Phlebotomy Essentials, 4th Edition Study Guide For Chapters 1, 2 ,3

102 Questions  I  By Dmw1
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Phlebotomy Quizzes & Trivia
Study quiz for chapters 1-3

  
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  • 1. 
    All of the following infectious disease services are offered through regional Public Health Services agencies EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Education

    • B. 

      Monitoring

    • C. 

      Screening

    • D. 

      Treatment


  • 2. 
    This is an abbreviation for an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.
    • A. 

      CPT

    • B. 

      DRG

    • C. 

      PHS

    • D. 

      PPO


  • 3. 
    The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing is called:
    • A. 

      CPT

    • B. 

      DRG's

    • C. 

      PPO

    • D. 

      PPS


  • 4. 
    This is an abbreviation for large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services.
    • A. 

      APC

    • B. 

      MCO

    • C. 

      PHS

    • D. 

      PPS


  • 5. 
    A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility comes from:
    • A. 

      Federal HIPAA regulations

    • B. 

      Prepaid healthcare plans

    • C. 

      Protected Health Information

    • D. 

      The Patient Care Partnership


  • 6. 
    Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Encouraging healthy lifestyles

    • B. 

      Detecting risk factors early

    • C. 

      Limiting patient enrollment

    • D. 

      Offering patient education


  • 7. 
    This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.
    • A. 

      APC

    • B. 

      DRGs

    • C. 

      ICD-9

    • D. 

      PPS


  • 8. 
    Which Director, Chief Officer, or Vice President would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans?
    • A. 

      Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • B. 

      VP Clinical & Support services

    • C. 

      VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • D. 

      VP & Chief Medical Officer


  • 9. 
    Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility?
    • A. 

      Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • B. 

      VP Clinical & Support Services

    • C. 

      VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • D. 

      VP & Chief Medical Officer


  • 10. 
    Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?
    • A. 

      Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • B. 

      VP Clinical & Support Services

    • C. 

      VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • D. 

      VP & Chief Medical Officer


  • 11. 
    Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services?
    • A. 

      Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • B. 

      VP Clinical & Support Services

    • C. 

      VP/ Chief Nursing Officer

    • D. 

      VP & Chief Medical Officer


  • 12. 
    Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?
    • A. 

      Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • B. 

      VP Clinical & Support Services

    • C. 

      VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • D. 

      VP & Chief Medical Officer


  • 13. 
    Which phlebotomist’s duty involves TB and Cocci testing?
    • A. 

      Collect routine venous specimens

    • B. 

      Perform electrocardiography

    • C. 

      Perform point-of-care testing

    • D. 

      Prepare specimens for transport


  • 14. 
    Which phlebotomist’s duty does not involve telephone etiquette?
    • A. 

      Comply with instituted procedures

    • B. 

      Maintain patient confidentiality

    • C. 

      Perform quality control checks

    • D. 

      Promote good public relations


  • 15. 
    Which of the following is an agency that certifies phlebotomists?
    • A. 

      ASCP

    • B. 

      CLIAC

    • C. 

      CLSI

    • D. 

      NAACLS


  • 16. 
    The primary duty of a phlebotomist is to:
    • A. 

      Accession all specimens

    • B. 

      Collect blood specimens

    • C. 

      Document the workload

    • D. 

      Perform skin tests


  • 17. 
    Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory

    • B. 

      Good public relations promotes harmonious relationships

    • C. 

      Patients equate experiences with overall caliber of care received.

    • D. 

      Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity.


  • 18. 
    Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
    • A. 

      Do first things first

    • B. 

      First do no harm

    • C. 

      Quality is foremost

    • D. 

      Ready to serve


  • 19. 
    Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?
    • A. 

      Assertiveness

    • B. 

      Noncommunicative behavior

    • C. 

      Dependability

    • D. 

      Indifference toward others


  • 20. 
    Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
    • A. 

      Diabetes

    • B. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • C. 

      Phlebitis

    • D. 

      Polycythemia


  • 21. 
    All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Eliminate annual evaluations

    • B. 

      Learn new skills and techniques

    • C. 

      Renew licensure or certification

    • D. 

      Stay current in the latest procedures.


  • 22. 
    The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to:
    • A. 

      Cut a vein

    • B. 

      Draw blood

    • C. 

      Stick a vein

    • D. 

      Withdraw blood


  • 23. 
    One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:
    • A. 

      Assist with inserting IV cannulas

    • B. 

      Help nurses with direct patient care

    • C. 

      Inform patients of their test results

    • D. 

      Perform lab computer operations


  • 24. 
    What are the credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist?
    • A. 

      CLPlb

    • B. 

      CPT

    • C. 

      PBT

    • D. 

      RPT


  • 25. 
    Which of the following ancient blood-letting instruments has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device?
    • A. 

      Bleeding bowl

    • B. 

      Cup

    • C. 

      Fleam

    • D. 

      Syringe


  • 26. 
    Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called:
    • A. 

      Accreditation verification

    • B. 

      Continuing education units

    • C. 

      Essentials confirmation

    • D. 

      None of the above


  • 27. 
    While staying in a healthcare facility, one patient expectation as listed in the Patient care Partnership brochure is the right to:
    • A. 

      1:1 patient-to-nurse ratio

    • B. 

      A quiet, private room

    • C. 

      Help with billing claims

    • D. 

      Information on roommates.


  • 28. 
    Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of:
    • A. 

      1-18 inches

    • B. 

      1 ½-4 feet

    • C. 

      4-12 feet

    • D. 

      Over 12 feet


  • 29. 
    All of the following are examples of barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Does not speak English

    • B. 

      Is a very young child

    • C. 

      Is emotionally upset

    • D. 

      Is a mature male HCW.


  • 30. 
    Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient?
    • A. 

      “I am on a tight schedule right now.”

    • B. 

      “I do not know what you mean.”

    • C. 

      “I have no idea how long it will take.”

    • D. 

      “I understand how you must be feeling.”


  • 31. 
    Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:
    • A. 

      Eye contact

    • B. 

      Frowning

    • C. 

      Good grooming

    • D. 

      Smiling


  • 32. 
    All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Act knowledgeably

    • B. 

      Convey sincerity

    • C. 

      Dismiss patient fears

    • D. 

      Look professional


  • 33. 
    Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?
    • A. 

      Answer the phone promptly

    • B. 

      Clarify and record information

    • C. 

      Hang up on hostile individuals

    • D. 

      Restate information received


  • 34. 
    Proxemics is the study of an individual’s:
    • A. 

      Body language

    • B. 

      Concept of space

    • C. 

      Facial expressions

    • D. 

      Verbal communication


  • 35. 
    Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Accepting the patient as a unique individual who has special needs.

    • B. 

      Allowing patients to feel a sense of control by expressing their wishes

    • C. 

      Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt”

    • D. 

      Listening thoughtfully and patiently while patients vent their emotions


  • 36. 
    The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:
    • A. 

      Help the patient to feel in control of the situation

    • B. 

      Leave the room without collecting the specimen

    • C. 

      Speak firmly to maintain charge of the situation

    • D. 

      Threaten to report the patient to his or her doctor


  • 37. 
    Which of the following is an example of proxemics?
    • A. 

      Eye contact

    • B. 

      Facial expression

    • C. 

      Personal contact

    • D. 

      Personal hygiene


  • 38. 
    Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?
    • A. 

      Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw

    • B. 

      Informing patients that you are going to collect a blood sample

    • C. 

      Insisting that patients cooperate and let you draw needed samples

    • D. 

      Telling patients they are not to eat or drink anything during a test


  • 39. 
    Another term for outpatient care is:
    • A. 

      Ambulatory care

    • B. 

      Nonambulatory care

    • C. 

      Nursing home care

    • D. 

      Rehabilitation care


  • 40. 
    Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis


  • 41. 
    Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen therapy?
    • A. 

      Cardiodiagnostics

    • B. 

      Electroencephalography

    • C. 

      Physical therapy

    • D. 

      Respiratory therapy


  • 42. 
    Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology?
    • A. 

      Compatibility testing

    • B. 

      Enzyme immunoassay

    • C. 

      Frozen section

    • D. 

      Triglycerides


  • 43. 
    The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the:
    • A. 

      Joints

    • B. 

      Kidneys

    • C. 

      Lungs

    • D. 

      Nose


  • 44. 
    The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for:
    • A. 

      Bone and joint disorders

    • B. 

      Ear, nose, and throat disorders

    • C. 

      Eye problems or diseases

    • D. 

      Skin problems and diseases.


  • 45. 
    Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation department?
    • A. 

      BUN

    • B. 

      CBC

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      PT


  • 46. 
    Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?
    • A. 

      Geriatrics

    • B. 

      Oncology

    • C. 

      Ophthalmology

    • D. 

      Orthopedics


  • 47. 
    Another name for blood bank is:
    • A. 

      Immunohematology

    • B. 

      Immunology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Serology


  • 48. 
    All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Glycosylated hemoglobin

    • B. 

      Hematocrit

    • C. 

      Platelet count

    • D. 

      Reticulocyte count


  • 49. 
    With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?
    • A. 

      Nuclear medicine

    • B. 

      Pharmacy

    • C. 

      Physical therapy

    • D. 

      Radiology


  • 50. 
    Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Histology

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 51. 
    Which department performs blood cultures:
    • A. 

      Hematology

    • B. 

      Microbiology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis


  • 52. 
    Electrolyte testing includes:
    • A. 

      Bilirubin and creatinine

    • B. 

      BUN and cholesterol

    • C. 

      Glucose and uric acid

    • D. 

      Sodium and potassium


  • 53. 
    A Pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this department.
    • A. 

      Cytology

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Histology

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 54. 
    The prepaid group healthcare organizations in which members pay flat fees for defined services are called:
    • A. 

      DRGs

    • B. 

      HMOs

    • C. 

      ICDs

    • D. 

      SNFs


  • 55. 
    Which department processes and stains tissue samples for microscopic analysis?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Coagulation

    • C. 

      Histology

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 56. 
    All of the following personnel are required to have a college degree or equivalent EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Clinical laboratory scientist

    • B. 

      Medical technician

    • C. 

      Medical technologist

    • D. 

      Phlebotomist


  • 57. 
    All medical laboratories are regulated by:
    • A. 

      AMT

    • B. 

      CLIA’88

    • C. 

      HIPAA

    • D. 

      PHS


  • 58. 
    A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which department?
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Coagulation

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis


  • 59. 
    Which department performs C&S tests?
    • A. 

      Blood bank

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Immunology

    • D. 

      Microbiology


  • 60. 
    Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department.
    • A. 

      Blood bank

    • B. 

      Chemistry

    • C. 

      Coagulation

    • D. 

      Hematology


  • 61. 
    This department examines specimens microscopically for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood cells.
    • A. 

      Chemistry

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Microbiology

    • D. 

      Urinalysis


  • 62. 
    Reference laboratories are viable because they offer all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      A fast turnaround time

    • B. 

      More accurate results

    • C. 

      Reduced test costs

    • D. 

      Specialized analysis


  • 63. 
    A Very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient’s death. If the phlebotomist’s action results in injury, this wrongful act is called:
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Fraud

    • D. 

      Negligence


  • 64. 
    A laboratory technician asked a phlebotomist to recollect a specimen on a patient. When the phlebotomist asked what was wrong with the specimen, the technician replied, “The specimen was OK, but the results were inconsistent.” How would the laboratory technician have decided that the results were questionable? The results did not:
    • A. 

      Compare with previous results after a delta check

    • B. 

      Match results of patients with the same diagnosis

    • C. 

      Measure up to the results on the control specimens

    • D. 

      Relate well to other patients tested at the same time


  • 65. 
    Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are:
    • A. 

      Civil action

    • B. 

      Criminal action

    • C. 

      Malpractice

    • D. 

      Vicarious liability


  • 66. 
    The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances is the definition of:
    • A. 

      Due care

    • B. 

      Quality care

    • C. 

      Quality essentials

    • D. 

      Standard of care


  • 67. 
    An internal process focused on identifying and minimizing situations that pose danger to patients and employees is:
    • A. 

      Facilitywide risk management

    • B. 

      Performance improvement plan

    • C. 

      Sentinel (early warning) events

    • D. 

      The delta check procedure


  • 68. 
    CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to:
    • A. 

      Complexity of testing

    • B. 

      Personnel qualifications

    • C. 

      Quality control standards

    • D. 

      Size of the laboratory


  • 69. 
    Guides used to monitor all aspects of patient care are called:
    • A. 

      QA indicators

    • B. 

      QI core measurements

    • C. 

      Quality System Essentials

    • D. 

      Thresholds values


  • 70. 
    The abbreviation for a national agency that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is:
    • A. 

      ASCP

    • B. 

      CLSI

    • C. 

      NAACLS

    • D. 

      NCA


  • 71. 
    Which of the following is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures?
    • A. 

      Patient identification

    • B. 

      Patient IV adjustment

    • C. 

      Phlebotomy technique

    • D. 

      Specimen labeling


  • 72. 
    All of the following are steps in the risk management process EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Breach of confidentiality

    • B. 

      Education of employees

    • C. 

      Identification of risk

    • D. 

      Treatment of risk


  • 73. 
    Which of the following would not violate a patient’s right to confidentiality?
    • A. 

      Indicating the nature of a patient’s disease on the door

    • B. 

      Keeping a list of HIV-positive patients posted in the laboratory

    • C. 

      Posting a patient’s lab results on a board in his or her room

    • D. 

      Sharing information on a “difficult draw” with a coworker


  • 74. 
    Malpractice is a claim of:
    • A. 

      Breach of confidentiality

    • B. 

      Improper treatment

    • C. 

      Invasion of privacy

    • D. 

      Res ipsa loquitur


  • 75. 
    All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the phlebotomist:
    • A. 

      Does not return a bedrail to the upright position

    • B. 

      Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition

    • C. 

      Forgets to put a needle in the sharps container

    • D. 

      Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient


  • 76. 
    Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:
    • A. 

      Assault and battery

    • B. 

      Breach of confidentiality

    • C. 

      Malpractice

    • D. 

      Negligence


  • 77. 
    A patient agrees to undergo treatment after the method, risks, and consequences are explained to him. This is an example of:
    • A. 

      Implied consent

    • B. 

      Informed consent

    • C. 

      Respondent superior

    • D. 

      Standard of care


  • 78. 
    A phlebotomist explains to an inpatient that he has come to collect a blood specimen. The patient extends his arm and pushes up his sleeve. This is an example of:
    • A. 

      Expressed consent

    • B. 

      Implied consent

    • C. 

      Informed consent

    • D. 

      Refusal of consent


  • 79. 
    An example of a QA indicator is:
    • A. 

      All phlebotomists will follow standard precautions guidelines

    • B. 

      Laboratory personnel will not wear lab coats when on break

    • C. 

      No eating, drinking, or smoking is allowed in lab work areas.

    • D. 

      The contamination rate for BCs will not exceed the national rate.


  • 80. 
    What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?
    • A. 

      OSHA safety manual

    • B. 

      Policy guidelines

    • C. 

      Procedure manual

    • D. 

      Quality control manual


  • 81. 
    The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as the:
    • A. 

      Chain of infection

    • B. 

      Immune response

    • C. 

      Infection cycle

    • D. 

      Pathogenic series


  • 82. 
    The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious:
    • A. 

      Agent

    • B. 

      Host

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Vehicle


  • 83. 
    Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with others if they:
    • A. 

      Are a carrier of a bloodborne pathogen

    • B. 

      Have highly transmissible infections

    • C. 

      Require blood or body fluid precautions

    • D. 

      Were exposed to a contagious disease


  • 84. 
    All of the following can leave a patient more susceptible to infection EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Antibiotic treatment

    • B. 

      Chemotherapy drugs

    • C. 

      Previous vaccination

    • D. 

      Surgical procedures


  • 85. 
    An individual who has little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a susceptible:
    • A. 

      Agent

    • B. 

      Host

    • C. 

      Pathway

    • D. 

      Reservoir


  • 86. 
    MSDS information includes:
    • A. 

      General and emergency information

    • B. 

      Highly technical chemical formulas

    • C. 

      Information on competitor products

    • D. 

      Product manufacturing conditions


  • 87. 
    This type of precaution is required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia:
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Contact

    • C. 

      Droplet

    • D. 

      Standard


  • 88. 
    When the chain of infection is broken, an:
    • A. 

      Individual is immune to that microbe

    • B. 

      Individual is susceptible to infection

    • C. 

      Infection is prevented from happening

    • D. 

      Infection will most likely be the result


  • 89. 
    Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis:
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Droplet

    • C. 

      Contact

    • D. 

      Reverse


  • 90. 
    All pathogens are:
    • A. 

      Communicable microorganisms

    • B. 

      Microbes that can cause disease

    • C. 

      Microorganisms that live in soil

    • D. 

      Normal flora found on the skin


  • 91. 
    An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is:
    • A. 

      Pertussis

    • B. 

      Rubeola

    • C. 

      Scabies

    • D. 

      Scabies


  • 92. 
    Standard precautions should be followed:
    • A. 

      For anyone with hepatitis B

    • B. 

      If a patient is HIV positive

    • C. 

      While a patient is in isolation

    • D. 

      With all patients, at all times


  • 93. 
    Objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material are called:
    • A. 

      Fomites

    • B. 

      Hosts

    • C. 

      Pathogens

    • D. 

      Vectors


  • 94. 
    All of the following can help break the chain of infection EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Implementing isolation procedures

    • B. 

      Opening exit pathways for pathogens

    • C. 

      Practicing stress reduction techniques

    • D. 

      Washing hands and wearing gloves


  • 95. 
    This equipment is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation:
    • A. 

      Eye protection

    • B. 

      Full face shield

    • C. 

      Mask and goggles

    • D. 

      N95 respirator


  • 96. 
    The best course of action when entering an isolation room is:
    • A. 

      Ask the patient’s nurse what to do

    • B. 

      Do whatever you did the last time

    • C. 

      Follow the posted precautions

    • D. 

      Put on gloves and a respirator


  • 97. 
    What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient?
    • A. 

      Check the patient’s medical records for HIV test results

    • B. 

      Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds

    • C. 

      Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster

    • D. 

      Leave the area so the patient does not notice the injury


  • 98. 
    All of the following are links (components) in the chain of infection EXCEPT:  
    • A. 

      Exit pathway

    • B. 

      Reservoir

    • C. 

      Surveillance

    • D. 

      Susceptible host


  • 99. 
    A nosocomial infection is one that is:
    • A. 

      Caught by a healthcare worker

    • B. 

      Communicable in nature

    • C. 

      Healthcare facility acquired

    • D. 

      Present without symptoms


  • 100. 
    This mode of transmission involves contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood transfusions:
    • A. 

      Airborne

    • B. 

      Contact

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Vehicle


  • 101. 
    What term is used to describe a type of infection that can be spread from person to person?
    • A. 

      Communicable

    • B. 

      Nonpathogenic

    • C. 

      Nosocomial

    • D. 

      Systemic


  • 102. 
    Which mode of infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual by means of a cough or sneeze?
    • A. 

      Contact

    • B. 

      Droplet

    • C. 

      Fomite

    • D. 

      Vehicle


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