Z3dx5x Volume 2-edition02
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- 1.
(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202. -
- 2.
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. -
- 3.
(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor.
Correct Answer
D. Labor. -
- 4.
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office. -
- 5.
(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). -
- 6.
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978. -
- 7.
(202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizational. -
- 8.
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 9.
(202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering. -
- 10.
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations.
- B.
Providing administrative controls.
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE). -
- 11.
(202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two. -
- 12.
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. C -
- 13.
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor erognomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls. -
- 14.
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
2 to 2.5.
- C.
2 to 4.5.
- D.
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5. -
- 15.
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10 -
- 16.
(203) How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type.
- B.
Heat source.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type. -
- 17.
(203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class B. -
- 18.
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C. -
- 19.
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarm. -
- 20.
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possible. -
- 21.
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50 -
- 22.
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits. -
- 23.
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously. -
- 24.
(204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
B. Five. -
- 25.
(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
D. Four. -
- 26.
(205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration.
- B.
Office of Communications.
- C.
Office of Public Engagement.
- D.
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and Budget. -
- 27.
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level.
- B.
Federal level.
- C.
Congressional level.
- D.
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
B. Federal level. -
- 28.
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. -
- 29.
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Drawing record. -
- 30.
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record. -
- 31.
(207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network. -
- 32.
33. (207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application.
- B.
Session and Data Transport.
- C.
Network and Presentation.
- D.
Application and Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and Application. -
- 33.
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport
- B.
Data Link
- C.
Physical
- D.
Session
Correct Answer
B. Data Link -
- 34.
(207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network. -
- 35.
(207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network medium. -
- 36.
(208) When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology.
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium.
- D.
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
B. Physical topology. -
- 37.
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star
- B.
Ring
- C.
Loop
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
D. Linear -
- 38.
(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Ring
- D.
Radial
Correct Answer
B. Star -
- 39.
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated. -
- 40.
(209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). -
- 41.
(210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. -
- 42.
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. -
- 43.
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification.
- B.
Header Checksum
- C.
Time to Live.
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header Checksum -
- 44.
(211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239
- B.
254
- C.
255
- D.
256
Correct Answer
C. 255 -
- 45.
(211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
C. Class C address. -
- 46.
(211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
D. Class D address. -
- 47.
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023.
- B.
1024–49151.
- C.
49152–65535.
- D.
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023. -
- 48.
(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile. -
- 49.
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. -
- 50.
(214) What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
- A.
Two gigabits per second (GB/S).
- B.
Four GB/S.
- C.
Five GB/S.
- D.
10 GB/S.
Correct Answer
C. Five GB/S. -
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Feb 09, 2017Quiz Edited by
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