Paramedic Quiz Chapter 18-19
Based off chaper 18-19 of Nancy Caroline's emergency medical care in the streets
- 1.
Failure of the body's compensatory mechanisms to preserve perfusion results in all of the following except
- A.
Hypotension
- B.
Low cardiac output
- C.
An increase in preload
- D.
Decreased coronary perfusion
Correct Answer
C. An increase in preloadExplanation
When the body's compensatory mechanisms fail to maintain perfusion, it can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure), low cardiac output (inadequate blood flow from the heart), and decreased coronary perfusion (reduced blood flow to the heart muscle). However, it does not result in an increase in preload. Preload refers to the amount of blood filling the heart before it contracts, and it is not affected by the failure of compensatory mechanisms.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Cardiogenic shock would most likely develop following
- A.
Localized myocardial ischemia
- B.
Any condition that causes increased preload
- C.
Decompensated congestive heart failure
- D.
Damage to more than 10% of the left ventricle
Correct Answer
C. Decompensated congestive heart failureExplanation
Cardiogenic shock is a condition characterized by inadequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the body's organs due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. Decompensated congestive heart failure refers to a worsening of the symptoms and signs of congestive heart failure, where the heart is unable to meet the body's demands. This can lead to cardiogenic shock as the heart's pumping function becomes severely compromised. In this scenario, the heart's inability to pump blood effectively is the most likely cause for the development of cardiogenic shock.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The most common cause of exogenous hypovolemic shock is
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
External bleeding
- C.
Diabetic ketoacidosis
- D.
Plasma loss from burns
Correct Answer
B. External bleedingExplanation
Exogenous hypovolemic shock refers to a condition where there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume from outside the body. Among the given options, external bleeding is the most common cause of this type of shock. External bleeding can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, injuries, or surgical complications. When there is excessive bleeding, it leads to a rapid decrease in blood volume, causing hypovolemic shock. This condition can be life-threatening if not promptly treated.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following clinical signs or symptoms would you not expect to see in a patient with significant dehydration
- A.
Postural syncope when standing up
- B.
A furrowed tongue or shrunken eyes
- C.
Tenting of the skin when it is pinched
- D.
A decreased pulse rate upon standing
Correct Answer
D. A decreased pulse rate upon standingExplanation
A decreased pulse rate upon standing would not be expected in a patient with significant dehydration. Dehydration leads to a decrease in blood volume, which in turn causes the heart to pump faster in order to compensate for the decreased volume. Therefore, a decreased pulse rate upon standing would be unexpected in a dehydrated patient.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Hypovolemia secondary to severe sepsis is the result of
- A.
Profound vomiting and diarrhea cause by bacterium
- B.
Increased microvascular permeability and capillary leakage
- C.
Widespread vasoconstriction and preferential blood shunting
- D.
Persistent fever that results in internal loss of body fluids
Correct Answer
B. Increased microvascular permeability and capillary leakageExplanation
The correct answer is increased microvascular permeability and capillary leakage. In severe sepsis, the body's response to infection causes inflammation and leads to increased permeability of blood vessels. This increased permeability allows fluid and proteins to leak out of the blood vessels and into the surrounding tissues, resulting in hypovolemia (low blood volume). This can lead to decreased blood flow to vital organs and contribute to the development of septic shock.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A characteristic sign of neurogenic shock is
- A.
An absence of sweating
- B.
A rapid, bounding pulse rate
- C.
Cool, clammy, and pale skin
- D.
Hemiplegia or hemiparalysis
Correct Answer
A. An absence of sweatingExplanation
Neurogenic shock is a condition caused by damage to the spinal cord, resulting in a disruption of the autonomic nervous system. One of the characteristic signs of neurogenic shock is an absence of sweating, also known as anhidrosis. This occurs because the damaged spinal cord affects the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating sweating. Therefore, individuals experiencing neurogenic shock may not be able to sweat, leading to an absence of sweating as a distinguishing feature of this condition.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Anaphylaxis occurs when a person
- A.
Experiences urticaria and rhinorrhea after exposure to an allergen
- B.
Reacts violently to a substance to which he or she has been sensitized
- C.
Experiences a mild allergic reaction after initial exposure to an allergen
- D.
Develops a heightened reaction to a substance deemed foreign by the body
Correct Answer
B. Reacts violently to a substance to which he or she has been sensitizedExplanation
The given correct answer explains that anaphylaxis occurs when a person reacts violently to a substance to which they have been sensitized. This means that the person has previously been exposed to the allergen and their immune system has developed a hypersensitivity or allergic reaction to it. When they are exposed to the allergen again, their immune system overreacts and releases chemicals that cause symptoms such as urticaria (hives) and rhinorrhea (runny nose). This violent reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In shock, the capillaries become engorged with fluid because
- A.
The precapillary sphincters remain constricted
- B.
Oxygen cannot diffuse across the cellular membrane
- C.
The postcapillary sphincters remain constricted
- D.
Of aerobic metabolism and carbon dioxide production
Correct Answer
C. The postcapillary sphincters remain constrictedExplanation
The correct answer is "the postcapillary sphincters remain constricted". In shock, the body's blood vessels constrict in an attempt to maintain blood pressure and redirect blood flow to vital organs. The postcapillary sphincters are small muscles located at the junction between the capillaries and veins. When these sphincters remain constricted, it prevents blood from flowing out of the capillaries and back into the veins. As a result, fluid begins to accumulate in the capillaries, leading to engorgement and swelling.Rate this question:
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- 9.
An acidic condition in the blood
- A.
Inhibits hemoglobin in the red blood cells from binding with and carrying oxygen
- B.
Results in potent vasoconstriction and constriction of the postcapillary sphincters
- C.
Immediately depresses respiratory system function, resulting in severe hypoxemia
- D.
Causes a decrease in hydrogen ion production and an increase in the pH of the blood
Correct Answer
A. Inhibits hemoglobin in the red blood cells from binding with and carrying oxygenExplanation
An acidic condition in the blood inhibits hemoglobin in the red blood cells from binding with and carrying oxygen. This means that the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced, leading to a decrease in the amount of oxygen available to the body's tissues and organs. This can result in various physiological effects, such as vasoconstriction and constriction of the postcapillary sphincters, which can impair blood flow. Additionally, the respiratory system function is immediately depressed, leading to severe hypoxemia, which is a low level of oxygen in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following does not occur during multiple organ dysfunction syndrome ( MODS)
- A.
Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
- B.
Increased lactate metabolism by the liver
- C.
Marked decrease in cardiac ejection fraction
- D.
Decreased surfactant production by the alveoli
Correct Answer
B. Increased lactate metabolism by the liverExplanation
During multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), there is a marked decrease in cardiac ejection fraction, which means that the heart is not able to pump blood effectively. This can lead to inadequate blood flow to various organs, causing their dysfunction. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema also occurs in MODS, where fluid accumulates in the lungs without a primary cardiac cause. Decreased surfactant production by the alveoli can also occur, leading to impaired lung function. However, increased lactate metabolism by the liver does not occur in MODS. In fact, lactate levels may be elevated in MODS due to impaired liver function and inadequate lactate clearance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
During compensated shock
- A.
The patient's level of consciousness is a poor indicator of perfusion, because he or she is generally restless
- B.
An increase in respiratory rate and depth creates a compensatory respiratory alkalosis to offset metabolic acidosis
- C.
Chemical mediators released by the autonomic nervous system result in significant increase in blood pressure
- D.
Pulse pressure widens as the sympathetic nervous system releases catecholamines in response to poor perfusion
Correct Answer
B. An increase in respiratory rate and depth creates a compensatory respiratory alkalosis to offset metabolic acidosisExplanation
During compensated shock, the body tries to maintain perfusion to vital organs by initiating compensatory mechanisms. One of these mechanisms is an increase in respiratory rate and depth, which leads to hyperventilation. This hyperventilation causes a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. This compensatory response helps offset the metabolic acidosis that occurs during shock. Therefore, an increase in respiratory rate and depth creates a compensatory respiratory alkalosis to offset metabolic acidosis during compensated shock.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following signs would you most likely observe in a patient with compensated shock
- A.
Anxiety or agitation
- B.
Dilation of the pupils
- C.
Absent peripheral pulses
- D.
Response to painful stimuli
Correct Answer
A. Anxiety or agitationExplanation
In a patient with compensated shock, the body is actively trying to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Anxiety or agitation can be observed as a result of the body's response to the decreased blood flow and oxygenation. This can be attributed to the release of stress hormones, such as adrenaline, which can cause feelings of restlessness and unease. Therefore, anxiety or agitation is a likely sign that may be observed in a patient with compensated shock.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A weak radial pulse in a patient with shock indicates
- A.
A marked increase in cardiac afterload
- B.
A systolic BP that is less than 90 mm Hg
- C.
Vascular dilation and decreased blood flow
- D.
Sympathetic nervous system compensation
Correct Answer
C. Vascular dilation and decreased blood flowExplanation
A weak radial pulse in a patient with shock indicates vascular dilation and decreased blood flow. In shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood pressure by dilating blood vessels in order to increase blood flow to vital organs. However, this can lead to decreased blood flow to peripheral areas such as the radial artery, resulting in a weak pulse. Additionally, the dilation of blood vessels can cause a drop in blood pressure, further contributing to the weak pulse.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Your initial assessment of a shock patient begins by
- A.
Establishing a patient airway
- B.
Forming a general impression
- C.
Vascular dilation and decreased blood flow
- D.
Sympathetic nervous system compensation
Correct Answer
B. Forming a general impressionExplanation
The initial assessment of a shock patient begins by forming a general impression. This involves quickly assessing the overall condition of the patient, including their level of consciousness, breathing, and circulation. By forming a general impression, healthcare providers can quickly identify any immediate life-threatening issues and prioritize interventions accordingly. This step is crucial in identifying and managing shock, as it allows for prompt recognition and initiation of appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The most reliable indicator that a patient is no longer able to compensate for shock is
- A.
Pale, cool, clammy skin
- B.
Sluggishly reactive pupils
- C.
An altered mental status
- D.
An increased diastolic blood pressure
Correct Answer
C. An altered mental statusExplanation
An altered mental status is the most reliable indicator that a patient is no longer able to compensate for shock. This is because the brain is highly sensitive to changes in blood flow and oxygenation, and any disruption in these factors can lead to impaired brain function. Therefore, if a patient's mental status is altered, it suggests that the brain is not receiving enough oxygen and nutrients, indicating that the body's compensatory mechanisms for shock are failing.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Care for a patient with profound shock begins by
- A.
Applying warm blankets
- B.
Controlling major bleeding
- C.
Establishing a patent airyway
- D.
Following BSI precautions
Correct Answer
D. Following BSI precautionsExplanation
The correct answer is following BSI precautions. BSI stands for Body Substance Isolation, which involves taking necessary precautions to protect oneself and others from potential exposure to infectious materials. In the context of caring for a patient with profound shock, following BSI precautions would include wearing personal protective equipment such as gloves, mask, and gown, to prevent the spread of any pathogens or contaminants. This is an important initial step before providing any further care or treatment to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A patient in shock with respiratory distress should be positioned
- A.
In a semi-sitting position
- B.
Supine with the legs elevated
- C.
In the trendelenburg position
- D.
On the left side with the legs elevated
Correct Answer
A. In a semi-sitting positionExplanation
When a patient is in shock with respiratory distress, positioning them in a semi-sitting position can help improve their breathing. This position allows for better expansion of the lungs and can help alleviate the feeling of breathlessness. Additionally, elevating the head and upper body can help to improve blood flow and circulation, which is important in managing shock. This position also allows for easier access to the airway and can facilitate the administration of oxygen or other necessary interventions.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When noncolloid solutions are used in the treatment of shock
- A.
They remain in the vascular compartment for up to 4 hours
- B.
You should give 2-3 times the volume of blood lost
- C.
They improve tissue perfusion by carrying oxygen to the cells
- D.
20% of the solution quickly diffuses out of the intravascular space
Correct Answer
B. You should give 2-3 times the volume of blood lostExplanation
When noncolloid solutions are used in the treatment of shock, it is recommended to give 2-3 times the volume of blood lost. This is because noncolloid solutions do not stay in the vascular compartment for a long duration and may quickly diffuse out of the intravascular space. Giving 2-3 times the volume of blood lost helps to compensate for this rapid diffusion and ensures an adequate amount of fluid reaches the cells for tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following statements regarding prehospital treatment of cardiogenic shock is most correct
- A.
Administer a 1000 mL crystalloid bolus if the patient's lungs are clear
- B.
Dopaine infusions greater than 10 mcg/kg/min often cause bradycardia
- C.
Norepinephrine is the vasopressor of choice for prehospital blood pressure support
- D.
Prolonged efforts to stabilize the patient in the field are not recommended
Correct Answer
D. Prolonged efforts to stabilize the patient in the field are not recommendedExplanation
Prolonged efforts to stabilize the patient in the field are not recommended for the prehospital treatment of cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Immediate medical intervention is crucial in this situation. The statement suggests that spending too much time trying to stabilize the patient in the field is not recommended, indicating that prompt transfer to a medical facility for further treatment is necessary.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following medications impedes the further release of chemical mediators in anaphylactic shock
- A.
Diphendydramine
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Ipratropium
- D.
Albuterol
Correct Answer
A. DiphendydramineExplanation
Diphendydramine is the correct answer because it is an antihistamine medication that blocks the effects of histamine, which is one of the main chemical mediators released during anaphylactic shock. By inhibiting histamine, diphendydramine helps to reduce the symptoms of anaphylaxis and prevent the release of further chemical mediators, providing relief to the patient. Epinephrine, ipratropium, and albuterol are not specifically indicated for inhibiting the release of chemical mediators in anaphylactic shock.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A patient taking________ would most likely experience a delay in the healing of a would
- A.
Antidepressants
- B.
Acetaminophen
- C.
Antihypertensives
- D.
Corticosteroids
Correct Answer
D. CorticosteroidsExplanation
Corticosteroids are known to have anti-inflammatory effects and can suppress the immune system. This can lead to a delay in the healing process of wounds as the body's natural healing response is compromised. Therefore, a patient taking corticosteroids would most likely experience a delay in the healing of a wound.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pressure injury
- A.
An obese patient
- B.
A bedridden patient
- C.
A hypertensive patient
- D.
A patient with diabetes
Correct Answer
B. A bedridden patientExplanation
A bedridden patient is at the highest risk for a pressure injury because they are immobile and spend prolonged periods in one position, which can lead to pressure ulcers. The constant pressure on specific areas of the body, such as the back, hips, and heels, can cause tissue damage and the development of pressure injuries. Obese patients, hypertensive patients, and patients with diabetes may also be at risk for pressure injuries, but being bedridden significantly increases the risk due to the lack of movement and pressure relief.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In general, most open wounds should be sutured or otherwise closed no longer than ___ hours
- A.
8
- B.
10
- C.
12
- D.
18
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
Most open wounds should be sutured or otherwise closed no longer than 10 hours. This is because after this time period, the risk of infection and complications increases significantly. Closing the wound within 10 hours helps to prevent bacteria from entering the wound and promotes faster healing.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium is called
- A.
Tetanus
- B.
Gangrene
- C.
Fasciitis
- D.
Lymphedema
Correct Answer
B. GangreneExplanation
Gangrene is the correct answer because it refers to the necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium. This condition occurs when the blood supply to a certain area is cut off, leading to tissue death. The anaerobic bacteria release toxins that further damage the surrounding tissue. Gangrene can be categorized into dry gangrene, where the tissue becomes dry and shrinks, or wet gangrene, where the tissue becomes swollen and infected. If left untreated, gangrene can spread and lead to serious complications, including sepsis and amputation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by.
- A.
Inflammation of the injured blood vessels
- B.
Ruptured of large blood vessels in the dermis
- C.
Aggregation of platelets to the injured site
- D.
Leakage of fluid into spaces between the cells
Correct Answer
D. Leakage of fluid into spaces between the cellsExplanation
The swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by the leakage of fluid into spaces between the cells. When a contusion occurs, blood vessels may be damaged, leading to the release of fluid into the surrounding tissues. This fluid leakage causes swelling as it accumulates in the interstitial spaces between the cells.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Whether the contamination from an open wound produces infection depends mostly on
- A.
How the wound is managed
- B.
The location of the wound
- C.
The patient's medical history
- D.
How large the open wound is
Correct Answer
A. How the wound is managedExplanation
The correct answer is how the wound is managed. This is because the way a wound is managed, such as cleaning and dressing it properly, plays a crucial role in preventing or reducing the risk of infection. Proper wound management includes cleaning the wound, applying appropriate dressings, and ensuring that it is protected from further contamination. If a wound is not managed properly, bacteria and other pathogens can enter the wound, leading to infection. Therefore, the way the wound is managed is a key factor in determining whether contamination from an open wound will result in an infection.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Compared to the bleeding from an open wound, bleeding from a closed wound
- A.
Is limited because the skin is unbroken
- B.
Generally requires surgical intervention
- C.
Is not significant enough to produce shock
- D.
Can usually be controlled with direct pressure
Correct Answer
A. Is limited because the skin is unbrokenExplanation
Bleeding from a closed wound is limited because the skin is unbroken. When the skin is intact, it acts as a barrier to prevent excessive bleeding. Unlike an open wound where blood can freely flow out, a closed wound restricts the blood loss due to the containment provided by the unbroken skin.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following statements regarding lacerations is most correct
- A.
Lacerations are linear cuts that tend to heal well due to their relatively even wound margins
- B.
The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged
- C.
The first priority in treating a laceration is to cover it with a sterile dressing to prevent infection
- D.
A laceration must be sutured or otherwise closed within 8-10 hours following the injury
Correct Answer
B. The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damagedExplanation
The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged. This means that the severity of a laceration is determined by how deep the cut is and what important structures, such as nerves or blood vessels, have been affected. A shallow laceration may not be as serious as a deep one that has damaged vital structures. Therefore, assessing the depth and potential damage to structures is crucial in determining the seriousness of a laceration.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A crushing or tearing amputation
- A.
Is initially treated by applying a proximal tourniquet and retrieving any detached body parts
- B.
Causes less blood loss than expected because the blood vessels retain their ability to constrict
- C.
Cannot be surgically reattached due to the severe vascular and soft tissue damage that accompanies it
- D.
Can result in excessive blood loss due to hemorrhage if the paramedic does not intervene rapidly
Correct Answer
D. Can result in excessive blood loss due to hemorrhage if the paramedic does not intervene rapidlyExplanation
A crushing or tearing amputation can result in excessive blood loss due to hemorrhage if the paramedic does not intervene rapidly. This is because the severe vascular and soft tissue damage that accompanies the amputation can cause significant bleeding. Applying a proximal tourniquet and retrieving any detached body parts can help control the bleeding and prevent further blood loss. However, the blood vessels may still retain their ability to constrict to some extent, which can help reduce the amount of blood loss compared to what would be expected. Nevertheless, prompt intervention by a paramedic is crucial to prevent excessive blood loss and manage the situation effectively.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When muscles are crushed beyond repair, tissue necrosis develops and causes the release of harmful products. This process is called
- A.
Rhabdomyolysis
- B.
Myoglobinuria
- C.
Hyperphosphatemia
- D.
Necrotizing fasciitis
Correct Answer
A. RhabdomyolysisExplanation
When muscles are crushed beyond repair, tissue necrosis develops. This leads to the release of harmful products, such as myoglobin, into the bloodstream. This condition is called rhabdomyolysis.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following statements regarding compatment syndrome is most correct
- A.
Compartment syndrome is more likely to occur with closed injuries
- B.
Compartment syndrome is caused by increased pressure within the bone
- C.
Definitive treatment almost always includes amputation of the affected limb
- D.
Local tissue death occurs after 2 hours of persistent compartment syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Compartment syndrome is more likely to occur with closed injuriesExplanation
Compartment syndrome is a condition characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical compartment, leading to compromised blood flow and tissue damage. It is more likely to occur with closed injuries, such as fractures or crush injuries, where there is limited space for swelling and increased pressure within the compartment. Open injuries, on the other hand, allow for decompression and release of pressure. Therefore, the statement that compartment syndrome is more likely to occur with closed injuries is the most correct.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During the secondary phase of blast injury
- A.
The patient is thrown against a solid object
- B.
The pressure wave damages air-filled cavities
- C.
Full thickness flash burns occur to the body
- D.
Flying shrapnel may cause penetrating injuries
Correct Answer
D. Flying shrapnel may cause penetrating injuriesExplanation
During the secondary phase of blast injury, flying shrapnel may cause penetrating injuries. This means that when an explosion occurs, fragments of debris or shrapnel can be propelled at high velocities, causing them to penetrate the body. These penetrating injuries can range from superficial wounds to more severe injuries, depending on the size and speed of the shrapnel. It is important to consider this aspect of blast injuries as it can significantly impact the severity and treatment required for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following medications would most likely interfere with hemostasis
- A.
Paxil
- B.
Procrit
- C.
Plavix
- D.
Tylenol
Correct Answer
C. PlavixExplanation
Plavix is the correct answer because it is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits the formation of blood clots. This interference with the normal clotting process can lead to impaired hemostasis, which is the body's ability to stop bleeding. Paxil is an antidepressant, Procrit is used to treat anemia, and Tylenol is a pain reliever, none of which are known to interfere with hemostasis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
After controlling the bleeding from a grossly contaminated open wound to the leg you should next
- A.
Irrigate with sterile water and apply a sterile dressing
- B.
Apply a pressure bandage and elevate the extremity
- C.
Elevate the extremity and administer 100% O2
- D.
Gently pick out any foreign bodies with hemostats
Correct Answer
A. Irrigate with sterile water and apply a sterile dressingExplanation
After controlling the bleeding from a grossly contaminated open wound to the leg, the next step should be to irrigate the wound with sterile water and apply a sterile dressing. This is important to remove any remaining contaminants or debris from the wound, reducing the risk of infection. Irrigation helps to flush out bacteria and foreign bodies, while a sterile dressing provides a clean environment for wound healing. Applying a pressure bandage and elevating the extremity can be done after the wound has been cleaned and dressed. Administering 100% O2 and picking out foreign bodies with hemostats are not necessary steps in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The use of wet dressings in the field is limited because
- A.
Their use may result in severe hypothermia
- B.
They are of no value in providing pain relief
- C.
Their sterility cannot be maintained in the field
- D.
They provide a medium for pathogens to grow
Correct Answer
D. They provide a medium for pathogens to growExplanation
Wet dressings provide a moist environment which promotes the growth of pathogens. In the field, where sterile conditions are difficult to maintain, the risk of contamination and infection is higher. Therefore, the use of wet dressings in the field is limited to avoid the potential growth of pathogens and subsequent infections.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound stops the flow of blood because
- A.
Pressure stimulates the release of fibrin
- B.
Direct pressure facilitates vasoconstriction
- C.
It allows platelets to seal the vascular walls
- D.
Pressure shunts blood away from the injury
Correct Answer
C. It allows platelets to seal the vascular wallsExplanation
Applying direct pressure to a bleeding wound allows platelets to seal the vascular walls. When pressure is applied, it compresses the blood vessels and reduces the flow of blood. This compression causes the platelets to adhere to the damaged area and form a plug, which helps in sealing the wound and preventing further bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 37.
You should splint an open soft-tissue injury to an extremity because
- A.
Most patients do not keep the extremity still when asked to do so
- B.
Most open soft tissue injuries are associated with a fracture
- C.
Splinting is an excellent means of providing relief from pain
- D.
Motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood clotting process
Correct Answer
D. Motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood clotting processExplanation
Splinting an open soft-tissue injury to an extremity is necessary because motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood clotting process. When an injury occurs, the body initiates a clotting process to stop bleeding and promote healing. Any movement of the extremity can disturb the formation of a stable blood clot, leading to prolonged bleeding and delayed healing. Splinting helps immobilize the injured area, preventing further damage and allowing the blood clotting process to proceed undisturbed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In which of the following patients whould the impaled object be removed
- A.
Apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the center of the chest
- B.
Pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the lower abdomen
- C.
Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the back
- D.
Semiconscious patient with a screwdriver impaled in the side of the head
Correct Answer
C. Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the backExplanation
In cases of impaled objects, the general rule is to not remove the object unless it is obstructing the airway and preventing breathing or causing profuse bleeding. However, in a cardiac arrest patient, the priority is to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and restore circulation. In this scenario, the impaled ice pick in the center of the back may be compressing the heart or major blood vessels, hindering the chances of successful resuscitation. Therefore, removing the impaled object becomes necessary in order to effectively perform CPR and increase the chances of survival.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Your main concern when caring for a patient with a soft-tissue injury to the face should be
- A.
Airway compromise
- B.
Hypovolemic shock
- C.
Injuries to the eyes
- D.
Preventing contamination
Correct Answer
A. Airway compromiseExplanation
When caring for a patient with a soft-tissue injury to the face, the main concern should be airway compromise. This is because injuries to the face can potentially obstruct the airway, making it difficult for the patient to breathe. It is crucial to ensure that the airway remains open and unobstructed to prevent respiratory distress or failure.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When managing a patient who is entrapped by a crushing object, it is most important to
- A.
Assess perfusion and sensory and motor functions every 5 minutes
- B.
Make every effort to treat the patient before removing the crushing object
- C.
Infuse 2 liters of lactated ringers solution to combat hyperkalemia
- D.
Give sodium bicarbonate immediately after removing the crushing object
Correct Answer
B. Make every effort to treat the patient before removing the crushing objectExplanation
In the case of a patient who is entrapped by a crushing object, it is crucial to make every effort to treat the patient before removing the crushing object. This is because removing the object without proper treatment can lead to a rapid release of toxins and metabolic waste products into the bloodstream, causing a systemic inflammatory response and potentially leading to organ failure. By providing immediate treatment, such as administering fluids, pain relief, and stabilizing any life-threatening conditions, the patient's overall condition can be improved before attempting to remove the crushing object.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The most significant immediate threat to a patient with a soft-tissue injury is
- A.
Nerve damage
- B.
Infection
- C.
Disfigurement
- D.
Hemorrhage
Correct Answer
D. HemorrhageExplanation
A soft-tissue injury can cause bleeding, which can lead to hemorrhage. Hemorrhage refers to excessive bleeding, which can be life-threatening if not controlled. Immediate treatment is necessary to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications. Nerve damage, infection, and disfigurement are also potential risks associated with soft-tissue injuries, but hemorrhage poses the most immediate and significant threat to the patient's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 42.
All of the following are functions of the skin, except
- A.
Providing the immune response for the body
- B.
Protecting the underlying tissue from injury
- C.
Sensing changes in the external environment
- D.
Assisting in the regulation of body temperature
Correct Answer
A. Providing the immune response for the bodyExplanation
The skin performs various functions such as protecting the underlying tissue from injury, sensing changes in the external environment, and assisting in the regulation of body temperature. However, providing the immune response for the body is not a function of the skin. The immune response is primarily carried out by the immune system, which includes organs like the lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus, as well as specialized cells like white blood cells. The skin acts as a physical barrier against pathogens, but it does not play a direct role in immune response.Rate this question:
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- 43.
____________is a fibrous protein that gives the skin high resistance to breakage under mechanical stress.
- A.
Fibrin
- B.
Elastin
- C.
Collagen
- D.
Melanin
Correct Answer
C. CollagenExplanation
Collagen is a fibrous protein that provides the skin with high resistance to breakage under mechanical stress. It is responsible for maintaining the skin's strength and elasticity, making it less prone to damage. Collagen helps to support and structure the skin, keeping it firm and preventing it from tearing or breaking easily.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Physical injury to the skin
- A.
Causes a decrease in the production of macrophages and lymphocytes, thus increasing the risk of infection
- B.
Commonly destroys the stratum corneum, the deep dermal layer of the skin, and causes nerve damage
- C.
Promotes cutaneous vasoconstriction, which shunts blood away from the injury and manifests as pallor around the injury site
- D.
Triggers mast cells to degranulate and synthesize special chemical mediators, which causes the injured area to become warm and red
Correct Answer
D. Triggers mast cells to degranulate and synthesize special chemical mediators, which causes the injured area to become warm and redExplanation
Physical injury to the skin triggers mast cells to degranulate and synthesize special chemical mediators, which causes the injured area to become warm and red. Mast cells release substances like histamine, which dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow to the injured area, leading to redness and warmth. This is part of the body's inflammatory response to injury, aimed at promoting healing and fighting off potential infections.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following substances is produced in the dermis and keeps the skin supple so that is doesn't crack
- A.
Sebum
- B.
Elastin
- C.
Collagen
- D.
Ground substance
Correct Answer
A. SebumExplanation
Sebum is the correct answer because it is an oily substance that is produced in the dermis and helps to keep the skin supple. It acts as a natural moisturizer and lubricant, preventing the skin from becoming dry and cracked. Sebum also helps to protect the skin from external factors such as bacteria and pollutants, maintaining its overall health and elasticity.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A laceration that lies perpendicular to the skin's tension lines
- A.
Results in minimal external bleeding and typically heals spontaneously within 2-3 hours
- B.
Generally remains closed and does not require suturing or other methods of wound closure
- C.
Often remains open, heals more slowly, and is more likely to result in abnormal scar formation
- D.
Does not disrupt the body's blood-clotting process and tends to heal without the formation of a scar
Correct Answer
C. Often remains open, heals more slowly, and is more likely to result in abnormal scar formationExplanation
A laceration that lies perpendicular to the skin's tension lines often remains open, heals more slowly, and is more likely to result in abnormal scar formation. This is because when a laceration is perpendicular to the skin's tension lines, it creates more tension on the wound edges, making it difficult for the wound to close naturally. As a result, the wound may remain open and take longer to heal. Additionally, the increased tension can lead to abnormal scar formation, such as hypertrophic scars or keloids.Rate this question:
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- 47.
During the process of wound healing, hemostasis
- A.
Permanently stops the wound from bleeding and facilitates healing
- B.
Is a physiologic process in which the body's platelets are destroyed
- C.
Occurs when the bone marrow transiently produces more red blood cells
- D.
Temporarily stops bleeding via vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
Correct Answer
D. Temporarily stops bleeding via vasoconstriction and platelet aggregationExplanation
During the process of wound healing, hemostasis temporarily stops bleeding via vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. Vasoconstriction narrows the blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the injured area. Platelet aggregation refers to the clumping together of platelets to form a plug, which helps to seal the wound and prevent further bleeding. This temporary halt in bleeding allows for the formation of a blood clot and the subsequent healing of the wound.Rate this question:
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- 48.
During the neovascularization phase of the wound healing process
- A.
New blood vessels form as the body attempts to bring oxygen and nutrients to the injured tissue
- B.
Histamine makes the capillaries more permeable, resulting in swelling in and around the injury site
- C.
Collagen provides stability to the damaged tissue and joins wound borders, thereby closing the open tissue
- D.
Microscopic vasculature damaged by the injury is digested by macrophages through a process called phagocytosis
Correct Answer
A. New blood vessels form as the body attempts to bring oxygen and nutrients to the injured tissueExplanation
During the neovascularization phase of the wound healing process, new blood vessels form as the body attempts to bring oxygen and nutrients to the injured tissue. This is essential for the healing process as it provides the necessary resources for tissue regeneration and repair. The formation of new blood vessels, also known as angiogenesis, is triggered by various factors, including the release of growth factors and cytokines. These new blood vessels help to restore blood flow to the injured area and promote the delivery of essential nutrients and oxygen, aiding in the healing process.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following general statements regarding gunshot wounds is most correct
- A.
The most important factor for the seriousness of a gunshot wound is the type of tissue through which the projectile passess
- B.
Injuries from a shotgun blast are most devastating when the distance between the gun and the target is more than 100 yards
- C.
Wounds to lower extremities that are not associated with a fracture or neurovascular compromise are always explored surgically
- D.
Tissue of high elasticity, such as muscle, is less able to tolerate temporary cavitation than tissue of low
Correct Answer
A. The most important factor for the seriousness of a gunshot wound is the type of tissue through which the projectile passessExplanation
The seriousness of a gunshot wound is determined by the type of tissue through which the projectile passes. This means that if the bullet passes through vital organs or major blood vessels, the injury will be more severe. The type of tissue, such as muscle or skin, also plays a role in how well it can tolerate temporary cavitation, which is the formation and collapse of a temporary cavity around the bullet's path. Therefore, understanding the type of tissue involved is crucial in assessing the seriousness of a gunshot wound.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following statements regarding exit wounds is most correct
- A.
Exit wounds occur when the projectile's energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body
- B.
Compared to entrance wounds, exit wounds are generally much smaller and typically have regular edges
- C.
Despite fragmentation of the projectile, there is usually only one exit wound for each round that is fired
- D.
With low-velocity gunshot wounds, the exit wound is always a mirror image of the entrance wound
Correct Answer
A. Exit wounds occur when the projectile's energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the bodyExplanation
Exit wounds occur when the projectile's energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body. This means that the projectile still has enough energy to create an exit wound as it exits the body. Compared to entrance wounds, exit wounds are generally much smaller and typically have regular edges. Despite fragmentation of the projectile, there is usually only one exit wound for each round that is fired. With low-velocity gunshot wounds, the exit wound is not always a mirror image of the entrance wound.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 29, 2011Quiz Created by
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