PSW Practice Exam Quiz: Cj Healthcare College

Reviewed by Farah Naz
Farah Naz, MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Review Board Member
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.
, MBBS, Medicine
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PSW Practice Exam Quiz: Cj Healthcare College - Quiz

Preparing for your journey to becoming a certified Personal Support Worker (PSW) is a commendable step towards a fulfilling healthcare career. To assist you in this crucial phase, our PSW Practice Exam Quiz is designed to mirror the actual certification exam closely.

Through a series of meticulously crafted questions, you will be challenged on core competencies, ethical considerations, and practical skills fundamental to the PSW role. Whether it's patient care techniques, safety protocols, or effective communication with clients and healthcare teams, our quiz covers it all.

This preparation tool aims to boost your confidence, fill gaps in your Read moreknowledge, and hone your problem-solving skills. With each attempt, you'll gain insights into the types of questions to expect, helping you approach your certification exam with assurance and an elevated level of preparedness.


PSW Practice Exam Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    A child is deprived of love, affection, and belonging. This is:

    • A.

      Emotional Abuse

    • B.

      Physical Abuse

    • C.

      Emotional Neglect

    • D.

      Physical Neglect

    Correct Answer
    C. Emotional Neglect
    Explanation
    Emotional neglect refers to the failure of a caregiver to provide the necessary emotional support and attention to a child. In this scenario, the child is deprived of love, affection, and a sense of belonging, indicating a lack of emotional care. This neglect can have severe consequences on the child's emotional well-being and development, leading to feelings of loneliness, low self-esteem, and difficulties in forming healthy relationships.

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  • 2. 

    The adult daughter of your patient comes in frequently to visit at the long term care center you work at. You see her with your patient's cheque book asking for her father's signature without telling him what the money is for. This is an example of:

    • A.

      Physical Abuse

    • B.

      Financial Abuse

    • C.

      Sexual Abuse

    • D.

      Emotional Abuse

    Correct Answer
    B. Financial Abuse
    Explanation
    The given scenario describes an instance of financial abuse. The daughter is taking advantage of her father's vulnerability by seeking his signature on a check without disclosing the purpose of the money. This action violates the patient's right to make informed decisions about their finances and exposes them to potential financial exploitation.

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  • 3. 

    According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, experiencing one's own potential fulfills which need:

    • A.

      Love and Belonging

    • B.

      Self-Actualization

    • C.

      Safety and Security

    • D.

      Physical Security

    Correct Answer
    B. Self-Actualization
    Explanation
    According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, self-actualization is the highest level of need that can be fulfilled. It refers to the desire to achieve one's full potential, to become the best version of oneself. This need is related to personal growth, self-fulfillment, and the pursuit of goals and dreams. It is a need that goes beyond basic physiological and safety needs, as well as the need for love and belonging. Self-actualization involves personal development, creativity, and the realization of one's true abilities and talents.

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  • 4. 

    A laceration is:

    • A.

      A closed wound caused by a blow to the body

    • B.

      A partial-thickness wound caused by scraping away of the skin

    • C.

      An open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges

    • D.

      The collection of blood under the skin and tissue

    Correct Answer
    C. An open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges
    Explanation
    A laceration is an open wound with torn tissue and jagged edges. This means that the skin and underlying tissue have been torn apart, resulting in a wound that is not smooth and has irregular edges. This is different from a closed wound caused by a blow to the body, a partial-thickness wound caused by scraping away of the skin, or the collection of blood under the skin and tissue.

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  • 5. 

    The lack of oxygen refers to:

    • A.

      Dyspnea

    • B.

      Orthopnea

    • C.

      Hypoxia

    • D.

      Hypoxygen

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypoxia
    Explanation
    Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a lack of oxygen supply to the body's tissues. It can occur due to various reasons such as decreased oxygen levels in the environment, impaired lung function, or reduced blood flow to certain areas. Dyspnea refers to difficulty in breathing, Orthopnea refers to difficulty in breathing while lying down, and Hypoxygen is not a recognized medical term. Therefore, the correct answer for the lack of oxygen is Hypoxia.

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  • 6. 

    A fear refers to:

    • A.

      Personality

    • B.

      ID

    • C.

      Ego

    • D.

      Phobia

    Correct Answer
    D. Phobia
    Explanation
    The given correct answer for this question is "Phobia." A fear refers to an intense and irrational feeling of anxiety or dread towards a specific object, situation, or activity. Phobias are a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an excessive and persistent fear of a particular thing or situation. Unlike normal fears, phobias can cause significant distress and can interfere with daily life.

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  • 7. 

    You are caring for your patient's wound, you notice that your patient has yellow and green discharge coming from the wound. This drainage is:

    • A.

      Sanguineous

    • B.

      Serous

    • C.

      Serosanguineous

    • D.

      Purulent

    Correct Answer
    D. Purulent
    Explanation
    The yellow and green discharge coming from the wound indicates the presence of pus, which is a thick, opaque fluid consisting of dead white blood cells, bacteria, and tissue debris. This type of drainage is known as purulent.

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  • 8. 

    You notice some watery, clear fluid coming from your daughter's boil. This drainage is called:

    • A.

      Serous

    • B.

      Serosanguineous

    • C.

      Sanguineous

    • D.

      Purulent

    Correct Answer
    A. Serous
    Explanation
    Serous drainage refers to a watery, clear fluid that is typically produced by the body's tissues. It is commonly seen in wounds or infections that are healing well, and is usually a sign of a healthy healing process. In the context of a boil, serous drainage suggests that the body is effectively fighting off the infection and the boil is progressing towards healing.

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  • 9. 

    Cataract is an eye disorder in which:

    • A.

      The optic nerve is damaged

    • B.

      Pressure within the eye is increased

    • C.

      The lens becomes cloudy

    • D.

      Severe eye pain is common

    Correct Answer
    C. The lens becomes cloudy
    Explanation
    Cataract is an eye disorder in which the lens of the eye becomes cloudy. This cloudiness affects the clarity of vision and can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, difficulty seeing in bright light, and trouble distinguishing colors. The clouding of the lens is usually a result of aging, but it can also be caused by other factors such as injury, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Treatment for cataracts typically involves surgery to remove the cloudy lens and replace it with an artificial one.

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  • 10. 

    The most common type of dementia is:

    • A.

      Multi-infarct dementia

    • B.

      Sundowning

    • C.

      Alzheimer's Disease

    • D.

      Parkinson's Disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Alzheimer's Disease
    Explanation
    Alzheimer's Disease is the most common type of dementia. It is characterized by progressive memory loss, cognitive decline, and behavioral changes. It is caused by the accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain, leading to the death of brain cells. The disease typically starts with mild memory loss and confusion and worsens over time, affecting language, decision-making, and daily functioning. While there are other types of dementia, such as multi-infarct dementia and Parkinson's disease dementia, Alzheimer's Disease accounts for the majority of dementia cases, making it the correct answer.

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  • 11. 

    The evening clock of your facility reads 11:11 pm. What do you document?

    • A.

      01111 hrs

    • B.

      0111 hrs

    • C.

      2311 hrs

    • D.

      02311 hrs

    Correct Answer
    C. 2311 hrs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2311 hrs. This is because the evening clock reads 11:11 pm, which is equivalent to 23:11 in the 24-hour format. Therefore, you would document 2311 hrs.

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  • 12. 

    Daily PSW care is recorded in what sheet?

    • A.

      Graphic Sheet

    • B.

      Integrated Patient Notes

    • C.

      Flow Sheet

    • D.

      Incident Report

    Correct Answer
    C. Flow Sheet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Flow Sheet because a flow sheet is a document used to record daily personal support worker (PSW) care. It allows for the systematic recording of important information such as vital signs, medications, treatments, and observations. This helps to ensure that the care provided to the patient is consistent and can be easily reviewed by other healthcare professionals. The flow sheet is an essential tool in monitoring and documenting the patient's progress and any changes in their condition over time.

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  • 13. 

    Muscles are attached to bones by:

    • A.

      Tendons

    • B.

      Ligaments

    • C.

      Cartilage

    • D.

      Nerve tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendons
    Explanation
    Muscles are attached to bones by tendons. Tendons are tough, fibrous connective tissues that connect muscles to bones, allowing for movement and stability. They transmit the force generated by the muscle to the bone, enabling us to perform various movements and actions. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones and help stabilize joints. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that provides cushioning and support in joints. Nerve tissue is responsible for transmitting signals between the brain and muscles, but it does not directly attach muscles to bones.

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  • 14. 

    Homeostasis refers to:

    • A.

      A stable internal environment

    • B.

      A stable warm temperature

    • C.

      A stable temperature

    • D.

      A stable pulse

    Correct Answer
    A. A stable internal environment
    Explanation
    Homeostasis refers to maintaining a stable internal environment within the body. This means that the body's systems and processes are regulated to ensure a balanced state, regardless of external factors. It involves maintaining stable levels of temperature, pH, blood pressure, and other physiological variables. This balance is crucial for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, and organs, allowing the body to efficiently carry out its various functions.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following are long bones of the body EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Tibia

    • B.

      Humerus

    • C.

      Patella

    • D.

      Femur

    Correct Answer
    C. Patella
    Explanation
    The patella, also known as the kneecap, is not a long bone of the body. It is a sesamoid bone, which means it is a small, round bone embedded within a tendon. Long bones, on the other hand, are characterized by their elongated shape and include bones such as the tibia, humerus, and femur.

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  • 16. 

    Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

    • A.

      Osteoarthritis, dysrhythmia, gastroenteritis

    • B.

      Phlebitis, Myelination, Headaches

    • C.

      Disorientation, Hunger, Sweaty

    • D.

      Fruity smelling breath and nausea

    Correct Answer
    C. Disorientation, Hunger, Sweaty
    Explanation
    Disorientation, hunger, and sweating are signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Disorientation refers to a state of confusion or mental disarray, which can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low. Hunger is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for the lack of glucose. Sweating is another physiological response to low blood sugar levels. These symptoms indicate a need for immediate intervention to raise blood sugar levels and prevent further complications.

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  • 17. 

    An artificial replacement of a missing body part is:

    • A.

      Prosthesis

    • B.

      Orthosis

    • C.

      Parasythesis

    • D.

      Lysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Prosthesis
    Explanation
    A prosthesis is an artificial replacement for a missing body part. It is designed to mimic the function and appearance of the original body part, helping individuals regain their mobility and improve their quality of life. Prostheses can be used for various body parts, such as limbs, eyes, ears, and teeth. They are custom-made to fit the individual's specific needs and can be attached or worn externally or implanted internally.

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  • 18. 

    Which respiratory pattern would a dying patient have?

    • A.

      Cheyne-stokes Respirations

    • B.

      Churne-Strikes Respirations

    • C.

      Alopecia Respirations

    • D.

      Hisutism Respirations

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheyne-stokes Respirations
    Explanation
    Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a cyclical pattern of breathing with periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This respiratory pattern is commonly seen in dying patients due to the brain's inability to regulate breathing properly. It is caused by decreased blood flow and oxygen levels in the brain, leading to irregular breathing.

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  • 19. 

    The master gland of the human body is:

    • A.

      Pituitary Gland

    • B.

      Adrenal Gland

    • C.

      Sweat Gland

    • D.

      Thyroid Gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary Gland
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is considered the master gland of the human body because it plays a crucial role in regulating various hormonal functions. It produces and releases hormones that control the activities of other endocrine glands, such as the thyroid gland, adrenal glands, and reproductive glands. The pituitary gland also influences growth, metabolism, sexual development, and many other bodily functions. Therefore, it is responsible for coordinating and controlling the overall hormonal balance in the body.

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  • 20. 

    The trochanter of the body is located:

    • A.

      Near the hips and side areas of the abdomen

    • B.

      Near the tibia

    • C.

      Near the clavicle

    • D.

      Near the occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Near the hips and side areas of the abdomen
    Explanation
    The trochanter is a bony prominence located near the hips and side areas of the abdomen. It is specifically found in the femur bone, which is the thigh bone. The trochanter serves as an attachment point for various muscles, ligaments, and tendons, providing stability and facilitating movement in the hip joint. Its location near the hips and side areas of the abdomen allows for the efficient transfer of forces and coordination of movements between the upper and lower body.

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  • 21. 

    All of the following deal with the urinary system EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Nephrons

    • B.

      Glomerulus

    • C.

      Kidneys

    • D.

      Patella

    Correct Answer
    D. Patella
    Explanation
    The patella is a bone located in the knee joint and is not part of the urinary system. The nephrons, glomerulus, and kidneys, on the other hand, are all components of the urinary system. Nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys where urine is formed, the glomerulus is a network of capillaries in the nephron that filters blood, and the kidneys are the organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine.

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  • 22. 

    All of the following deal with the integumentary system EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Epidermis

    • B.

      Dermis

    • C.

      Hair Follicles

    • D.

      Gluteus Maximus

    Correct Answer
    D. Gluteus Maximus
    Explanation
    The integumentary system is responsible for protecting the body from external factors and maintaining homeostasis. It consists of the skin, hair, nails, and various glands. The epidermis and dermis are the two main layers of the skin, while hair follicles are structures within the skin that produce hair. The gluteus maximus, on the other hand, is a muscle located in the buttocks and has no direct connection to the integumentary system. Therefore, the correct answer is Gluteus Maximus.

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  • 23. 

    Why are deep breathing and coughing exercises encouraged following surgery?

    • A.

      To help prevent respiratory complications

    • B.

      To widen nephrons

    • C.

      To cause vasodilation

    • D.

      To prevent pressure ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. To help prevent respiratory complications
    Explanation
    Deep breathing and coughing exercises are encouraged following surgery to help prevent respiratory complications. Surgery can often lead to reduced lung function and the development of atelectasis, which is the collapse of small air sacs in the lungs. Deep breathing exercises help to expand the lungs and improve oxygenation, while coughing exercises help to clear any secretions or mucus that may have accumulated in the airways. By promoting lung expansion and clearing the airways, these exercises can help prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia or respiratory infections.

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  • 24. 

    All of the following are factors that can cause pressure ulcers EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Poor nutrition

    • B.

      Dehydration

    • C.

      Confined to a bed or a wheelchair

    • D.

      Urinary tract infection

    Correct Answer
    D. Urinary tract infection
    Explanation
    Urinary tract infection is the exception among the given factors that can cause pressure ulcers. Poor nutrition, dehydration, and being confined to a bed or a wheelchair are all known risk factors for developing pressure ulcers. However, a urinary tract infection does not directly cause pressure ulcers. While it may increase the risk of developing infections in the pressure ulcer, it is not a direct factor in the development of pressure ulcers themselves.

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  • 25. 

    Your patient has angina pectoris. You patient has:

    • A.

      Urinary tract infection

    • B.

      Chest pain

    • C.

      Nitroglycerin

    • D.

      Inflammatory Bowel Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Chest pain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chest pain. Angina pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. It is typically caused by narrowed or blocked coronary arteries, which can restrict blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerin is a medication commonly used to relieve chest pain associated with angina by dilating the blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. The other options, urinary tract infection and inflammatory bowel syndrome, are unrelated to angina pectoris.

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  • 26. 

    Your patient is hypoglycemic. Before you report to your supervisor, you should:

    • A.

      Give him a tbsp of white sugar

    • B.

      Give him a drink of diet soda

    • C.

      Give him a tbsp of corn syrup

    • D.

      Give him a teaspoon of vinegar

    Correct Answer
    B. Give him a drink of diet soda
    Explanation
    Giving the patient a drink of diet soda is the correct action to take when they are hypoglycemic. Diet soda contains artificial sweeteners which can quickly raise the patient's blood sugar levels. This can provide immediate relief for the patient and help stabilize their condition.

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  • 27. 

    Your patient is experiencing an anaphylactic episode. This means:

    • A.

      Drug Synergism

    • B.

      Severe myocardial infarction

    • C.

      Severe allergic reaction

    • D.

      Drug Tolerance

    Correct Answer
    C. Severe allergic reaction
    Explanation
    An anaphylactic episode refers to a severe allergic reaction. During an anaphylactic episode, the patient's immune system overreacts to an allergen, triggering a release of chemicals that can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty breathing, swelling, hives, and potentially life-threatening complications. This reaction can occur in response to various triggers, such as certain foods, medications, insect stings, or latex. Prompt medical attention is necessary to treat an anaphylactic episode, usually with the administration of epinephrine and other supportive measures.

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  • 28. 

    The document you find your patient's information, diagnosis and plans of care is called:

    • A.

      The flow sheet

    • B.

      The chart

    • C.

      The kardex

    • D.

      The P.O.P

    Correct Answer
    C. The kardex
    Explanation
    The kardex is a document that contains a patient's information, diagnosis, and plans of care. It is commonly used in healthcare settings to provide a quick and concise overview of a patient's medical history and current treatment plan. The kardex helps healthcare professionals easily access and review important information about the patient, allowing for efficient and effective patient care.

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  • 29. 

    All of the factors influence nutrition except:

    • A.

      Finances

    • B.

      Culture

    • C.

      Religion

    • D.

      Sexual Orientation

    Correct Answer
    D. Sexual Orientation
    Explanation
    Nutrition is influenced by various factors such as finances, culture, and religion. These factors can affect the types of food people have access to, their dietary preferences, and their beliefs about food. However, sexual orientation does not directly impact nutrition. It is a personal characteristic related to one's sexual or romantic attraction, and it does not determine or influence the nutritional needs or choices of an individual.

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  • 30. 

    When someone is hypoglycemic, the onset of the symptoms occurs:

    • A.

      Suddenly

    • B.

      Gradually

    • C.

      Frequently

    • D.

      In Intervals

    Correct Answer
    A. Suddenly
    Explanation
    When someone is hypoglycemic, the onset of symptoms occurs suddenly. Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, and it can cause various symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, sweating, and weakness. These symptoms can appear suddenly and without warning, as the body is not receiving enough glucose for energy. It is important for individuals with hypoglycemia to monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage episodes of low blood sugar.

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Farah Naz |MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 10, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Farah Naz
  • May 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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