INR test?

Light blue tube

Light green tube

Light orange tube

Tube with a light blocker

51. What is a frontal plane?

Divides body into four parts

Divides body by body system

Divides body into front and back portions

Allows body to be cut into

52. What does ESR stand for it what does it test?

Eat Solid Rust

Ear Specific Renin/ear infection

Embolus Saturated Risk/anihilation of WBCs

Erythro Sedimentation Rate/inflammation

53. A patient has the following symptoms: Pale, cold, clammy skin. Rapid, weak pulse. Increased, shallow breathing rate. Expressionless face and staring eyes. What is it that you would treat for?

Electricution

Aloclution

Shock

Shifting basal levels

54. What is the SA node?

Sinewy Anode

Sinoatrial Node – Pacemaker for the heart

Sine Attitude - pattern of the heartbeat

Sinoatrial Niodeal - Test performed on an open heart

55. What are the primary methods of phlebotomy?

Venipuncture

Capillary puncture

Both A and B

ABGs

56. What does professionalism involve in a healthcare setting?

Integrity, compassion, and motivation

Dependability, diplomacy, and ethical behavior

Conformity, dilligence, and strength

Both A and B

57. What is the most commonly ordered blood test?

Erythro Sedimentation Rate

Platelets

CBC

RBCs

58. What does FUO stand for?

Fouled up ontermichoty

Flu of unknown origin

Fly of unknown origin

Flebotomist of unknown origin

59. What does tachy mean?

Far

Fast

Slow

Close

60. Define breech of confidentiality?

Failure to keep authorized personnel from looking at files

Reading a medical chart for billing purposes

Responding to an insurance company about a patient who requires treatment

Failure to keep privileged health information private

61. What is the meaning of sclerosed?

Hardened

Curved

Straight

Softened

62. Define EPA approved disinfectant?

Chemicals designed to thoroughly cleanse the incision site

Chemicals usually found under a sink are the best to use

Nature-friendly chemicals that help the environment

EPA regulated chemicals used to kill microorganisms from surfaces

63. What is a suffix?

First participle that explains all the word forms

The part of the word that should always be ignored

None of the above

64. What does the abbreviation CSF stand for?

Cerebrospinal fluid

Cardiospasmotic failure

Carpes deum fossa

Controlled Spinal Flareup

65. What does the abbreviation MRI stand for?

Magnetic resonance imaging

Memory Resistant Iodine

Magic Rheostat Inkling

Master replacement idea

66. A special strict protocol for forensic specimens that require detailed documentation tracking the specimen from the time it is collected until the results are reported is called ___________

Custody Chain

Chain of Custody

Chains of Specialist Custody

Police Chains of Custody

67. What is the maximum depth for a heel capillary puncture?

2 mm

1.75 mm

1.5 mm

3 mm

68. Which body system maintains electrolyte balance?

Urinary system (kidneys)

Bladder system (Gall)

Bladder system (urinary)

Gastroentro system (stomach)

69. Why is phlebotomy performed?

Obtain blood for diagnostic purposes and monitoring of prescribed treatment.

Remove blood for transfusions at a donor center

Remove blood for therapeutic purposes such as polycythemia (overproduction of red blood cells)

All of the above

70. What does ostomy mean?

Close an opening

Close a wound

Make an opening

Quit the procedure

71. What is expressed consent?

The patient believes that all the surgeries are required and does not need to know all the gory details

Verbal or written consent given prior to major procedures such as surgery

The patient refuses to have surgery

72. What is the meaning of thrombosed?

Thinning

Fast bleeding

To cut into for testing

Clotted

73. What must be done with specimens that must be protected from light?

Make sure all the lights remain off until the test is complete

Place the sample immediately into your pocket

Wrap the sample in white paper

Wrap sample in aluminum foil or place in a light blocking container

74. What is the most common complication of venipuncture?

Hematoma formation

Edema

Bacterialogical infection

Excessive bleeding from the site

75. Where is the tourniquet placed?

5-6 inches above site

1-2 inches above site

3-4 inches above site

2-3 inches above site

76. What does the term phlebotomy mean?

Cutting off the circulation

Allowing blood to flow into a patient

The process of bloodletting

To watch while a specimen is collected for QA reasons

77. What are CEUs?

Continuing Erythrocyte Units - blood units authorized by the physician

Continuing Education Units – used by certifying agencies for renewal of credentials

Constant Entry Unit - blood ready to go into the body continuously

Commonplace Earnest Understanding - don't pick this one 'cause you'll be wrong

78. What does ostomy mean?

To make an opening

To close an opening

To open on a previous scar

To sew the wounded area

79. What is a clinical laboratory’s path of workflow?

Peranalytical, Panorama, and postcoital

Prefecture, perfecture, permutable

Preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical

Flow, backflow, stoppage

80. What does the abbreviation DM mean?

Diabetes meat-type

Diabetes Median

Diabetes Mellitus

Diabetes Matching

81. What is implied consent?

Patient withdraws from the practicing physician

Patient’s actions imply consent without a verbal or written expression of consent

Patient insists on signing something before the procedure

Doctor insists that the patient sign a form before proceeding

82. What is anemia?

Procedure to suture hemmoroids for quick removal

A positive test on the Leukocyte count (WBC's)

An abnormal increase of red blood cells

An abnormal decrease of red blood cells

83. What is the result of failure to carefully disinfect the venipuncture site?

There is no problem as long as the needle is in and out as quickly as possible

Can introduce skin surface bacteria into the blood culture

Invalidates all future testing

Patient might syncope

84. What is the transverse plane?

Allows body to be cut into

Divides body into front and back portions

Divides body into four parts

Divides body into upper and lower portions

85. What is the preferred vein for venipuncture?

Cubial medital vein

Venicle Cubital area

Mediate forus fossal

Medial cubital vein

86. Where is the antecubital fossa?

Where the medial cubital vein is located

Where the best artery for puncture is located

Where the veins collapse when punctured

Where the veins give the least amount of blood

87. What other methods have been used to remove blood from the body?

By use of a fleam

Puncture with sharp rock

By using leeches

Both A and C

88. What are the Anatomic and Surgical Pathology areas (lab)?

Histology

Cytology

Cytogenetics

All of the above

89. What tests does the Microbiology Lab perform?

Hemacrit (Hct)

Hemoglobin (Hgb)

Serous and dilute (SAD)

Culture and sensitivity (C&S)

90. What tests does the Histology Lab perform?

Biopsy – Removing a plug or small piece of tissue from an organ and examining it microscopically

Frozen sections – obtaining tissues from surgery and freezing and examining it immediately to determine if more surgery is required

Formed specimens - obtaining tissues formed by other outside methods

Both A and B

91. What is HIV consent?

In general, do not advise the patient. The test and its purpose does not require consent

92. What is the singular form of atria?

Atrium

Arterial

Artery

Tree

93. What are the meninges?

The lateral layer of loose skin

The abdomen main covering

Three layers of connective tissue within the kneecap

Three layers of connective tissure that enclose the brain and spinal cavity

94. What is the term for the internal space of a blood vessel?

Lumen

Muelle

Lunar

Lundar

95. What are the clinical analysis areas (lab)?

Coagulation, Serology or Immunology

Entology, psychology, immunobiology

Urinalysis, Microbiology, Blood Bank or Immunohematology

A and C

96. What are some of the tests peformed for a CBC?

Hemacrit (Hct), Hemoglobin (Hgb), Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)

White blood cell count (WBC), Platelet Count (Plt Ct), Differential White Count (diff)

A or B

A & B

97. What is the medical term for tiny, non-raised red spots that appear on a patient's skin upon tourniquet application?

Petechaic

Patechiac

Petechiae

Peteekia

98. What do the terms diurnal and circadian mean?

Weekly and monthly

Bimonthly and weekly

Daily and 24-hour cycle

30 day cycle and yearly

99. What is hemostasis?

Process by which blood flows throught the circulatory system

Process by which the body stops leaking blood from the vascular system after injury

Build up of plaque within the arteries

Modification

100. Who is often placed in charge of recording refrigerator temperatures?

The nightwatchman

The medical transcriptionist

The phlebotomist

The last doctor who uses the refrigerator

101. What is it and what does HCG stand for?

Pregnancy test. Humane cyanotic gonads

Pregnancy test. Human classic gastritis

Pregnancy test. Human chorionic gonadatropin

None of the above

102. What does OSHA require to decontaminate surfaces?

1 to 10 bleach/water solution or other EPA approved disinfectant

70% isopropyl alcohol

Warm soapy water

Harsh detergent with disinfectant

103. What must the bilirubin test be protected from to prevent hemolyzing the specimen?

Heat

Light

Sweat

Any additives

104. What is hemolysis?

Breakdown of sensitive tissues

Breakdown of leukocytes

Breakdown of a urine specimen

Breakdown of erythrocytes

105. What tube additive prevents glycolosis?

Gray tube. Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate

Green tube, sodium chloride and heparin

Red tube, clot activator

None of the above

106. A plebotomist draws a blood sample from a 16 year old patient without parent or guardian consent. With what could the phlebotomist be charged?

Fraud

Malpractice

Assault and Battery

Statuatory touching

107. What does cryo mean?

Baby crying

Cold

Hot

Shower

108. At what angle is the butterfly needle inserted into the vein?

Between 5 and 25 degrees

Between 10 and 15 degrees

Depends on the vein chosen

Depends on the artery selected

109. Chemotherapy drugs cause a decrease in what?

Blood cells

WBCs and platelets

A and B

None of the above

110. Define hemolyzed?

Blood with excessive RBCs

Blood that is colored other than red

Damaged and destroyed RBCs

Damaged and destroyed WBCs

111. What can happen to a sample that was underfilled in a gray tube?

Excess SPS can cause hemolysis

Excess heparin can cause hemolysis

Excess sodium fluoride can cause hemolysis

Excess clot activator can cause hemolysis

112. What does the abbreviation MI mean?

Microcardial infection

Macrocardial intersection

Both A and B

Myocardial infarction (heart attack)

113. Define standard of care?

None of the above

114. What is consent for minors?

Minors must consent on a special "Consent for Minors" form

Age for minors varies from state to state so minors just have to give a verbal consent

Parental or guardian consent is required

Minors are considered to be adults in regards to their medical health

115. What is leukopenia?

An abnormal amount of Pe in the blood

An abnormal amount of TPP found in the blood

An abnormal decrease of WBCs in the blood

A level of WBCs that is just enough to perform the test

116. What is the approximate lifespan of an RBC?

120 minutes

120 hours

120 months

120 days

117. What is meant by basal state?

When the body first awakens in the morning

Resting metabolic state of the body after fasting for 12 hours

Rising metabolic test measured by five draws using the gray tubes

Must fast for 24 hours to get the basal veins to pop up

118. What effect do thiazide diuretics have?

Elevate calcium and glucose

Decrease sodium and potassium

Both A and B

Elevate testosterone and lower progesterone

119. What is the sagittal plane?

Divides body into four parts

Divides body into right and left portions

Divides body into front and back portions

Allows body to be cut into

120. What is a prefix?

Root word

Final word of a sentence

Two words that describe the subject

A word element that precedes a root word

121. What is tertiary care?

Complex care not eligible for insurance purposes

Healthcare authorized by the correct clinic

Highly complex care and therapy services from practitioners in a hospital or overnight care (specialists)

Care that is not covered by the patient's plan

122. What is the term for failure to let the tube fill until the vacuum is exhausted?

Short draw

Short stick

Low specimen

Short tube

123. What is the medical term for sex cells?

Games

Megalomy

Gametes

Ova

124. What does the abbreviation Dx stand for?

Doctor X

Place where the doctor signs for transcript

Prescription

Diagnosis

125. Define vicarious liability?

Liability imposed by law on one person for acts committed by another

Liability imposed by law on two people who have not done anything wrong

Last option a lawyer has to get his client freed on bond

Reckless medical care much below standards

126. What is informed consent?

Requires a patient to be given the procedure prior to the explanation

Requires a patient to be given adequate information regarding the procedure prior to consenting to it

The patient should have known that the test would be done so it must be okay to do the test

Operate only after the patient is comatose

127. What type of fire is Class "C"?

Wood, paper

Oil

Electrical equipment

Flammable metals

128. What is the medical term for platelet?

Erythrocyte

Plasma

Leukocyte

Thrombocyte

129. What are the main layers of the skin?

Epidermal, dermal, epitheleal

Horny layer, middle layer, growth area

Both A and C

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous

130. Define invasion of privacy?

Asking if the patient is ready to see the doctor

The violation of a person’s right to be left alone

Asking if the patient is feeling okay

Asking the patient for address details for the file

131. What is used to control bleeding from an obvious wound?

Wrap an ace bandage tightly above the wound area to completely stop the flow of blood

Elevate affected part above the level of the heart and apply direct pressure to wound unless extremity is broken

Lower the affected part to below the level of the heart. This aids in the coagulation process

Ask the patient how much aspirin they have been taking

132. What is the result of improper skin preparation?

Testing must be delayed for 120 minutes

Contaminated blood sample

Patient will feel excruciating pain

More than one needle may be needed to anchor the vein

133. What is the name of the term that compares the test results with previous results for the same test?

Alpha check

Bravo check

Charlie check

Delta check

134. What is another name for blood bank?

Immunohematology

Immunohemoglobin

Hemaimmunography

Hemaphilology

135. What does CVA stand for?

Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke)

Cardiovascular Accident

Creatinine Vital Access

None of the above

136. What is first aid for shock?

Maintain an open airway for the victim

Call for assistance, keep victim lying down with head lower than rest of body

Attempt to control bleeding, keep victim warm

All of the above

137. What is PP?

Postpartum (depression)

Act of voiding the urinary bladder

Physician's Perogative

Postprandial (after eating)

138. What is the order of draw?

Gold, tiger top, yellow, green, light green, lavender, gray

PST, SST, yellow, light green, gray, lavender

Yellow, light blue, red, light green, lavender, gray

Yellow, light blue, red, PST, SST, lavender, gray

139. True or False: Airborne precautions require special air handling?

True

False

140. What does systole mean?

It is the contracting phase of the cardiac cycle

It is the expanding phase of the cardiac cycle

It is the lumen phase of the cardiac cycle

All of the above

141. What does brady mean?

Fast

Fats

Slow

Dull

142. What body system is associated with diabetes?

Endocrine

Integumentary

Lymph

Organs

143. What material is tested for cholorectal cancer?

Sputum

Saliva

Feces

Hemmoroids

144. You enter the room of a patient that has had a double mastectomy. You need to draw a specimen for testing. From which arm should you draw blood?

Draw blood from the femoral artery

If it's on both breasts, it doesn't metter which arm you choose

Consult the patient's physician prior to drawing blood

In general, the most recent masectomy side is to be avoided

Both C and D

145. What is polycythemia?

Abnormal increase in RBCs. May require therapeutic removal of blood from the body

Abnormal decrease in RBCs. May require therapeutic injectionl of blood into the body

Abnormal increase in WBCs. May require therapeutic removal of plasma from the body

Abnormal decrease in marker cells. May require added marked cells into the body

146. What is CLIA ’88?

Clinical Licensing Intial Action '88 - Part of the accreditation of an organization

Both A and B

None of the above

147. Define Res ipsa loquitor?

The thing speaks for itself

After the operation

Prior to the operation

After all, we're only human

148. Define statute of limitations?

A law affecting the setting of the alleged injury in which a person is unable to file a lawsuit

Tort reform

Both B and C

149. What is the order of donning protective clothing?

Gown, mask, and gloves

Gloves, gown, and mask

Mask, shield, and hat

The order does not matter

150. What is thrombocytopenia?

When the platelets turn cold

Decrease in the number of thrombocytes

Increase in the number of platelets

None of the above

151. What can be the result of misidentifying a patient or specimen?

A training session during lunchtime is the phlebotomists' punishment

The phlebotomist can be fired and can be taken to court for malpractice

The phlebotomist would be required to redraw the specimen

The patient must be kept happy regardless. Don't tell the patient so there won't be any lawsuits

152. What are the four stages of hemostasis?

Vasoconstriction, Platelet Plug Formation, Fibrin Clot Formation, Fibrinolysis

Bleeding, clotting, direct pressure, scar tissue

Breathing, venting, bleeding, bandage

Aspirate, dilate, intimate

153. Give an example of ambulatory care?

The paramedics in the ambulance stabilize the patient without any outside help. Then the patient can walk fine

Hospital with only three beds

Walk-in care center

Making sure the patient does not need an ambulance to get to the healthcare facility

154. What is a kinesic slip?

What shows if a woman's skirt is too short

During kinetic testing, a slip on the track

Condition in which the verbal and nonverbal messages do not match

Finding out a piece of confidential information by accident

155. Define Respondeat superior?

Let the slave respond

Let the phlebotomist respond

Let the master respond

Master of superior skills

156. What is meant by Rh factor?

It is the pH of the blood. Measurement of the acidity of the blood

Person with D antigen said to be Rh positive

It is based on the presence or absence of D antigen

Person without D antigen said to be Rh negative

B,C, and D are correct

157. What blood components exhibit diurnal variation high levels in the morning?

Renin, TSH, cortisol, RBCs

Bilirubin, hemoglobin, insulin

Iron, potassium, testosterone

All of the above

158. What hospital department covers cell sturcture and pap smears for cancer cells?

Biopsy department

Cytology department

Gynocology department

Cytogenetics department

159. What does the medical embolus mean?

Hemmorage

Blood clot traveling in the circulatory system

Steady state blood flow

Embolism

160. What is a gatekeeper?

Someone who opens the door for you at the doctor's office

Primary care physician

Specialist who is authorizing the care

Dentists

161. Name tests that are performed on arterial blood?

Gases and Px

Gases and pH

O2 and H2O

Salt concentration and hemoglobin

162. The NHA credentials for a phlebotomist are called?

PHBT

PBT

CPT

DHT

163. At what angle should a spreader slide be held?

30 degrees

15 degrees

45 degrees

10-30 degrees

164. What is the PT (Prothrombin Time) time used to evaluate?

Extrinsic pathway function

Monitor coumarin therapy

Both A and B

None of the above

165. What do peak and trough level measurements track?

TDM

DAT

TDY

DMT

166. Arrange these tubes in order of draw: TSH, CBC, Cholesterol, PT?

PT (light blue), TSH (gold or black/red tiger top), cholesterol (gold or black/red tiger top), CBC (lavender), ESR (lavender)

ESR (lavender), PT (light blue), TSH (gold or black/red tiger top), cholesterol (gold or black/red tiger top), CBC (lavender)

TSH (gold or black/red tiger top), cholesterol (gold or black/red tiger top), ESR (lavender), PT (light blue), CBC (lavender)

PT (light blue), STH (gold or black/red tiger top), chondroitin (gold or black/red tiger top), ESR (lavender), CBC (lavender)

167. The _______ is the place in the lungs that the exchange of _ and ______ takes place?

Abdomen, air/gases

Alveoli, oxygen/carbon dioxide

Alveoli, carbon dioxide/oxygen

Both B and C

168. What is cardiac output?

Blood volume pumped from the heart per second

Blood volume pumped from the heart per hour

Blood volume pumped from the heart per day

Blood volume pumped from the heart per minute

169. What are examples of collection manuals?

Nursing Services Manual

Specimen Collection Manual

Both A and B

None of the above

170. Most drugs are toxic to the liver. This is evidenced by increased levels of __________?

CPP, SGGT, APL, and LSD

CRP, STG, ALP, and TDL

AST, SGOT, ALP, and LDH

None of the above

171. What hospital department covers DNA testing and forensic medicine?

Laboratory

Stat lab

Immunohematology

Cytogenetics

172. What are the three main layers of arteries and veins?

Tuna outer layer, tuna middle layer, tuna intimate layer

Tunica adventitia – outer layer, Tunica media – Middle layer, Tunica intima – inner layer or lining

Tunica media-adventitia – outer layer, Tunica media/intima– Middle layer, Tunica intima – inner layer or lining

Outer, middle, inner

173. Deceitful practice or false portrayal of facts either by words or conduct?

Lying

Cheating

Fraud

Malpractice

174. What is the meaning of blood type A?

Has anti-A antibodies and B antigens

Has Anti-AB antibodies and B antigens

Has A antigens and anti-B antibodies

Has BD antigens and anti-D antibodies

175. What does brachy mean?

Long distance

Long throw

Short distance

Short throw

176. What is the medical term for blood in the urine?

Hemoturia

Hematicritia

Hematuria

Hemophylia

177. What might cause an arm to swell following a mastectomy?

The surgery causes excessive edema in the arm

Lymphostasis

Indicates that the cancer has spread to the arm

None of the above

178. What are the basic tissues of the body?

Epidermis, organ, and respiratory

Organs, bones, muscles

Epithelial, nerve, and muscle

Reproductive, mammary, hormone

179. What is the meaning of reference labs?

Lab that was referenced in the requisition

Lab that is referred by a doctor's consent

Analysis from different labs

Labs who do not perform certain tests

180. What does the abbreviation “p.c.” stand for?

Personal computer

After meals

Per c.c.

Before meals

181. What is the meaning of type AB blood?

Has A and B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies

Has Anti-AB antibodies and D antigens

Has Anti-AB antibodies and AB antigens

Has no anti-AB antigens and no antibodies

182. What tubes use thixotropic gel?

Yellow and green (PPS)

Orange and pink (STT)

Gold (SST)

Light green (PST)

Both C and D

183. What places on a foot can receive a capillary puncture?

Medial plantar

Lateral plantar

Directly on the heel for the best bloodflow

Either A or B

184. What must be done with a PST tube specimen for electrolytes?

Must be spun immediately

Let the specimen clot first, then spin it

Remove the stopper and immediately pour into the test beaker

Have the patient drink electrolytes immediately after drawing the specimen

185. What is phagocytosis?

Process of the blood being filtered by the kidneys to remove impurities

Process when a pathogen or foreign matter is surrounded, engulfed and destroyed by the WBCs

As the white blood count decreases, the pathogens start entering the atmosphere through aspiration

186. What is another name for puncture?

Incision

Incise

Both A and B

None of the above

187. What can happen to a sample that was underfilled in a green tube?

Excess heparin in plasma may interfere with testing of some chemistry analytes

Excess heparin in serum may interfere with testing of some chemistry analytes

Excess EDTA may interfere with testing of some chemistry analytes

None of the above

188. When is the employer to offer the HBV vaccine?

OSHA requires that the vaccine be offered within 30 hours

OSHA requires that the vaccine be offered within 10 days

OSHA requires that the vaccine be offered within 30 days

OSHA requires that the vaccine be offered within 5 days

189. What is thrombocytosis?

Abnormal blockages in the arteries cause by plaque

Platelets that have turned cold

Decreased number of platelets

Increased number of platelets

190. What does the ESR test for and in what tube is the blood collected?

RBC count, lavender

WBC count, gray

Parasites, yellow

Inflammation, lavender

191. Of, pertaining to, or within a vein?

Median cubittal vein

Collapsed vein

Venipuncture

Intravenous

192. What is peak level?

The point at which a patient requires more of the therapeutic drug

Usually in the morning right after the patient eats breakfast

Drug level collected when the highest serum concentration of the drug is anticipated

Drug level collected when the highest plasma concentration of the drug is anticipated

193. What is meant by trough level?

194. Name a test for which a 24-hour urine sample is provided?

Creatine clearance

Cratinine clearance

Clear of creatinine

Creatinine clearance

195. What can happen to a sample that was under filled in a lavender tube?

The heparin can expand RBCs and cause erroneous high blood cell counts and hematocrits

The EDTA can shrink the RBCs and cause erroneous low blood cell counts and hematocrits

The EDTA can expand the RBCs and cause erroneous high blood cell counts and hematocrits

There is nothing that will happen as long as the tube is centrifuged right away

196. Where in the body is the clavicle located?

Upper arm

Neck

Trunk

Back

197. What is the procedure for a 24-hour urine collection?

Not counting the first one, keep close records to record every other occurance of urination during the 24-hour period

Testing can be started immediately with the reagent strips provided to the patient

198. What is the meaning of the term antecubital?

The place where the most blood can be drawn

The only place on an infant where you can draw blood

Before the elbow

Just after the elbow

199. How is the Joint Commission’s (JCAHO) QI program commitment to safety demonstrated?

Through its extensive warning horn network

Through its sentinel (early warning) event policy

QI programs are only followed at the federal level

If an employee is safe, JHACO rewards a portion of the savings

200. What is the study of nonverbal communication called?

Kinetics

Combined speech

Kinesics

None of the above

Steves Phlebotomy Final

1. How long may the tourniquet be on the arm?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What are the most common coagulation tests?

3. Define negligence?

4. How often should healthcare professionals wash their hands?

5. For a capillary specimen, warming the site can increase blood flow __________ times?

6. A _____________ is another name for winged-infusion set?

7. A ___________ is a permanent fusion of an artery and a vein?

8. True or False. Bilirubin is not sensitive to light?

9. ____________ is the name of the form that is used to order a blood draw?

10. ________________ signs mean that there is an order stating that the patient should not be revived if he or she stops breathing?

11. What is the most important step in a specimen collection?

12. True or False: Opiates such as morphine increase levels of liver and pancreatic enzymes?

13. True or False: RBC, Hgb, Hct normal values are higher in males than females?

14. True or False: Stress causes increases in serum iron and decreases in adrenal hormones such as cortisol?

15. True or False: Always apply a blood pressure cuff or tourniquet and perform venipuncture on an arm with a shunt?

16. True or False: Hemolyzed specimens can be the result of conditions such as hemolytic anemia?

17. What is the medical term for heel bone?

18. True or False: A 24-hour urine specimen collection is done to allow qualitative analysis of a urine analysis?

19. The term ____________ means to faint.

20. What is the Joint Commission?

21. What are the four initial core measurement areas for hospitals?

22. What does the test GTT stand for?

23. What position does the tip of the needle need to be in before puncture?

24. What reason do manufacturers place expiration dates on evacuated tubes?

25. Define malpractice?

26. What information needs to go onto or be verified on a label on a specimen collector?

27. What is meant by a panel?

28. Define homeostasis?

29. What is the abbreviation for urinalysis and what evaluations are performed?

30. What manual outlines hand washing and decontamination?

31. What is HIPAA and what does it do?

32. What does HgA1C mean?

33. EDTA, citrate, heparin, oxalates, SPS are all examples of?

34. What is the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle called?

35. What are the links of the chain of infection?

36. What is the meaning of blood type B?

37. Define phlebotomy?

38. What is the meaning of the word STAT?

39. An infection acquired from a healthcare facility is called?

40. What are the bones of the fingers and toes called?

41. What is CLSI?

42. What are QA indicators?

43. What does the abbreviation CHF stand for?

44. What does the abbreviation NPO mean?

45. What is the correlation between needle gage and needle size?

46. What is refusal of consent?

47. What principles are involved with minimizing radiation exposure?

48. What is the choice criteria for needle size?

49. What is TSH and to what department would the specimen go?

50. What tube color is used to draw blood for a PT/INR test?

51. What is a frontal plane?

52. What does ESR stand for it what does it test?

53. A patient has the following symptoms: Pale, cold, clammy skin. Rapid, weak pulse. Increased, shallow breathing rate. Expressionless face and staring eyes. What is it that you would treat for?

54. What is the SA node?

55. What are the primary methods of phlebotomy?

56. What does professionalism involve in a healthcare setting?

57. What is the most commonly ordered blood test?

58. What does FUO stand for?

59. What does tachy mean?

60. Define breech of confidentiality?

61. What is the meaning of sclerosed?

62. Define EPA approved disinfectant?

63. What is a suffix?

64. What does the abbreviation CSF stand for?

65. What does the abbreviation MRI stand for?

66. A special strict protocol for forensic specimens that require detailed documentation tracking the specimen from the time it is collected until the results are reported is called ___________

67. What is the maximum depth for a heel capillary puncture?

68. Which body system maintains electrolyte balance?

69. Why is phlebotomy performed?

70. What does ostomy mean?

71. What is expressed consent?

72. What is the meaning of thrombosed?

73. What must be done with specimens that must be protected from light?

74. What is the most common complication of venipuncture?

75. Where is the tourniquet placed?

76. What does the term phlebotomy mean?

77. What are CEUs?