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Medication Exam

50 Questions  I  By Tempsinc
Medication Exam

  
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1.  Colestid 1 G is ordered BID, a.c. This means to administer it:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  In what disease is the administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) contraindicated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Symptoms of digitalis toxicity include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  The antihypertensive Tenormin (atenolol) 50 mg q.d. has been previously ordered for a patient. Today, the physician increased the order to 100 mg q.d. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse before administering this medication? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  During administration of Heparin via an IV drip, which of the following labs may be ordered as frequently as q6 hrs:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which of the following is not a medication error?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Laboratory values have indicated an overdosage of Coumadin in a patient. What drug is the antidote?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  If a patient had an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin, which of the following drugs are contraindicated for this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  The most dangerous side effect of morphine sulfate is its:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  What drug is contraindicated for the patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  Two serious side effects of Gentamycin or Tobramycin are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  The chief danger in giving an IM injection in the wrong area of the buttock is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  When sodium warfarin (Coumadin) is given, the nurse should monitor the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  All of the following are correct statements about subcutaneous injections EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  Which of the following are the most important considerations when administering a drug via IV push?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which of the following are appropriate patient education instructions to the patient taking a medication sublingually?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  All of the statements below are appropriate patient education for a patient starting on an antihypertensive EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Which of the following are patient symptoms reflecting a potential drug allergy requiring immediate treatment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Many drugs are metabolized or eliminated via the liver or kidney. When a particular drug is nephrotoxic, what laboratory test should be monitored for the safety of the patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  The most appropriate size needle for administering an IM injection to a 200 lb male with a non-viscous solution is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  The liver usually metabolizes most drugs into compounds that are more easily excreted via the kidneys. Advancing age decreases both liver blood flow and levels of microsomal enzymes which decreases metabolism, causing the drug to accumulate to potentially high levels in the body. What laboratory values are used to monitor for hepatic function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Betagan eyedrops are ordered for a patient. Which of these abbreviations indicate the eyedrops are to be instilled into both of the patient's eyes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  The nurse gives a patient's routine medicines and the patient states, "I had fewer capsules than this yesterday." Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  You need to administer an unfamiliar medication. Which of the following are appropriate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Before administering the first dose of an IV antibiotic, the nurse should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  A patient is receiving Gentamycin 80 mg q 12 hrs. The patient is to receive the 4th dose today at 8 pm to infuse over 30 minutes. The physician has ordered peak and trough blood levels with the 4th dose. At which of these times should the peak blood level be drawn?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  A hypokalemic patient is receiving an infusion of NS containing 60 meq potassium chloride at 100 ml/hr. Which of the following is most appropriate for the patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Your patient is receiving IV therapy via a triple-lumen central line including Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) at 75 ml/hr, an IV of NS at 20 ml/hr, and two antibiotics, one ordered q8 hr and another q6 hr. Which of the following symptoms could suggest your patient has fluid overload?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Some oral medications may upset the stomach and should be given:
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  The physician orders 100 mg of Demerol PO every 4 hours PRN incision pain. Demerol 50 mg tablets are available. The nurse should administer:
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  The physician orders 8 mg of Morphine Sulfate to be given by injection. The vial on hand is labeled 10 mg/1 ml. The nurse should administer:
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  The physician orders Amicar Elixir 4 grams PO. The bottle is labeled 250 mg/1 ml. The nurse should administer:
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  Which of the following drugs may never be given via an IV push?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  The physician orders 1200 mg of an antibiotic QID IVPB via a Heplock. The vial contains a powdered antibiotic to which diluent is added. The resulting solution contains 1 gram of drug per 3 ml. When adding this solution to D5W IVPB, the nurse should use:
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  A client who takes 4 tablets of buffered aspirin 4 times a day complains of dizziness and ringing in the ears. The nurse should recognize that the client is probably experiencing: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  A client is to be discharged. When discussing pain management, the nurse should advise the client to take the prescribed PRN Tylenol with Codeine:
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  The physician orders a low dose of narcotic to relieve the pain of a client with deep partial thickness burns. The nurse recognizes that the preferred mode of administration is: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  A client with hypertensive heart disease who had an acute episode of congestive heart failure is to be discharged on a regimen of Propranolol HCL (Inderal) and Digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should be aware that the Inderal, when administered with Lanoxin, may:
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  A client is to continue to take Digoxin (Lanoxin) following discharge from the hospital. The nurse would know the teaching concerning Digoxin is understood when the client states, “I should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  The physician prescribes Cimetidine (Tagamet) and Maalox for a client with a peptic ulcer. The nurse should teach the client to take these drugs:
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  A client is admitted to the hospital for abdominal surgery for cancer of the Pancreas. Before surgery, Demerol is ordered for pain. The nurse recognizes that Morphine would be contraindicated for this client because it:
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  A client is admitted to the hospital for abdominal surgery for cancer of the Pancreas. Before surgery, Demerol is ordered for pain. The nurse recognizes that Morphine would be contraindicated for this client because it:
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Regulatory agencies specify that two patient identifiers are to be used before administering medications. Which method is best for identifying patients using two patient identifiers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  The nurse is caring for a patient with leukemia who is receiving the drug Doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Which toxic effects of this drug should be reported to the physician immediately?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  The physician has ordered atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM before surgery. The medication is supplied in 0.8 mg per milliliter. The nurse should administer how many milliliters of the medication? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  The physician has ordered a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the patient with chronic pain. The patient asks the nurse if he can become overdosed with pain medication using this machine. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the PCA if she states: 
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Which is true regarding the administration of antacids?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  The patient is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  The physician has ordered Percocet (Oxycodone) for a patient following abdominal surgery. The primary objective of nursing care for the patient receiving an opiate analgesic is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  The physician has prescribed aspirin 325 mg daily for a patient with transient ischemic attacks. The nurse explains that aspirin was prescribed to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
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