Phlebotomy Essentials, 4th Edition Study Guide For Chapters 1, 2 ,3
Study quiz for chapters 1-3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
All of the following infectious disease services are offered through regional Public Health Services agencies EXCEPT:
- A.
Education
- B.
Monitoring
- C.
Screening
- D.
Treatment
Correct Answer
D. TreatmentExplanation
Regional Public Health Services agencies offer a range of infectious disease services, including education, monitoring, and screening. However, they do not typically provide treatment for infectious diseases. Treatment is usually provided by healthcare providers such as hospitals, clinics, and private physicians. Therefore, the correct answer is treatment.Rate this question:
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- 2.
This is an abbreviation for an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.
- A.
CPT
- B.
DRG
- C.
PHS
- D.
PPO
Correct Answer
D. PPOExplanation
A PPO is a preferred provider organization, which is an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing is called:
- A.
CPT
- B.
DRG's
- C.
PPO
- D.
PPS
Correct Answer
A. CPTExplanation
The correct answer is CPT. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, which is a coding system used by physicians and other healthcare professionals to accurately report medical procedures and services. It is maintained and updated by the American Medical Association (AMA) and is widely used for physician billing and reimbursement purposes. CPT codes provide a standardized way to communicate medical procedures and services, ensuring consistency and accuracy in the billing process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
This is an abbreviation for large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services.
- A.
APC
- B.
MCO
- C.
PHS
- D.
PPS
Correct Answer
B. MCOExplanation
MCO stands for Managed Care Organization. Managed Care Organizations are large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services. These organizations work to manage and coordinate healthcare services for their members, often through the use of health insurance plans. By contracting with local providers, MCOs are able to offer a wide range of services to their members, ensuring that they have access to the care they need.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility comes from:
- A.
Federal HIPAA regulations
- B.
Prepaid healthcare plans
- C.
Protected Health Information
- D.
The Patient Care Partnership
Correct Answer
D. The Patient Care PartnershipExplanation
The Patient Care Partnership is a nationally endorsed principle that focuses on ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility. This principle emphasizes the importance of clear communication, informed decision-making, and respect for the patient's autonomy. It aims to promote a positive and collaborative relationship between healthcare providers and patients, fostering a patient-centered approach to care. The other options listed, such as Federal HIPAA regulations, prepaid healthcare plans, and protected health information, do not specifically address the rights and responsibilities of patients and their families in a healthcare facility.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways EXCEPT:
- A.
Encouraging healthy lifestyles
- B.
Detecting risk factors early
- C.
Limiting patient enrollment
- D.
Offering patient education
Correct Answer
C. Limiting patient enrollmentExplanation
Managed Care Organizations control costs by encouraging healthy lifestyles, detecting risk factors early, and offering patient education. However, limiting patient enrollment is not a method used to control costs. This is because limiting patient enrollment would not directly impact the cost of healthcare services provided to enrolled patients. The other methods mentioned, on the other hand, focus on prevention, early intervention, and patient empowerment, which can help reduce the need for expensive treatments and hospitalizations, thus controlling costs.Rate this question:
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- 7.
This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.
- A.
APC
- B.
DRGs
- C.
ICD-9
- D.
PPS
Correct Answer
A. APCExplanation
APC stands for Ambulatory Payment Classification. It is a classification system that was implemented in 2000 to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services. This system groups similar services together based on clinical and resource utilization criteria, allowing hospitals to be reimbursed based on the complexity and cost of the services provided.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or Vice President would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
B. VP Clinical & Support servicesExplanation
The VP Clinical & Support services would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans. This role oversees the clinical and support services within an organization, which would include managing and coordinating ancillary testing. The Sr. Director Performance Excellence focuses on improving overall performance and efficiency, not specifically on ancillary testing. The VP/Chief Nursing Officer is responsible for nursing-related matters, while the VP & Chief Medical Officer focuses on medical and clinical matters. Therefore, the VP Clinical & Support services is the most appropriate choice for this administrative responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support Services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
A. Sr. Director Performance ExcellenceExplanation
The Sr. Director Performance Excellence has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility. This role is typically responsible for monitoring and improving the overall performance and quality of the healthcare facility, which includes infection control measures. They work closely with various departments and staff to implement and enforce infection control protocols, ensure compliance with regulations, and identify areas for improvement to prevent hospital-induced infections.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support Services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
D. VP & Chief Medical OfficerExplanation
The VP & Chief Medical Officer is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital. This role typically oversees the medical staff and ensures that they are providing high-quality care to patients. They may be involved in hiring and credentialing physicians, implementing policies and procedures, and monitoring the performance of the medical staff. The VP & Chief Medical Officer also works closely with other hospital leaders to ensure that the physicians are aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support Services
- C.
VP/ Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
C. VP/ Chief Nursing OfficerExplanation
The VP/ Chief Nursing Officer is responsible for the administrative oversight of outpatient medical services. This role typically involves managing the nursing staff, ensuring quality patient care, and coordinating with other healthcare professionals to deliver efficient and effective outpatient services. While the other options may have important roles within the organization, they do not specifically have administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?
- A.
Sr. Director Performance Excellence
- B.
VP Clinical & Support Services
- C.
VP/Chief Nursing Officer
- D.
VP & Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer
A. Sr. Director Performance ExcellenceExplanation
The Sr. Director Performance Excellence is responsible for quality performance and patient satisfaction. This role focuses on ensuring high standards of quality in healthcare services and improving patient experiences. They oversee various quality improvement initiatives and work closely with other leaders in the organization to drive performance excellence.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which phlebotomist’s duty involves TB and Cocci testing?
- A.
Collect routine venous specimens
- B.
Perform electrocardiography
- C.
Perform point-of-care testing
- D.
Prepare specimens for transport
Correct Answer
C. Perform point-of-care testingExplanation
The phlebotomist's duty that involves TB and Cocci testing is performing point-of-care testing. Point-of-care testing refers to diagnostic testing that is performed at or near the patient, allowing for immediate results. This type of testing is often used for infectious diseases like TB and Cocci, as it allows for quick and accurate diagnosis. The other options listed, such as collecting routine venous specimens, performing electrocardiography, and preparing specimens for transport, do not specifically involve TB and Cocci testing.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which phlebotomist’s duty does not involve telephone etiquette?
- A.
Comply with instituted procedures
- B.
Maintain patient confidentiality
- C.
Perform quality control checks
- D.
Promote good public relations
Correct Answer
C. Perform quality control checksExplanation
Performing quality control checks does not involve telephone etiquette because it is a task that focuses on ensuring the accuracy and reliability of laboratory equipment and test results. Telephone etiquette is more relevant to tasks that involve communication with patients or other healthcare professionals over the phone, such as maintaining patient confidentiality, complying with instituted procedures, and promoting good public relations.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is an agency that certifies phlebotomists?
- A.
ASCP
- B.
CLIAC
- C.
CLSI
- D.
NAACLS
Correct Answer
A. ASCPExplanation
ASCP, or the American Society for Clinical Pathology, is an agency that certifies phlebotomists. They offer certification exams for phlebotomy technicians, ensuring that they meet the necessary standards and have the required knowledge and skills to perform phlebotomy procedures safely and accurately. By obtaining ASCP certification, phlebotomists can demonstrate their competence and professionalism in the field.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
- A.
A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory
- B.
Good public relations promotes harmonious relationships
- C.
Patients equate experiences with overall caliber of care received.
- D.
Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity.
Correct Answer
D. Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity.Explanation
Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity. This statement contradicts the idea that promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role. Instead, it suggests that good public relations can be used as a means to hide or mask a phlebotomist's lack of experience or insecurity. However, promoting good public relations is important for a phlebotomist because they represent the laboratory and their interactions with patients can influence their perception of the overall quality of care. Additionally, good public relations can help foster harmonious relationships and create a positive environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
- A.
Do first things first
- B.
First do no harm
- C.
Quality is foremost
- D.
Ready to serve
Correct Answer
B. First do no harmExplanation
The correct answer is "First do no harm". This phrase, known as Primum non nocere, is derived from the Hippocratic Oath, which is taken by medical professionals. It emphasizes the importance of prioritizing the well-being of the patient and ensuring that no harm is done in the process of providing medical care. This principle highlights the ethical responsibility of healthcare providers to prioritize the safety and welfare of their patients above all else.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?
- A.
Assertiveness
- B.
Noncommunicative behavior
- C.
Dependability
- D.
Indifference toward others
Correct Answer
C. DependabilityExplanation
Dependability is an example of good work ethics because it refers to the quality of being reliable and trustworthy in fulfilling one's responsibilities and commitments. A dependable individual is someone who can be relied upon to consistently deliver high-quality work, meet deadlines, and follow through on their promises. This trait is highly valued in the workplace as it fosters trust, teamwork, and productivity.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Phlebitis
- D.
Polycythemia
Correct Answer
D. PolycythemiaExplanation
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for polycythemia. Polycythemia is a condition where there is an excessive production of red blood cells in the body, leading to thickening of the blood. Phlebotomy involves the removal of blood from the body, which helps in reducing the number of red blood cells and improving blood flow. This procedure is often used to manage the symptoms and complications associated with polycythemia.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT:
- A.
Eliminate annual evaluations
- B.
Learn new skills and techniques
- C.
Renew licensure or certification
- D.
Stay current in the latest procedures.
Correct Answer
A. Eliminate annual evaluationsExplanation
The correct answer is "Eliminate annual evaluations." Phlebotomists participate in continuing education programs to learn new skills and techniques, renew their licensure or certification, and stay current in the latest procedures. However, participating in continuing education programs does not eliminate the need for annual evaluations, as evaluations are important for assessing job performance and identifying areas for improvement.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to:
- A.
Cut a vein
- B.
Draw blood
- C.
Stick a vein
- D.
Withdraw blood
Correct Answer
A. Cut a veinExplanation
The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that mean "to cut a vein." This refers to the historical practice of using a sharp instrument to puncture a vein in order to withdraw blood.Rate this question:
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- 22.
One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:
- A.
Assist with inserting IV cannulas
- B.
Help nurses with direct patient care
- C.
Inform patients of their test results
- D.
Perform lab computer operations
Correct Answer
D. Perform lab computer operationsExplanation
A phlebotomist's duty includes performing lab computer operations. This involves using computer systems to enter and access patient information, test results, and other relevant data. By performing lab computer operations, phlebotomists ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care. This task is crucial in maintaining the efficiency and accuracy of laboratory operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What are the credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist?
- A.
CLPlb
- B.
CPT
- C.
PBT
- D.
RPT
Correct Answer
A. CLPlbExplanation
The credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist include CLPlb.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following ancient blood-letting instruments has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device?
- A.
Bleeding bowl
- B.
Cup
- C.
Fleam
- D.
Syringe
Correct Answer
C. FleamExplanation
A fleam is an ancient blood-letting instrument that has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device. A fleam is a small, sharp instrument with multiple blades used for making incisions to release blood. In modern medicine, a lancet or a small scalpel is used for the same purpose. Both the fleam and modern bleeding devices are designed to puncture the skin and allow controlled bleeding for therapeutic purposes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called:
- A.
Accreditation verification
- B.
Continuing education units
- C.
Essentials confirmation
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Continuing education unitsExplanation
Continuing education units refer to the proof of participation in a workshop or training program that is required by certain agencies to renew certification. This term is commonly used in professional fields to indicate that an individual has completed the necessary education and training to maintain their certification status. It is a way for professionals to demonstrate their commitment to ongoing learning and skill development in their field. The other options, accreditation verification and essentials confirmation, do not accurately describe the concept of providing proof of participation in a workshop for certification renewal.Rate this question:
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- 26.
While staying in a healthcare facility, one patient expectation as listed in the Patient care Partnership brochure is the right to:
- A.
1:1 patient-to-nurse ratio
- B.
A quiet, private room
- C.
Help with billing claims
- D.
Information on roommates.
Correct Answer
C. Help with billing claimsExplanation
The correct answer is "Help with billing claims." This expectation listed in the Patient Care Partnership brochure indicates that patients have the right to receive assistance and guidance in dealing with their billing claims. This ensures that patients are not overwhelmed or burdened with the complexities of the billing process and can focus on their recovery and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of:
- A.
1-18 inches
- B.
1 ½-4 feet
- C.
4-12 feet
- D.
Over 12 feet
Correct Answer
B. 1 ½-4 feetExplanation
The personal "zone of comfort" refers to the distance at which individuals feel most comfortable and secure in their personal space. This distance can vary depending on cultural norms and personal preferences. The range of 1 ½-4 feet suggests that most people feel comfortable when others are within this distance, neither too close nor too far away. This allows for personal interaction and conversation without invading one's personal space.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All of the following are examples of barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:
- A.
Does not speak English
- B.
Is a very young child
- C.
Is emotionally upset
- D.
Is a mature male HCW.
Correct Answer
D. Is a mature male HCW.Explanation
The given answer, "Is a mature male HCW," is not an example of a barrier to effective communication. The other options, such as "Does not speak English," "Is a very young child," and "Is emotionally upset," all represent potential barriers to effective communication. However, being a mature male healthcare worker (HCW) does not inherently pose a barrier to effective communication. This answer choice is unrelated to the ability to communicate effectively and does not present any communication obstacles.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient?
- A.
“I am on a tight schedule right now.”
- B.
“I do not know what you mean.”
- C.
“I have no idea how long it will take.”
- D.
“I understand how you must be feeling.”
Correct Answer
D. “I understand how you must be feeling.”Explanation
The correct answer is "I understand how you must be feeling." This response shows empathy and validates the patient's emotions, indicating that the healthcare provider acknowledges and comprehends the patient's feelings. It demonstrates a confirming response by affirming the patient's emotional state and shows support and understanding.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:
- A.
Eye contact
- B.
Frowning
- C.
Good grooming
- D.
Smiling
Correct Answer
B. FrowningExplanation
Frowning is an example of negative kinesics because it is a facial expression that typically indicates displeasure, concern, or disapproval. It is a nonverbal cue that can convey negative emotions or a negative attitude towards someone or something. Unlike eye contact, good grooming, and smiling, which are generally considered positive or neutral nonverbal behaviors, frowning is associated with negative body language.Rate this question:
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- 31.
All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:
- A.
Act knowledgeably
- B.
Convey sincerity
- C.
Dismiss patient fears
- D.
Look professional
Correct Answer
C. Dismiss patient fearsExplanation
Dismiss patient fears is not a good way to earn a patient's trust because it disregards their concerns and fails to address their emotional needs. Building trust with a patient requires acknowledging and understanding their fears, providing reassurance, and offering support. Dismissing their fears can lead to a breakdown in communication and a lack of confidence in the healthcare provider's ability to provide appropriate care.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?
- A.
Answer the phone promptly
- B.
Clarify and record information
- C.
Hang up on hostile individuals
- D.
Restate information received
Correct Answer
C. Hang up on hostile individualsExplanation
The given answer, "Hang up on hostile individuals," represents improper telephone protocol because it is rude and unprofessional to abruptly end a call with someone who may be hostile. In any communication, it is important to remain calm and try to resolve conflicts or misunderstandings peacefully. Hanging up on someone without attempting to address their concerns or finding a solution goes against the principles of effective communication and customer service.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Proxemics is the study of an individual’s:
- A.
Body language
- B.
Concept of space
- C.
Facial expressions
- D.
Verbal communication
Correct Answer
B. Concept of spaceExplanation
Proxemics is the study of an individual's concept of space. It examines how people use and perceive space in different social and cultural contexts. This includes the physical distance they maintain from others, their use of personal space, and their reactions to invasion of that space. Proxemics helps us understand how people communicate nonverbally through their spatial behavior and how cultural norms influence our spatial interactions with others.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Accepting the patient as a unique individual who has special needs.
- B.
Allowing patients to feel a sense of control by expressing their wishes
- C.
Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt”
- D.
Listening thoughtfully and patiently while patients vent their emotions
Correct Answer
C. Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt”Explanation
Good communication in healthcare involves accepting the patient as a unique individual, allowing them to express their wishes and feel a sense of control, and listening thoughtfully and patiently to their emotions. However, disguising the truth to the patient with statements like "this won't hurt" is not a part of good communication. It is important to be honest and transparent with patients, even if the truth may be difficult or uncomfortable to hear. This helps to build trust and maintain a strong patient-provider relationship.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:
- A.
Help the patient to feel in control of the situation
- B.
Leave the room without collecting the specimen
- C.
Speak firmly to maintain charge of the situation
- D.
Threaten to report the patient to his or her doctor
Correct Answer
A. Help the patient to feel in control of the situationExplanation
The best way to handle a "difficult" or "bad" patient is to help the patient feel in control of the situation. By empowering the patient and involving them in decision-making, it can help alleviate their anxiety and frustration. This approach promotes a sense of autonomy and respect for the patient's autonomy, which can lead to better communication and cooperation between the healthcare provider and the patient. It is important to create a supportive and collaborative environment to ensure the best possible care for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following is an example of proxemics?
- A.
Eye contact
- B.
Facial expression
- C.
Personal contact
- D.
Personal hygiene
Correct Answer
C. Personal contactExplanation
Proxemics refers to the study of how individuals use and perceive space in social interactions. Personal contact, which involves physical touch or close proximity between individuals, is an example of proxemics. It is a form of nonverbal communication that can convey intimacy, power dynamics, and social norms. Eye contact, facial expression, and personal hygiene, on the other hand, are examples of nonverbal communication but do not specifically relate to the use of space in social interactions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?
- A.
Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw
- B.
Informing patients that you are going to collect a blood sample
- C.
Insisting that patients cooperate and let you draw needed samples
- D.
Telling patients they are not to eat or drink anything during a test
Correct Answer
A. Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood drawExplanation
Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw allows patients to feel in control because it respects their autonomy and decision-making power. By acknowledging their right to refuse, it empowers patients to make choices about their own body and healthcare. This approach fosters a collaborative and respectful relationship between healthcare providers and patients, promoting patient-centered care.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Another term for outpatient care is:
- A.
Ambulatory care
- B.
Nonambulatory care
- C.
Nursing home care
- D.
Rehabilitation care
Correct Answer
A. Ambulatory careExplanation
Outpatient care refers to medical services that are provided to patients who do not require an overnight stay in a hospital or healthcare facility. It includes diagnostic tests, consultations, treatments, and minor surgeries that can be performed in a clinic or doctor's office. Ambulatory care is another term used to describe this type of care, emphasizing the ability of patients to walk in and out of the facility without being admitted. Nonambulatory care refers to care provided to patients who are unable to walk or move independently. Nursing home care and rehabilitation care are not synonymous with outpatient care as they involve long-term care and specialized services respectively.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?
- A.
Chemistry
- B.
Hematology
- C.
Microbiology
- D.
Urinalysis
Correct Answer
B. HematologyExplanation
Hematology is the correct answer because this laboratory department specializes in studying and testing blood and blood-forming tissues. They analyze blood samples to identify abnormalities such as infections, anemia, leukemia, and other blood disorders. Hematology tests include complete blood count (CBC), blood clotting tests, and examination of blood cells under a microscope.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen therapy?
- A.
Cardiodiagnostics
- B.
Electroencephalography
- C.
Physical therapy
- D.
Respiratory therapy
Correct Answer
D. Respiratory therapyExplanation
Respiratory therapy is responsible for administering a patient's oxygen therapy. This department specializes in treating patients with respiratory conditions and providing them with the necessary support and treatment to improve their breathing. Oxygen therapy is a common treatment method used in respiratory therapy to deliver oxygen to patients who have difficulty breathing or have low oxygen levels. They are trained in various techniques and equipment to ensure the safe and effective administration of oxygen therapy to patients in need.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology?
- A.
Compatibility testing
- B.
Enzyme immunoassay
- C.
Frozen section
- D.
Triglycerides
Correct Answer
C. Frozen sectionExplanation
A frozen section is a test performed in surgical pathology. It involves freezing and cutting a tissue sample during surgery, then immediately examining it under a microscope to provide a rapid diagnosis. This test is commonly used to determine the presence of cancer or other abnormal tissues, and helps guide the surgeon during the procedure. Compatibility testing, enzyme immunoassay, and triglycerides are not typically performed in surgical pathology.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the:
- A.
Joints
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Lungs
- D.
Nose
Correct Answer
B. KidneysExplanation
The correct answer is "Kidneys" because the nephrology department specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of kidney disorders. Therefore, if a patient is being treated in this department, it is highly likely that they have a disorder related to their kidneys.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for:
- A.
Bone and joint disorders
- B.
Ear, nose, and throat disorders
- C.
Eye problems or diseases
- D.
Skin problems and diseases.
Correct Answer
B. Ear, nose, and throat disordersExplanation
The correct answer is "Ear, nose, and throat disorders" because the otorhinolaryngology department specifically deals with disorders and conditions related to the ear, nose, and throat. This department is responsible for diagnosing and treating various issues such as hearing loss, sinus problems, tonsillitis, and vocal cord disorders. Therefore, the phlebotomist was asked to collect a specimen in this department to assist in the diagnosis or monitoring of a patient with an ear, nose, or throat disorder.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation department?
- A.
BUN
- B.
CBC
- C.
Glucose
- D.
PT
Correct Answer
D. PTExplanation
Prothrombin timeRate this question:
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- 45.
Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?
- A.
Geriatrics
- B.
Oncology
- C.
Ophthalmology
- D.
Orthopedics
Correct Answer
B. OncologyExplanation
Oncology is the correct answer because it is the medical specialty that specifically focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of tumors, including cancerous growths. Oncologists are trained to provide comprehensive care to patients with tumors, including conducting tests, performing surgeries, prescribing medications, and coordinating other treatments such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. They work closely with other healthcare professionals to develop personalized treatment plans and provide support throughout the entire cancer journey.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Another name for blood bank is:
- A.
Immunohematology
- B.
Immunology
- C.
Microbiology
- D.
Serology
Correct Answer
A. ImmunohematologyExplanation
Immunohematology is another name for the blood bank because it specifically focuses on the study and management of blood transfusion and blood banking. It involves the testing of blood compatibility between donors and recipients, as well as the collection, storage, and distribution of blood and blood products. This field combines principles of immunology and hematology to ensure the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT:
- A.
Glycosylated hemoglobin
- B.
Hematocrit
- C.
Platelet count
- D.
Reticulocyte count
Correct Answer
A. Glycosylated hemoglobinExplanation
Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, is a blood test used to measure the average blood sugar levels over a period of time. It is primarily used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. Hematocrit is a test that measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Platelet count is a test that measures the number of platelets in the blood, which is important for blood clotting. Reticulocyte count is a test that measures the number of young red blood cells in the blood, which indicates bone marrow function. Therefore, all of the given options are hematology tests except for glycosylated hemoglobin.Rate this question:
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- 48.
With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?
- A.
Nuclear medicine
- B.
Pharmacy
- C.
Physical therapy
- D.
Radiology
Correct Answer
B. PharmacyExplanation
The laboratory would coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring with the Pharmacy department. This is because the Pharmacy department is responsible for dispensing medications and ensuring proper medication management. Therapeutic drug monitoring involves measuring drug levels in the blood to optimize medication dosage and effectiveness. Therefore, the laboratory would work closely with the Pharmacy department to analyze drug levels and provide necessary information for medication adjustments.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?
- A.
Chemistry
- B.
Hematology
- C.
Histology
- D.
Microbiology
Correct Answer
A. ChemistryExplanation
Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in the Chemistry department. This is because BMPs involve the measurement of various chemical components in the blood, such as electrolytes, glucose, and kidney function markers. The Chemistry department specializes in analyzing and interpreting these chemical components in order to assess a patient's metabolic status and overall health. Hematology focuses on the study of blood cells, Histology deals with the examination of tissues, and Microbiology involves the study of microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which department performs blood cultures:
- A.
Hematology
- B.
Microbiology
- C.
Serology
- D.
Urinalysis
Correct Answer
B. MicrobiologyExplanation
Blood cultures are performed to identify and diagnose bloodstream infections caused by bacteria, fungi, or other microorganisms. Microbiology is the department responsible for studying and identifying microorganisms, making it the correct department to perform blood cultures. Hematology focuses on the study of blood cells, Serology deals with the study of antibodies and antigens in the blood, and Urinalysis focuses on the analysis of urine samples. Therefore, Microbiology is the most appropriate department for performing blood cultures.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 20, 2009Quiz Created by
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