Jet Engine Mechanic 5 Level EOC Pretest (2A651)
This a cummulative pretest of all 5 volumes. A typical pretest for this AFSC
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
NCO academy
- B.
On the Job training
- C.
Career development course
- D.
Task qualification training
Correct Answer
C. Career development courseExplanation
A career development course is a type of training that is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training is designed to enhance their skills, knowledge, and abilities in their specific career field. It typically covers a wide range of topics related to the job, including industry trends, best practices, and advanced techniques. By completing a career development course, individuals can acquire the necessary knowledge and expertise to excel in their job and advance in their career.Rate this question:
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- 2.
You may attend ADLS after having how many months in the Air Force?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, one is eligible to attend ADLS.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series :
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91 -
- 4.
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101Explanation
Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates maintenance personnel to exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet to the rear
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet to the rear
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rearExplanation
A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthorized access
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized accessExplanation
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized access to ensure the safety and security of the stored materials. Unauthorized access can lead to potential accidents, spills, or intentional harm to the environment and individuals. By restricting access to authorized personnel only, the risk of mishandling or misuse of hazardous materials is minimized, ensuring the proper containment and management of the waste.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AFTO form 350
- C.
AFTO form 349
- D.
DD form 1574
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005Explanation
If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for ordering and requesting supplies and equipment in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager
- B.
Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a systemExplanation
A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency is critical and has the potential to result in significant harm or loss if not addressed. It is important to track and address these types of deficiencies to prevent any major damage or loss to the equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The First part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO
- D.
Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
Correct Answer
C. Category and type of equipment in the TOExplanation
The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment in the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific equipment that the TO is referring to. It helps in classifying and categorizing the TOs based on the type of equipment they pertain to, making it easier for users to locate the relevant TO for a particular equipment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1Explanation
TO stands for Technical Order, which is a directive issued by the Air Force to provide instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of equipment. In this question, the correct answer is 00-5-1, as it covers information concerning the Air Force TO system. The other options, 00-5-2, 00-20-1, and 00-20-2, may cover different topics or aspects of the Air Force, but they do not specifically address the TO system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions
Correct Answer
C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failuresExplanation
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any decrease in performance or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for timely intervention and prevention of further damage to the engines. This goal is different from the other options provided, which focus on reviewing past accident reports, tracking components, and documenting specific conditions. The emphasis on early detection aligns with the objective of preventing or limiting damage to turbine engines.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
Participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories 2 years ahead. This means that they should speed up the development and production of these components by 2 years in order to meet the desired timeline or target.Rate this question:
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- 13.
You adjust a micrometer by turning the
- A.
Barrel
- B.
Frame
- C.
Spindle
- D.
Thimble
Correct Answer
D. ThimbleExplanation
The correct answer is "thimble". A micrometer is a precision measuring instrument used to measure small distances or thicknesses. The thimble is a rotating component of the micrometer that is adjusted to precisely measure the object being measured. By turning the thimble, the user can adjust the position of the spindle, which moves the measuring faces of the micrometer closer together or further apart, allowing for accurate measurements to be taken. The barrel and frame are other components of the micrometer, but they are not directly involved in the adjustment process.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
- A.
Function selcector
- B.
Range-mode pushbutton switch
- C.
Touch-hold pushbutton switch
- D.
Volts,ohms,diode test input jack
Correct Answer
B. Range-mode pushbutton switchExplanation
The range-mode pushbutton switch on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC. This switch allows the user to select the appropriate range for measuring voltage or current, ensuring accurate readings. By pressing the range-mode pushbutton switch, the user can cycle through different ranges and select the one that is suitable for the measurement being performed. This feature is essential in multimeters as it allows for flexibility and precision in measuring both AC and DC signals.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
- A.
Age
- B.
Maturity
- C.
Rank
- D.
Experience
Correct Answer
A. AgeExplanation
The factor that is not considered for borescope operator certification is age. Borescope operator certification typically focuses on factors such as maturity, rank, and experience, which are more relevant to the individual's skills and abilities in operating a borescope. Age is not a determining factor in assessing one's competency in this field.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The proper bolt length should allow a minimum of 2 threads protruding the nut. This is important for ensuring a secure and tight connection between the bolt and nut. Having at least 2 threads engaged provides enough engagement for proper load distribution and prevents the nut from easily coming loose. It also helps to prevent stripping or damaging the threads, which could compromise the integrity of the connection. Therefore, 2 threads is the minimum requirement for a safe and effective bolt and nut assembly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
- A.
Clevis
- B.
Hex head
- C.
Special purpose
- D.
Internal wrenching
Correct Answer
D. Internal wrenchingExplanation
Internal wrenching bolts, also known as socket head bolts or Allen bolts, are commonly used in high-tension applications. These bolts have a hexagonal socket on the head, allowing them to be tightened or loosened using an Allen wrench or hex key. The internal wrenching design provides a secure and tight connection, making them suitable for applications that require high tension or torque. Clevis, hex head, and special purpose bolts may also be used in various applications, but they are not specifically designed for high-tension situations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How is a screw length measured?
- A.
Thread length of treads
- B.
Base of the head to the bottom of the threads
- C.
Length of the shank plus the threaded portion
- D.
Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads
Correct Answer
D. Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threadsExplanation
The correct answer is "Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads." This is because when measuring the length of a screw, you start from the top of the screw's head and measure down to the bottom of the screw threads. This measurement includes both the shank (the smooth portion of the screw) and the threaded portion.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
- A.
6-8
- B.
8-10
- C.
10-12
- D.
12-14
Correct Answer
B. 8-10Explanation
Lockwiring is a method used to secure fasteners in place by twisting a wire around them. The proper stiffness is necessary to ensure that the fasteners do not loosen or come undone. In this case, the correct answer is 8-10 twists per inch. This means that for every inch of wire used for lockwiring, it should be twisted 8-10 times. This range of twists provides the right amount of tension and stiffness to keep the fasteners securely in place.Rate this question:
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- 20.
You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
- A.
Their intentional orange color
- B.
The different colors of the tubing or hoses
- C.
The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses
- D.
The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses
Correct Answer
D. The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hosesExplanation
The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses can be used to identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines. This method allows for easy visual recognition of the different lines, as each color represents a specific system. The use of colored tape eliminates the need for embossing specifications on the tubing or hoses, and it is a more practical and efficient way to differentiate between the lines compared to using different colors of tubing or hoses or relying on their orange color.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
- A.
20
- B.
25
- C.
30
- D.
35
Correct Answer
A. 20Explanation
In order for a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than 20% of the tubing diameter. This means that if the dent exceeds 20% of the tubing diameter, it may compromise the integrity and functionality of the tubing. Therefore, it is important to ensure that any dents in the tubing are smaller than this threshold to maintain its serviceability.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
- A.
Look for leaks
- B.
Change the oil filter
- C.
Inspect for missing parts
- D.
Inspect the compressor inlet
Correct Answer
D. Inspect the compressor inletExplanation
Upon receiving an engine in the shop, one should inspect the compressor inlet. This is an important step to ensure that there are no blockages or damages that could affect the engine's performance. By inspecting the compressor inlet, any potential issues can be identified and addressed before further examination or repairs are conducted. It is a crucial part of the overall inspection process to guarantee the engine's proper functioning and prevent any potential damage or malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
To release internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
- A.
Parting surface nuts
- B.
Parting surface bolts
- C.
Filler valve on the side of the container
- D.
Filler valve on the front of the container
Correct Answer
D. Filler valve on the front of the containerExplanation
The correct answer is filler valve on the front of the container. This is because the filler valve is the component that allows the release of internal air pressure in the shipping container/module. By removing the filler valve on the front of the container, the air pressure inside can be equalized with the external pressure, ensuring safe handling and transportation of the container.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
Correct Answer
C. B-4Explanation
The correct answer is B-4. This maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What information is found in Part 1 of an AFTO form 244?
- A.
Supervisory review
- B.
Item identification
- C.
Employee number blocks
- D.
Nonscheduled inspection blocks
Correct Answer
B. Item identificationExplanation
Part 1 of an AFTO form 244 contains information related to item identification. This means that it includes details about the specific item or equipment being inspected or reviewed. This section may include information such as the item's name, model number, serial number, or any other identifying information that is necessary for tracking and documenting the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 26.
"An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce an acceleration in the direction of the force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body" This statement is
- A.
Bernoulli's principle
- B.
Newton's first law of motion
- C.
Newton's second law of motion
- D.
Newton's third law of motion
Correct Answer
C. Newton's second law of motionExplanation
This statement is Newton's second law of motion. It states that an unbalanced force acting on a body will cause the body to accelerate in the direction of the force. The magnitude of the acceleration is directly proportional to the force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the body. This law is commonly expressed as F = ma, where F is the force, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?
- A.
Turbine
- B.
Exhaust
- C.
Diffuser
- D.
Combustion
Correct Answer
A. TurbineExplanation
The turbine section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating. The turbine is connected to the compressor through a shaft, and as the hot gases from the combustion chamber pass through the turbine, they cause the turbine blades to rotate. This rotation is then transferred to the compressor, which helps to maintain the continuous flow of air into the engine and maintain its performance.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the sea-level atmosperic pressure at "standard day" conditions?
- A.
13.5
- B.
14.7
- C.
49.94
- D.
40.55
Correct Answer
B. 14.7Explanation
The sea-level atmospheric pressure at "standard day" conditions is 14.7. Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air above a certain point. At sea level, the average atmospheric pressure is 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi) or 1013.25 millibars (mb). This value is considered the standard atmospheric pressure and is used as a reference point for weather measurements and calculations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure?
- A.
Increases pressure
- B.
Decreases Pressure
- C.
Has no effect
- D.
Results in pressure fluctuations
Correct Answer
A. Increases pressureExplanation
The divergent design of a diffuser increases air pressure. A diffuser is a device that is used to slow down and expand the flow of a fluid, in this case, air. The divergent design of a diffuser gradually increases the cross-sectional area, which causes the air to slow down and increase in pressure. This is because the increased area allows the air molecules to spread out, resulting in a decrease in velocity and an increase in pressure. Therefore, the divergent design of a diffuser increases air pressure.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?
- A.
Flameholder
- B.
Combustion chamber
- C.
Turbine wheel blades
- D.
Turbine stator
Correct Answer
D. Turbine statorExplanation
The turbine stator is responsible for directing the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine. It is a stationary component that is located downstream of the combustion chamber. The stator vanes in the turbine stator guide the flow of hot gases from the combustion chamber onto the turbine blades, which in turn convert the gas energy into mechanical energy to drive the engine.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to
- A.
Act as a vibation damper
- B.
Allow cooling air to the turbine
- C.
Provide a passage for lubricating oil
- D.
Provide a passage for the main fuel supply
Correct Answer
D. Provide a passage for the main fuel supplyExplanation
The forward end of the shaft on a centrifugal compressor is hollow in order to provide a passage for the main fuel supply. This is because the main fuel supply needs to reach the combustion chamber of the compressor in order to facilitate the combustion process and generate power. By having a hollow shaft, the fuel can easily flow through it and reach the necessary components for combustion.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and
- A.
Fir tree
- B.
Shrouded
- C.
Unshrouded
- D.
Reaction-impulse
Correct Answer
D. Reaction-impulseExplanation
The correct answer is "reaction-impulse". In jet engines, three types of turbine and vane assemblies are used: impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse. The reaction-impulse type combines the characteristics of both impulse and reaction turbines, making it versatile and efficient. It is designed to harness the energy of the high-speed exhaust gases while also utilizing the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the turbine blades. This combination allows for optimal power generation and overall performance in jet engines.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they
- A.
Wear faster
- B.
Attract dirt
- C.
Cause oxidation
- D.
Get soaked with sweat
Correct Answer
D. Get soaked with sweatExplanation
When handling jet engine bearings, it is important to change cotton gloves frequently because they can get soaked with sweat. This is because the work environment of handling jet engine bearings can be physically demanding and cause sweating. If the gloves become soaked with sweat, they can become uncomfortable to wear and may affect the grip and dexterity required for handling the delicate bearings. Additionally, sweat-soaked gloves can also become unhygienic and increase the risk of contamination or transfer of dirt and oil onto the bearings, which could potentially cause damage.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The recommended method of heating inner reaces of bearings before installing them is
- A.
Hot-oil bath
- B.
Portable heater
- C.
Bearing furnace
- D.
Hydraulic bath
Correct Answer
A. Hot-oil bathExplanation
The recommended method of heating inner races of bearings before installing them is a hot-oil bath. This involves immersing the bearings in a bath of heated oil, which allows for even and controlled heating of the inner races. This method ensures that the bearings reach the desired temperature without causing any damage or distortion. Additionally, the hot-oil bath method is convenient and widely used in industries for bearing installation.Rate this question:
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- 35.
On the T56 turboprop engine, which compressor section assmebly disperses compressor discharge air and directs it to the combustion chambers?
- A.
Diffuser
- B.
Compressor rotor
- C.
Compressor housing
- D.
Compressor air inlet housing
Correct Answer
D. Compressor air inlet housingExplanation
The compressor air inlet housing is responsible for dispersing the compressor discharge air and directing it to the combustion chambers. It is designed to efficiently channel the air from the compressor section to the combustion chambers, ensuring proper fuel combustion and engine performance. The diffuser, compressor rotor, and compressor housing have different functions within the engine but are not specifically responsible for dispersing the compressor discharge air and directing it to the combustion chambers.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to
- A.
Increase velocity
- B.
Increase pressure
- C.
Decrease pressure
- D.
Prolong compressor life
Correct Answer
B. Increase pressureExplanation
The stationary (stator) vane blades on the T56 compressor are used to increase pressure. These blades are strategically placed in the compressor to redirect the airflow and increase its pressure as it passes through. By creating a narrower passage for the air, the stator blades effectively squeeze the air molecules closer together, resulting in an increase in pressure. This increased pressure is essential for the efficient functioning of the compressor and the overall performance of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies are the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the
- A.
Nacelle structure
- B.
Hydraulic pump
- C.
Electric generator
- D.
Tailpipe assembly
Correct Answer
A. Nacelle structureExplanation
The AE2100D3 power plant major assemblies include the PGB, torquemeter assembly, power section, accessory drives, and the nacelle structure. The nacelle structure is an important component of the power plant as it houses and supports the engine and other major assemblies. It provides structural integrity and aerodynamic efficiency to the power plant. Without a properly functioning nacelle structure, the power plant may not be able to operate efficiently and safely.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What routes oil and fuel through the T700 engine AGB?
- A.
Internal lines
- B.
External lines
- C.
Internal passages
- D.
External passages
Correct Answer
C. Internal passagesExplanation
The T700 engine AGB routes oil and fuel through internal passages. These passages are located within the engine and are responsible for transporting oil and fuel to various components and subsystems within the engine. Unlike external lines or passages, which are located outside of the engine, internal passages ensure that the oil and fuel are contained within the engine and are properly distributed to where they are needed.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What percentage of the total engine thrust does secondary airflow on the F108 engine produce?
- A.
20
- B.
50
- C.
80
- D.
100
Correct Answer
C. 80Explanation
The secondary airflow on the F108 engine produces 80% of the total engine thrust.Rate this question:
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- 40.
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the No. 1 bearing assembly is located in the
- A.
Diffuser case
- B.
Rear fan duct
- C.
Intermediate case
- D.
Front compressor stator inlet shroud
Correct Answer
D. Front compressor stator inlet shroudExplanation
The No. 1 bearing assembly on an F100-PW-220 engine is located in the front compressor stator inlet shroud. This component is responsible for directing the airflow into the compressor and plays a crucial role in the engine's overall performance. The bearing assembly is housed within the inlet shroud to provide support and ensure smooth rotation of the compressor blades. It is positioned at the front of the engine to efficiently capture and guide the incoming air into the compressor section.Rate this question:
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- 41.
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through
- A.
A transfer drive shaft
- B.
A gearbox drive shaft
- C.
A radial drive shaft
- D.
An axial drive shaft
Correct Answer
B. A gearbox drive shaftExplanation
The correct answer is a gearbox drive shaft. In an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through a gearbox drive shaft. This drive shaft is responsible for transferring power from the rear compressor to the gearbox module, allowing for the proper functioning of the engine. The other options, such as the transfer drive shaft, radial drive shaft, and axial drive shaft, are not mentioned or relevant in this context.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which bearing compartment is contained in the intermediate case of the F119-pw-100 engine?
- A.
No.1 and No.2 bearing
- B.
No.2 and No.3 bearing
- C.
No.3 and No. 4 bearing
- D.
No.4 bearing and No.5 bearing
Correct Answer
B. No.2 and No.3 bearingExplanation
The intermediate case of the F119-pw-100 engine contains the No.2 and No.3 bearing compartments.Rate this question:
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- 43.
On the F119-PW-100 engine, which of the following is not attached to the gearbox assembly?
- A.
Actuator fuel pump
- B.
Main fuel pump
- C.
Augmenter fuel control
- D.
Engine generator
Correct Answer
C. Augmenter fuel controlExplanation
The augmenter fuel control is not attached to the gearbox assembly on the F119-PW-100 engine. The other options, including the actuator fuel pump, main fuel pump, and engine generator, are all attached to the gearbox assembly.Rate this question:
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- 44.
At room temperature how many times longer does it take water to settle in JP8 than in gasoline?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
Water takes 4 times longer to settle in JP8 than in gasoline at room temperature.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Operational control of the F108 engine is acheived by the use of the power lever, fuel shutoff lever and
- A.
Fuel pump
- B.
Oil heat exchanger
- C.
Air fuel exchanger
- D.
PMC
Correct Answer
D. PMCExplanation
The operational control of the F108 engine is achieved through the use of the power lever, fuel shutoff lever, and the PMC (Power Management Computer). The PMC is responsible for monitoring and controlling various engine parameters such as fuel flow, thrust, and engine performance. It receives inputs from the power lever and fuel shutoff lever to adjust these parameters accordingly. Therefore, the PMC plays a crucial role in managing and controlling the operation of the F108 engine.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown ?
- A.
Servo valve
- B.
Fuel check vavle
- C.
Electric shutoff valve
- D.
Latching shutoff valve
Correct Answer
D. Latching shutoff valveExplanation
The AE2100D3 FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) controls the latching shutoff valve. This valve is responsible for shutting down the engine in both normal and emergency situations. During a normal engine shutdown, the FADEC controls the latching shutoff valve through the ENGINE START switch. In case of an emergency shutdown, the valve is controlled by the fire control handle. Therefore, the latching shutoff valve is the component that is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC for normal engine shutdown and by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
- A.
TD valve
- B.
Main fuel pump
- C.
TD amplifier
- D.
Fuel control
Correct Answer
A. TD valveExplanation
The TD valve is the component of the T56 engine that sends the fuel to the fuel manifold.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon seal is provided by
- A.
Air pressure
- B.
Spring spressure
- C.
Hydraulic pressure
- D.
Oil pressure
Correct Answer
B. Spring spressureExplanation
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that the carbon seal is compressed and held in place by the force exerted by a spring. This ensures that the seal remains in contact with the mating surface and prevents any leakage or loss of pressure. Spring pressure is a reliable and consistent method of providing the necessary preload for a carbon seal when the engine is not in operation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The F100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature, and
- A.
Oil jet pressure
- B.
Fan turbine speed
- C.
Oil nozzle condition
- D.
Number of oil jets used
Correct Answer
C. Oil nozzle conditionExplanation
The F100 engine oil pressure can vary based on several factors including N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature, and oil nozzle condition. The condition of the oil nozzle plays a crucial role in regulating the oil pressure within the engine. If the nozzle is damaged or clogged, it may restrict the flow of oil, leading to a decrease in oil pressure. On the other hand, a well-maintained and properly functioning oil nozzle will ensure the proper flow of oil, resulting in the desired oil pressure levels.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side the engine
- A.
Wet sump
- B.
Dry sump
- C.
Hot tank
- D.
Cold tank
Correct Answer
B. Dry sumpExplanation
A dry sump oil system is a type of oil system that stores the oil in a separate tank, typically mounted to the side of the engine. This system is commonly used in high-performance and racing engines as it offers several advantages over a wet sump system. By storing the oil externally, it allows for a larger oil capacity, better oil control, and reduced oil foaming. It also prevents oil starvation during high-speed cornering or acceleration, ensuring proper lubrication of engine components. Therefore, the correct answer is dry sump.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 25, 2010Quiz Created by
ZachGTI
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