MS. Long's CIW Practice Test

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A person in which job role would be responsible for developing and implementing plans to take advantage of the sales opportunities available through the Internet?

    • A.

      SEO Analyst

    • B.

      Security Analyst

    • C.

      Web Marketing Manager

    • D.

      Web Sit Analyst

    Correct Answer
    C. Web Marketing Manager
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. Web marketing managers are responsible for developing and implementing plans to take advantage of the sales and marketing opportunities available through the Internet. They help define their companies' objectives for using electronic commerce (e-commerce) and decide which computer applications are needed to achieve the. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 1: Introduction to IT Business and Careers, section "IT Job Roles")

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is always required to connect to the Internet?

    • A.

      Web browser

    • B.

      Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)

    • C.

      A domain name server

    • D.

      Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
    Explanation
    Answer D is correct. Every computer connected to the Internet uses Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), which enables computers to communicate with one another. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 2: Introduction to Internet Technology, section "Overview of the Internet")

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  • 3. 

    The rules that describe the ways that clients and servers communicate across a network are called:

    • A.

      Backbones.

    • B.

      Channels.

    • C.

      Packets.

    • D.

      Protocols.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protocols.
    Explanation
    Answer D is correct. Protocols are the rules that describe the ways that clients and servers communicate across a network. Protocols are similar in concept to the rules of diplomatic interaction that dictate who speaks first, who bows to whom, and so forth. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 2: Introduction to Internet Technology, section "Internet Protocols")

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  • 4. 

    Web addresses are called Uniform Resource Locators (URLs). A URL is a text string that specifies an Internet address and the method by which the address can be accessed. The protocol component of a URL identifies:

    • A.

      The name of the server on which the page resides.

    • B.

      The site owner's registered site.

    • C.

      The type of server and Internet service being used.

    • D.

      The organization type

    Correct Answer
    C. The type of server and Internet service being used.
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. In a URL, the protocol component identifies the Internet protocol used to send information from the server to a user's computer, and thus indicates both the type of server and Internet service being used. The Internet resource is the name of the server on which the page resides. The domain name (which includes the top-level domain, such as .com or .org) identifies the site owner's registered site name and organization type. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 3: Web Browsing, section "Web Addresses")

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  • 5. 

    When you view a Web page, the images are downloaded to your computer. Where are they stored?

    • A.

      History folder

    • B.

      Cookie folder

    • C.

      Browser cache

    • D.

      Desktop

    Correct Answer
    C. Browser cache
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. The browser cache is a folder on your hard drive that stores downloaded files (such as Web pages, images, fonts, etc.). The cache improves the performance (speed) of your browser because it allows you to view previously accessed Web pages without having to request them from the server again. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 3: Web Browsing, section "Configuring Web Browser Preferences")

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  • 6. 

    In what ways can cookies be useful for Web site developers?

    • A.

      Cookies give developers access to Web site visitors' hard drive files.

    • B.

      Cookies inform the Web site manager about visitors' preferences.

    • C.

      Cookies are dangerous and should never be used in Web development.

    • D.

      Cookies enable developers to convey their preferences to Web site users.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cookies inform the Web site manager about visitors' preferences.
    Explanation
    Answer B is correct. Cookies are small text files placed on Web site visitors' computers so Web site managers can customize their sites to visitors' preferences. For example, a cookie might be used to store information about user actions, such as the options that a user clicked on the Web page. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 3: Web Browsing, section "Cookies")

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  • 7. 

    You want customers to use their credit cards to make purchases on your Web site. In order to ensure secure exchanges, you should consider using:

    • A.

      VPN.

    • B.

      TLS.

    • C.

      SSH.

    • D.

      XML.

    Correct Answer
    B. TLS.
    Explanation
    Answer B is correct. Most servers use the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol for secure exchanges. The SSL protocol authenticates using digital certificates and provides for data encryption. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the successor to SSL and is becoming more common. Although Virtual Private Network (VPN) traffic is encrypted, the standard encryption solution for Web sites is SSL/TLS. Secure Shell (SSH) is a secure alternative to Telnet, but is not the standard encryption solution for Web sites. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 3: Web Browsing, section "How Browsers Work")

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is an event-driven scripting language used to create active content on a Web page?

    • A.

      C++

    • B.

      Java

    • C.

      JavaScript

    • D.

      C#

    Correct Answer
    C. JavaScript
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. JavaScript is an event-driven scripting language that is designed to react whenever an event occurs. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 4: Multimedia on the Web, section "Objects, Active Content and Languages")

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  • 9. 

    What is the easiest way to update the codecs used by your multimedia plug-in?

    • A.

      Codecs cannot be updated.

    • B.

      Download and install an upgrade for your plug-in.

    • C.

      Download the newest multimedia files and your codecs will be updated automatically

    • D.

      Deinstall your old plug-in, then download and install the latest version of the plug-in.

    Correct Answer
    B. Download and install an upgrade for your plug-in.
    Explanation
    Answer B is correct. Players are equipped with standardized codec schemes. As new codecs become popular, you can update your player's store of codecs. The store of codecs is updated when you upgrade your plug-in. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 4: Multimedia on the Web, section "Data Compression and Decompression")

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  • 10. 

    Why is it advisable to occasionally upgrade plug-ins from the appropriate vendor's site?

    • A.

      Upgrades usually include increased functionality and security.

    • B.

      Plug-ins expire after a set number of days.

    • C.

      Old plug-ins can contain computer viruses.

    • D.

      Only the newest plug-ins support frames sites.

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrades usually include increased functionality and security.
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. It is advisable to occasionally upgrade plug-ins from the appropriate vendor's site because upgrades usually include increased functionality and security updates. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 4: Multimedia on the Web, section "Plug-in Installation")

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  • 11. 

    In a relational database table, which term describes a category of information, represented as a column in the table?

    • A.

      Field

    • B.

      Record

    • C.

      Relationship

    • D.

      Primary key

    Correct Answer
    A. Field
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. In a relational database table, a field is a category of information in a table. Each column in a table represents a field. A record is a collection of information consisting of one or more related fields about a specific entity, such as a person, product or event. Each row in a table represents a record. A relationship is a connection between two or more database tables that is based on a field that the tables have in common. A primary key is a field containing a value that uniquely identifies each record in a database table. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 5: Databases and Web Search Engines, section "Overview of Databases")

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  • 12. 

    The more terms you combine using the AND Boolean operator in a search:

    • A.

      The fewer results you will retrieve.

    • B.

      The more results you will retrieve.

    • C.

      The more likely you will be to generate a 404 error.

    • D.

      The more you expand the search to include information portals and newsgroups.

    Correct Answer
    A. The fewer results you will retrieve.
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. When you use the AND operator between two keywords, results must contain both keywords. The more terms you combine using the AND operator, the fewer results you retrieve. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 5: Databases and Web Search Engines, section "Boolean Operators")

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  • 13. 

    Suki just signed up with an Internet Service Provider (ISP), and now she is setting up Windows Mail as her e-mail client. As she configures this e-mail client, Suki must specify the names of which two servers?

    • A.

      POP3 server and SMTP server

    • B.

      SMTP server and NNTP server

    • C.

      NNTP server and HTTP server

    • D.

      HTTP server and SMTP server

    Correct Answer
    A. POP3 server and SMTP server
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. Microsoft Windows Mail is an e-mail program provided with Microsoft Vista, so it is installed when you install Windows Vista. Windows Mail requires the same configuration information as most e-mail clients: the e-mail address, the name of the outgoing (SMTP) mail server, the name of the incoming (POP3) mail server, a POP3 account name and a POP3 account password, Lesson 6: E-Mail and Personal Information Management, section "E-Mail Configuration Requirements")

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  • 14. 

    What is a CAPTCHA designed to do?

    • A.

      Verify the identity of a user

    • B.

      Discern humans from automated senders

    • C.

      Ensure that only unique user names exist within a given domain

    • D.

      Prevent password theft

    Correct Answer
    B. Discern humans from automated senders
    Explanation
    Answer B is correct. A CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing Test to Tell Computers and Humans Apart) is a test that uses a word-verification graphic designed to discern humans from automated senders during online transactions. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 6: E-Mail and Personal Information Management, section "E-Mail Problems and Solutions")

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  • 15. 

    What is the function of an e-mail client automatic reply feature?

    • A.

      It automatically forwards your e-mail to a different e-mail address.

    • B.

      It sends an automated response to e-mail messages you receive.

    • C.

      It filters out unwanted, unsolicited mail.

    • D.

      It redirects all incoming mail to a specified folder.

    Correct Answer
    B. It sends an automated response to e-mail messages you receive.
    Explanation
    Answer B is correct. An autoresponder, or automatic reply, feature allows you to configure and send an automated response to e-mail messages that are received while you are away. Generally, the same automated response is sent to every user who sends you a message. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 6: E-Mail and Personal Information Management, section "E-Mail in the Workplace")

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  • 16. 

    Which PIM program feature can be used to streamline office events and prevent scheduling conflicts?

    • A.

      An alarm

    • B.

      A global address book

    • C.

      A synchronization feature

    • D.

      A centralized electronic calendar

    Correct Answer
    D. A centralized electronic calendar
    Explanation
    Answer D is correct. Using a centralized electronic calendar to schedule meetings and reserve resources (such as a meeting room or projector) can streamline office events and prevent scheduling conflicts. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 6: E-mail and Personal Information Management, section "Personal Information Management (PIM)")

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  • 17. 

    Lucio needs to transfer a large executable file from his computer to another user's computer on the Internet. He knows the other user will retrieve the file sometime the next day, but he does not know exactly when. Which protocol is Lucio's best choice for transferring the file?

    • A.

      Hypertext Transfer Protocol

    • B.

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

    • C.

      File Transfer Protocol

    • D.

      Post Office Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. File Transfer Protocol
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) offers the best solution because the recipient can retrieve the file from a remote FTP server at his or her convenience. FTP is a convenient way to transfer files that are too large to send via e-mail. Many corporate e-mail servers and firewalls prevent sending and receiving executable files as e-mail attachments. However, you can upload and download such files using an FTP server. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 7: Internet Services and Tools, section "File Transfer Protocol (FTP)")

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  • 18. 

    Most user-friendly FTP clients initiate commands for the user when the user clicks an action button. For which of the following actions does the FTP client program use the  put command?

    • A.

      To search for a file

    • B.

      To download a file

    • C.

      To upload a file

    • D.

      To move a file to a new location

    Correct Answer
    C. To upload a file
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. To upload files, an FTP client uses the put command. The user can enter this command with the file name; however, the put command is generally initiated by the FTP client (invisible to the user) when the user clicks the Upload button and indicates a file to be uploaded. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 7: Internet Services and Tools, section "File Transfer Protocol (FTP)")

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  • 19. 

    Which social networking term describes the ability of a group to realize a greater degree of success in solving problems by solving them collaboratively compared with solving them individually?

    • A.

      Collective intelligence

    • B.

      Crowdsourcing

    • C.

      Folksonomy

    • D.

      Mashup

    Correct Answer
    A. Collective intelligence
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. Social networking has enabled users to provide a significant amount of information on the Web, and there are no longer any restrictions on what they produce. Enabling non-technical users with the freedom to create and edit any page in a Web site has allowed users to collaborate as they help build Web content. Building upon the old adage that "two heads are better than one," social networking has made it possible for users to apply their collective intelligence to produce content via the Web that is perhaps more innovative and richer than an individual user could produce alone. Collective intelligence is the ability of a group to exhibit a greater degree of intelligence by solving problems collaboratively compared to the intelligence of an individual member. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 8: Internet Communication, section "Modern Web Technologies")

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  • 20. 

    Voice over IP (VoIP), presencing, mobile computing, call/contact centers and voice-to-text conversion are all examples of what?

    • A.

      Social networking technologies

    • B.

      Terminal services clients and servers

    • C.

      Unified communications technologies

    • D.

      Short Message Service (SMS) applications

    Correct Answer
    C. Unified communications technologies
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. Unified communications (UC) is a business trend that seeks to simplify and integrate all forms of communications. UC enables a user to send a message on one medium and receive it on another. Unified communications technologies include Voice over IP (VoIP), presencing, mobile computing, call/contact centers and conversion of voice to text. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 8: Internet Communication, section "Convergence and Unified Communications Technologies ")

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  • 21. 

    Which term describes an encryption method in which a number generated by an algorithm from a string of text is used to verify the integrity of transmitted data?

    • A.

      Symmetric encryption

    • B.

      Asymmetric encryption

    • C.

      Hash encryption

    • D.

      Key encryption

    Correct Answer
    C. Hash encryption
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. Hash encryption refers to an encryption method in which hashes are used to verify the integrity of transmitted messages. A hash (also called a message-digest) is a number generated by an algorithm from a string of text. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 9: Internet Security, section "Encryption")

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  • 22. 

    A program that resides in active memory and replicates itself onto other systems is called:

    • A.

      An illicit server.

    • B.

      A trojan.

    • C.

      A virus.

    • D.

      A worm.

    Correct Answer
    D. A worm.
    Explanation
    Answer D is correct. A worm is a self-replicating program. A worm can consume system resources, or leave a payload, such as a trojan. The difference between a worm and a virus is that a worm resides in active memory and replicates itself automatically, whereas a virus requires some form of trigger, from an end user, administrator or application. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 9: Internet Security, section "Malware [Malicious Software]")

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  • 23. 

    Whenever you receive program patches or updates, you should:

    • A.

      Delete them so they do not interfere with your existing applications.

    • B.

      Apply them to all systems immediately.

    • C.

      Test them on one computer to ensure that they solve your problem without any unforeseen consequences.

    • D.

      Send them to all your colleagues and friends so they can apply them to their systems.

    Correct Answer
    C. Test them on one computer to ensure that they solve your problem without any unforeseen consequences.
    Explanation
    Answer C is correct. Patches and updates should never be applied to all system units without applying them to test computers first. In fact, many security policies require an extensive testing process before a particular update is installed onto a system. If the patches or updates do not address the problems your system is experiencing, or if there would be no performance gain by applying them, you should not install them. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 9: Internet Security, section "Updates and Patches")

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  • 24. 

    What is the name of the process whereby the project manager acquires, processes and evaluates information from the customer to help identify the goals of the project?

    • A.

      Needs analysis

    • B.

      Project schedule

    • C.

      Scope creep

    • D.

      Statement Of Work

    Correct Answer
    A. Needs analysis
    Explanation
    Answer A is correct. A critical first step in the initiating phase is to conduct a needs analysis, which will help identify the goals of the project. A needs analysis identifies the problems or needs that the project must resolve or address. You can then translate the results of the needs analysis into the requirements that the project must meet. (Internet Business Associate, Lesson 10: IT Project and Program Management, section "Project Management Phases"

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  • 25. 

    Why would you use wmoticons in an w-mail message? 

    • A.

      To keep message content reasonably short

    • B.

      To indicate that one or more files is attached to the message

    • C.

      To help clarify the subject matter of the message

    • D.

      To help convey the intended tone of the message

    Correct Answer
    D. To help convey the intended tone of the message
    Explanation
    Answer is D. Your reader does not have the denefit of facial clues and tone of voice to help understand your message's inteded tone, but this practive is not professional and is best reserved for personal communication. For these reasons, be judicious when attempting to convey humor or sarcasm. In most cases, it is best to remain businesslike. Internet Business Associates v1.0. Lesson 6: E-mail and Personal Information Managment, section "E-mail in the Workplace"

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  • 26. 

    What is an e-mail thread?

    • A.

      An e-mail message that includes messages text tyoed in all capital letters

    • B.

      An e-mail message that includes information from the original e-mail message

    • C.

      An e-mail message that connot be retrieved once it has been sent

    • D.

      An e-mail message that is devoid of emoticons.

    Correct Answer
    B. An e-mail message that includes information from the original e-mail message
    Explanation
    Answer is B. In business communication, it is a good practive to include information from an original message in a response, generating what is known as an e-mail thread. Internet Business Associate v 1.0. Lesson 6: E-mail and Personal Information Managment, Section "E-mail in the Workplace."

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  • 27. 

    What is the common term for the default page that appears when a browser is intially opened?

    • A.

      The welcome page

    • B.

      The bookmarks page

    • C.

      The home page

    • D.

      The favorites page

    Correct Answer
    C. The home page
    Explanation
    The common term for the default page that appears when a browser is initially opened is the home page. This is the page that is set to load automatically when the browser is launched. It often contains a search bar, frequently visited websites, and other customizable features. The home page serves as a starting point for users to navigate the internet and access their preferred websites.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of a trademark?

    • A.

      A contract allowing you to use the beatles' digital graphics on your Website

    • B.

      Th apple icon on the cover of many Beatles albums

    • C.

      An MP3 file containing the Beatles' song "Hey Jude"

    • D.

      A chapter from John Lennon's book "In his Own Write"

    Correct Answer
    B. Th apple icon on the cover of many Beatles albums
    Explanation
    The apple icon on the cover of many Beatles albums is an example of a trademark because it is a distinctive symbol or design that identifies and distinguishes the source of the goods (the Beatles albums) from others in the marketplace. Trademarks are used to protect brand names, logos, symbols, and other elements that help consumers identify and associate products with a particular company or source.

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  • 29. 

    How will IPv6 be able to offer more Internet addresses than the current IPv4?

    • A.

      By using wireless network components

    • B.

      By requiring less overhead

    • C.

      By causing Internet usage to grow

    • D.

      By using 128-bit IP addresses

    Correct Answer
    D. By using 128-bit IP addresses
    Explanation
    IPv6 is able to offer more Internet addresses than IPv4 by using 128-bit IP addresses. IPv4 uses 32-bit IP addresses which limits the number of available addresses. With the introduction of IPv6 and its 128-bit IP addresses, the address space is significantly expanded, allowing for a much larger number of unique addresses. This expansion in address space ensures that there are enough addresses to accommodate the growing number of devices connected to the Internet.

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  • 30. 

    What is an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?

    • A.

      The company that provides telephone lines to your home office

    • B.

      An organization that maintains a gateway to the Internet and rents access to it

    • C.

      A dial-up or high-speed direct connection to the Internet

    • D.

      A computer system with an Internet connection and the correct software for Internet communication

    Correct Answer
    B. An organization that maintains a gateway to the Internet and rents access to it
    Explanation
    An Internet Service Provider (ISP) is an organization that maintains a gateway to the Internet and rents access to it. This means that ISPs provide the infrastructure and technology needed for individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet. They maintain the network and equipment necessary for transmitting data and provide services such as internet connectivity, email, and web hosting. ISPs essentially act as intermediaries between users and the Internet, allowing them to access and utilize online resources.

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  • 31. 

    What distinguishes instant messaging from e-mail?

    • A.

      Instant messages can be sent only to contacts who are currently online.

    • B.

      Instant message can display responses only when you click the Send/Receive button.

    • C.

      You do not access to a network in order to send and recive instant messages.

    • D.

      Instant messages can be sent to contacts wheather they are online or not

    Correct Answer
    A. Instant messages can be sent only to contacts who are currently online.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that instant messages can be sent only to contacts who are currently online. This is what distinguishes instant messaging from email. Unlike email, where messages can be sent and received at any time, instant messaging allows for real-time communication with contacts who are currently online. This means that instant messages are more immediate and can facilitate quicker conversations compared to email.

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  • 32. 

    If you were a project manager, which of the following documents would be the most helpful in evalusting project risks and determining whether you should escalate concerns to managers or executives outside the projects team for resolution?

    • A.

      A Gantt chart

    • B.

      An issues log

    • C.

      A SWOT analysis

    • D.

      A project schedule

    Correct Answer
    B. An issues log
    Explanation
    An issues log would be the most helpful document in evaluating project risks and determining whether to escalate concerns to managers or executives. An issues log is a record of all the identified issues or problems that arise during the project. It includes details such as the description of the issue, its impact, and potential solutions. By reviewing the issues log, the project manager can assess the severity and frequency of the issues, identify any patterns or trends, and make an informed decision about whether to escalate concerns to higher-level stakeholders for resolution.

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  • 33. 

    What does a closed-envelope icon next to an e-mail message header indicate?

    • A.

      A message marked for follow-up

    • B.

      A message that has not yet been read

    • C.

      A message marked for deletion

    • D.

      A message that has already been ready

    Correct Answer
    B. A message that has not yet been read
    Explanation
    The closed-envelope icon next to an email message header indicates that the message has not yet been read. This means that the recipient has not opened or viewed the email yet.

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  • 34. 

    Which is the native sound format for Microsoft Windows?

    • A.

      Ogg Vorbis (OGG)

    • B.

      Audio Interchange Files Format (AIFF)

    • C.

      Waveform (WAV)

    • D.

      Moving picture Experts Group, Audio Layer-3 (MP3)

    Correct Answer
    C. Waveform (WAV)
    Explanation
    The native sound format for Microsoft Windows is the Waveform (WAV) format. This format is widely supported by Windows and is commonly used for storing uncompressed audio files. It is a lossless format, meaning it retains all the original audio data without any quality loss. WAV files are compatible with most media players and can be easily edited or converted to other audio formats.

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  • 35. 

    A many-to-many database table relationship can best be described as a table relationship in which:

    • A.

      A record in Table A can have matching records in Table B, but a record in Table B has only one matching record in Table A.

    • B.

      No record in Table A has any matching records in Table B.

    • C.

      One record in Table A has any matching records in Table B, and vice versa.

    • D.

      Each record in Table A has any matching records in Table B, and vice versa.

    Correct Answer
    C. One record in Table A has any matching records in Table B, and vice versa.
    Explanation
    A many-to-many database table relationship can best be described as a table relationship in which each record in Table A has matching records in Table B, and vice versa. This means that multiple records in Table A can be associated with multiple records in Table B, and vice versa. It allows for a flexible and efficient way to represent complex relationships between entities in a database.

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  • 36. 

    Which TCP/IP troubleshooting command should you use to determine wheather a client and server are communicating with with each other?

    • A.

      The ipconfig command

    • B.

      The ping command

    • C.

      The tracert command

    • D.

      The config command

    Correct Answer
    B. The ping command
    Explanation
    The ping command is used to determine whether a client and server are communicating with each other in TCP/IP troubleshooting. It sends a small packet of data from the client to the server and waits for a response. If the server receives the packet and sends a response back, it confirms that communication is established between the client and server. Therefore, the ping command is the appropriate choice for this purpose.

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  • 37. 

    Which protocol is the data transmission standard for the Internet,  responsible for sending information from one computer to another using uniquely identifying addresses?

    • A.

      Internet control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)

    • B.

      Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

    • C.

      Transmission control protocol (TCP)

    • D.

      Internet Protocol (IP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Internet Protocol (IP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Internet Protocol (IP). IP is the data transmission standard for the Internet and is responsible for sending information from one computer to another using uniquely identifying addresses. It is a protocol that provides an addressing system to route data packets across networks and ensures that they reach their intended destinations. IP is the foundation of the Internet and allows for the seamless communication between devices connected to the network.

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  • 38. 

    In project management, an assignment is:

    • A.

      Aunit of work that must be accomplished

    • B.

      The appointment of a person, department or device to a unit of work

    • C.

      A person, department or device needed to accomplished a unit of work

    • D.

      A sequence of work units that must be accomplished within a defined time frame

    Correct Answer
    A. Aunit of work that must be accomplished
    Explanation
    An assignment in project management refers to a specific unit of work that needs to be completed. It could be a task, activity, or deliverable that is part of a larger project. Assignments are typically assigned to individuals, departments, or devices to ensure that the work is accomplished. This definition emphasizes the focus on the work itself rather than the individuals or resources involved.

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  • 39. 

    A Uniform Resource Locator (URL) ia an Internet address that performs which task?

    • A.

      Locates an Internet resource using an e-mail server

    • B.

      Identifies the method by which an Internet resource is accessed

    • C.

      Locates an Internet resource using a search engine

    • D.

      Identifies the search string used to locate an Internet resource

    Correct Answer
    D. Identifies the search string used to locate an Internet resource
    Explanation
    A Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a specific type of Internet address that identifies the search string used to locate an Internet resource. It provides the necessary information to access a specific resource on the internet, such as a webpage or a file. The URL includes the protocol (such as HTTP or HTTPS), the domain name or IP address of the server, and the specific path or query string that identifies the resource. It does not locate an Internet resource using an e-mail server, identify the method of access, or use a search engine to locate the resource.

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  • 40. 

    Which action can you perform to filter spam at your client computer?

    • A.

      Use CAPTCHA to distinguish human senders from automated senders.

    • B.

      Use SMTP authentication, which requiers a valid name and password for each message.

    • C.

      Configure your system to filter IP addresses contained in the latest blackhole list.

    • D.

      Use a client-side filter to identify and filter spam messages.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use a client-side filter to identify and filter spam messages.
    Explanation
    Using a client-side filter to identify and filter spam messages is an effective action to filter spam at your client computer. A client-side filter is a software or program installed on your computer that analyzes incoming emails and identifies spam based on various criteria such as keywords, sender reputation, and email headers. It can then automatically move spam messages to a separate folder or delete them altogether, reducing the clutter and potential harm caused by spam emails. This action helps to ensure that your inbox only contains legitimate and important emails, improving productivity and security.

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  • 41. 

    To support an Internet client, you must have six elements.  The first three -- a computer, an operating system and TCP/IP -- are generally acquired when you buy a computer.  Which choice lists the other three elements you need to support an Internet client?

    • A.

      Client software, Internet connection and Internet address

    • B.

      Network access, administrator perission and server software

    • C.

      Internet connection, Client software and server software

    • D.

      Server system, Internet connection and network access

    Correct Answer
    A. Client software, Internet connection and Internet address
    Explanation
    The correct answer is client software, internet connection, and internet address. These three elements are necessary to support an internet client. Client software is required to access and interact with internet services and websites. An internet connection is needed to establish a connection to the internet. An internet address, also known as an IP address, is essential for identifying and locating the internet client on the network.

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  • 42. 

    For which type of server -- used by your e-mail client -- is it especially important that you archive e-mail messages to your local heard drive

    • A.

      MIME server

    • B.

      POP3 server

    • C.

      IMAP server

    • D.

      SMTP server

    Correct Answer
    C. IMAP server
    Explanation
    When using an IMAP server for your email client, it is especially important to archive email messages to your local hard drive. This is because IMAP servers store emails on the server itself, and do not download them to your local device by default. By archiving the emails to your local hard drive, you ensure that you have a backup of your emails in case the server experiences any issues or if you need to access your emails offline.

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  • 43. 

    Direct connections provide continuous access to the Internet.  Many bandwidth options are associated with direct connections.  Which technology can transmit data over a network connection a speeds up to 1.544 Mbps?

    • A.

      E1

    • B.

      DSL

    • C.

      ISDN

    • D.

      T1

    Correct Answer
    D. T1
    Explanation
    T1 is the correct answer because it can transmit data over a network connection at speeds up to 1.544 Mbps. E1 is not the correct answer because it is a European standard that operates at a higher speed of 2.048 Mbps. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) and ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) are also not the correct answers as they have lower maximum speeds compared to T1.

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  • 44. 

    Which is the most important reason you should properly cite information that you obtain from an Internet search?

    • A.

      To avoid crediting the creators of the sites you used

    • B.

      To avoid plagiarzing someone else's work

    • C.

      To avoid using someone else's work for your own site or publication

    • D.

      To avoide contacting the original author

    Correct Answer
    B. To avoid plagiarzing someone else's work
    Explanation
    Properly citing information obtained from an Internet search is crucial to avoid plagiarizing someone else's work. Plagiarism is the act of using someone else's ideas, words, or work without giving them proper credit. By citing the sources used in an Internet search, you acknowledge the original authors and give them the credit they deserve. This not only demonstrates academic integrity but also ensures that you are not passing off someone else's work as your own.

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  • 45. 

    Which file format retains formatting information through all platforms and can be created and read on any computer regardless of the local operating system?

    • A.

      Encapsulated PostScript (EPS)

    • B.

      Rich Text Format (RTF)

    • C.

      Portable Document Format (PDF)

    • D.

      Microsoft Word (DOC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Portable Document Format (PDF)
    Explanation
    The Portable Document Format (PDF) is the correct answer because it retains formatting information through all platforms and can be created and read on any computer regardless of the local operating system. PDF files are widely used for sharing documents as they preserve the layout, fonts, images, and other elements of the original document, ensuring that it looks the same on any device or operating system. Unlike other file formats like EPS, RTF, and DOC, PDF is universally compatible and can be opened and viewed using free software like Adobe Acrobat Reader.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is a drawback of requiring SMTP authentication?

    • A.

      Chances are increased that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a valid digital certificate from the session.

    • B.

      The SMTP server may be used illicitly to send unsolicited junk mail.

    • C.

      The SMTP server will not send e-mail messages that are not digitally signed

    • D.

      Chances are increased that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a calid user name and password

    Correct Answer
    D. Chances are increased that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a calid user name and password
    Explanation
    Requiring SMTP authentication can increase the chances that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a valid username and password. This is because SMTP authentication involves sending login credentials over the network, which can be intercepted by a packet sniffer. Once the hacker obtains the valid username and password, they can potentially gain unauthorized access to the SMTP server and misuse it for sending unsolicited junk mail or engaging in other illicit activities.

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  • 47. 

    Which encryption method provides data integrity because, even though encrypted data is not decrypted, you can verify whether the data was altered after encryption?

    • A.

      RSA encryption

    • B.

      Symmetric-key encryption

    • C.

      Hash encryption

    • D.

      Asymmetric-key encryption

    Correct Answer
    C. Hash encryption
    Explanation
    Hash encryption provides data integrity because it generates a unique hash value for each set of data. This hash value is created using an algorithm and is unique to the specific data set. If any changes are made to the data after encryption, the hash value will also change. By comparing the original hash value with the newly generated one, it can be determined whether the data has been altered. This ensures that the integrity of the data is maintained even if it is not decrypted.

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  • 48. 

    Which term us used to describe a password-protected, encrypted data file that verifies the identity of the sender of a message?

    • A.

      Firewall

    • B.

      Digital certifcate

    • C.

      Encrypted key

    • D.

      Digital signature

    Correct Answer
    B. Digital certifcate
    Explanation
    A digital certificate is a password-protected, encrypted data file that verifies the identity of the sender of a message. It is used to ensure the authenticity and integrity of the message by providing a digital signature. This signature confirms that the message has not been tampered with and that it has been sent by the claimed sender. Therefore, a digital certificate is the correct term to describe this type of file.

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  • 49. 

    Which term is used to describe the componext that relates multiple tables of information in a relational database?

    • A.

      Juntion table

    • B.

      Common field

    • C.

      Primary key

    • D.

      Foreign key

    Correct Answer
    B. Common field
    Explanation
    A common field is used to describe the component that relates multiple tables of information in a relational database. It is a field that is shared between two or more tables and is used to establish a relationship or link between them. By having a common field, data can be linked and retrieved from different tables, allowing for efficient and organized storage and retrieval of information in a relational database.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is an example of ethical Internet behavior?

    • A.

      Requestion personal information about others during an Internet chat session

    • B.

      Downloading any songs and movies from the Internet

    • C.

      Downloading and using shareware, which is free

    • D.

      Citing information you find on the Internet that you use in your own work

    Correct Answer
    C. Downloading and using shareware, which is free
    Explanation
    Downloading and using shareware, which is free, is an example of ethical Internet behavior. Shareware is software that is made available for free by the developer for users to try before purchasing. By downloading and using shareware, individuals are respecting the developer's rights and intentions. This behavior promotes fairness and honesty in the online community.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Cassirl
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