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Histology MCQ

460 Questions
MCQ Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    When using a compound microscope, objective lenses can be found to have a magnification of all of the following, EXCEPT?
    • A. 

      4X

    • B. 

      10X

    • C. 

      40X

    • D. 

      100X

    • E. 

      1000X

  • 2. 
    What is "compound microscope"?
    • A. 

      Microscope with the capability to view oil immersion

    • B. 

      Microscope with the capability to view compounds

    • C. 

      Microscope with a single lens

    • D. 

      Microscope with two lenses

    • E. 

      Microscope with three lenses

  • 3. 
    What is the total magnification achieved with a compound microscope?
    • A. 

      Magnification of objective lens

    • B. 

      Magnification of ocular lens

    • C. 

      Magnification of ocular lens added to the magnification of the objective lens

    • D. 

      Magnification of ocular lens multiplied by the magnification of the objective

    • E. 

      Magnification of condenser lens multiplied by the magnification of the objective lens

  • 4. 
    What is the maximum resolving power seen with a compound microscope?
    • A. 

      2 millimeters

    • B. 

      2 micrometers

    • C. 

      2 angstroms

  • 5. 
    What is the turret?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Nosepiece

    • C. 

      Stage

    • D. 

      Tube

    • E. 

      Diaphragm

  • 6. 
    On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Nosepiece

    • C. 

      Stage

    • D. 

      Tube

    • E. 

      Diaphragm

  • 7. 
    In a good compound microscope, the focus knob does not have to be readjusted  when changing the magnification. What is this phenomenon called?
    • A. 

      Parfocal

    • B. 

      Unifocal

    • C. 

      Bifocal

    • D. 

      Focused

    • E. 

      Convergent

  • 8. 
    What is another name for the light microscope?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 9. 
    Which microscope does not rely on visible light?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 10. 
    Which microscope makes things appear three dimensional?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 11. 
    When using a compound microscope, what is the magnification of the oil immersion lens?
    • A. 

      4X

    • B. 

      10X

    • C. 

      40X

    • D. 

      100X

    • E. 

      1000X

  • 12. 
    What is the usual magnification of the ocular lens on a compound microscope?
    • A. 

      1X

    • B. 

      10X

    • C. 

      100X

    • D. 

      1000X

    • E. 

      10,000 X

  • 13. 
    When using oil immersion to view a tissue, what is the refractive index of the oil?
    • A. 

      Zero

    • B. 

      Same as air

    • C. 

      Same as glass

    • D. 

      Same as water

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 14. 
    What is the role of the condenser lens?
    • A. 

      Control the aperture of light

    • B. 

      Increase the magnification

    • C. 

      Focus the light on the specimen

    • D. 

      Initial magnification of 10X

    • E. 

      Provide light

  • 15. 
    On a microscope, what structure varies the diameter of the cone of light?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Nosepiece

    • C. 

      Stage

    • D. 

      Tube

    • E. 

      Diaphragm

  • 16. 
    Where do you place the slide when using a microscope?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Nosepiece

    • C. 

      Stage

    • D. 

      Tube

    • E. 

      Diaphragm

  • 17. 
    What is the bottom of a microscope called?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Nosepiece

    • C. 

      Stage

    • D. 

      Tube

    • E. 

      Diaphragm

  • 18. 
    What is another name for the bright field microscope?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 19. 
    Which microscope would be particularly useful for looking at living cells?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 20. 
    Which type of microscope has only one lens?
    • A. 

      Simple microscope

    • B. 

      Compound microscope

    • C. 

      Phase contrast microscope

    • D. 

      Dissection microscope

    • E. 

      Transmission electron microscope

  • 21. 
    Which of the following stain blue with H&E stain?
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Collagen fibers

    • C. 

      Nucleus

    • D. 

      Elastic fibers

    • E. 

      Decalcified bone matrix

  • 22. 
    What are Sudan stains used primarily for?
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Nervous tissue

    • D. 

      Elastic fibers

    • E. 

      Decalcified bone matrix

  • 23. 
    What is Mucicarmine stain used primarily for?
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Nervous tissue

    • D. 

      Elastic fibers

    • E. 

      Epithelial mucin

  • 24. 
    What is Wright's stain used primarily for?
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Nervous tissue

    • D. 

      Elastic fibers

    • E. 

      Decalcified bone matrix

  • 25. 
    What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?
    • A. 

      Red/Orange

    • B. 

      Pink/red

    • C. 

      Purple/Red

    • D. 

      Blue/black

    • E. 

      Green/blue

  • 26. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, what step occurs after the tissue is preserved?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Embedding in paraffin

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 27. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, how is the tissue preserved?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Embedding in paraffin

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 28. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, what allows the tissue to be visualized?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Embedding in paraffin

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 29. 
    Which of the following would be best suited to visualize reticular fibers?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 31. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, what allows the tissue to hold its form? 
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Embedding in paraffin

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 32. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, what step occurs after the tissue is embedded in paraffin?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Rehydration

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 33. 
    During the preparation of a routine H&E slide, what step occurs after the tissue is stained?
    • A. 

      Fixation

    • B. 

      Embedding in paraffin

    • C. 

      Staining

    • D. 

      Slicing

    • E. 

      Dehydration

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is an acid dye?
    • A. 

      Azure II

    • B. 

      Toluidine blue

    • C. 

      Methylene blue

    • D. 

      Eosin

    • E. 

      Thionine

  • 35. 
    Which of the following would be best suited for peripheral blood smears?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 36. 
    Which of the following stains is used for routine histological examination?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 37. 
    What is Prussian blue stain used for?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Potassium

    • C. 

      Calcium

    • D. 

      Copper

    • E. 

      Iron

  • 38. 
    What color does hematoxylin stain structures?
    • A. 

      Orange

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Pink

    • D. 

      Red

    • E. 

      Green

  • 39. 
    Which of the following would be best suited to differentiate collagen fibers from other fibers ?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 40. 
    Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?
    • A. 

      Lysosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisomes

    • C. 

      Mitochondria

    • D. 

      Ribosomes

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 41. 
    Which organelle contains digestive enzymes?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 42. 
    Which organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 43. 
    What structure is at the base of cilia?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisome

    • C. 

      Microfilaments

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      Nucleoli

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is NOT considered an inclusion?
    • A. 

      Pigment

    • B. 

      Glycogen

    • C. 

      Lipid

    • D. 

      Secretory granules

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 45. 
    Collectively, what is the cytoplasm and nucleus called?
    • A. 

      Plasmalemma

    • B. 

      Glycocalyx

    • C. 

      Protoplasm

    • D. 

      Cristae

    • E. 

      Ground substance

  • 46. 
    How thick is the plasma membrane?
    • A. 

      8-10 angstroms

    • B. 

      8-10 nanometers

    • C. 

      8-10 micrometers

    • D. 

      8-10 millimeters

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 47. 
    What is the term for the general process that cells us to expunge material from the cell?
    • A. 

      Endocytosis

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Pinocytosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

    • E. 

      Active transport

  • 48. 
    Which organelle sorts and packages proteins within a cell?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?
    • A. 

      Lysosomes

    • B. 

      Filaments

    • C. 

      Peroxisomes

    • D. 

      Mitochondria

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 50. 
    What are the folds on the inner mitochodrial membrane called?
    • A. 

      Plasmalemma

    • B. 

      Glycocalyx

    • C. 

      Protoplasm

    • D. 

      Cristae

    • E. 

      Ground substance

  • 51. 
    Which organelle is involved in lipid metabolism?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 52. 
    Which organelle contains detoxifying enzymes?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisome

    • C. 

      Microfilaments

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      Nucleoli

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?
    • A. 

      Microtubules

    • B. 

      Lysosomes

    • C. 

      Peroxisomes

    • D. 

      Mitochondria

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 54. 
    What is the limiting membrane of a cell?
    • A. 

      Plasmalemma

    • B. 

      Glycocalyx

    • C. 

      Protoplasm

    • D. 

      Cristae

    • E. 

      Ground substance

  • 55. 
    What is also called a low resistance junction?
    • A. 

      Tight junction

    • B. 

      Gap junction

    • C. 

      Junctional epithelium

    • D. 

      Junctional complex

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is an organelle?
    • A. 

      Pigment

    • B. 

      Glycogen

    • C. 

      Lipid

    • D. 

      Secretory granules

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 57. 
    What is the term for the general process that cells us to bring things into the cell?
    • A. 

      Endocytosis

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Pinocytosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

    • E. 

      Active transport

  • 58. 
    Which organelle produces protein for export?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Cytoskeleton

    • B. 

      Peroxisome

    • C. 

      Microfilaments

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      Nucleoli

  • 60. 
    What is the term for the process used by cells for the transport in of particulate matter?
    • A. 

      Endocytosis

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Pinocytosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

    • E. 

      Active transport

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Plasmalemma

    • B. 

      Glycocalyx

    • C. 

      Protoplasm

    • D. 

      Cristae

    • E. 

      Ground substance

  • 62. 
    What is the a small clear space within a cell?
    • A. 

      Space of Disse

    • B. 

      Space of Mall

    • C. 

      Vacuole

    • D. 

      Lacuna

    • E. 

      Howship's lacuna

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?
    • A. 

      Lysosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisomes

    • C. 

      Centrioles

    • D. 

      Mitochondria

    • E. 

      Endoplasmic reticulum

  • 64. 
    What is the polysaccharide coating that is sometimes found on the cell membrane?
    • A. 

      Plasmalemma

    • B. 

      Glycocalyx

    • C. 

      Protoplasm

    • D. 

      Cristae

    • E. 

      Ground substance

  • 65. 
    What process is nicknamed "cell drinking"?
    • A. 

      Endocytosis

    • B. 

      Exocytosis

    • C. 

      Pinocytosis

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

    • E. 

      Active transport

  • 66. 
    Which organelle is studded with ribosomes?
    • A. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • B. 

      Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Lysosome

    • D. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • E. 

      Mitochondria

  • 67. 
    Where is the site of protein synthesis?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisome

    • C. 

      Microfilaments

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      Nucleoli

  • 68. 
    What structure contributes to the cells cytoskeleton?
    • A. 

      Ribosomes

    • B. 

      Peroxisome

    • C. 

      Microfilaments

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      Nucleoli

  • 69. 
    What type of tissue lines the bladder
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 71. 
    What type of epithelium is associated with goblet cells?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

  • 72. 
    What type of epithelial cells are as tall as they are wide?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Stratified

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Columnar

  • 73. 
    What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels?
    • A. 

      Epithelioid tissue

    • B. 

      Mesothelium

    • C. 

      Endothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is lined by a serosa?
    • A. 

      Genitourinary tract

    • B. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • C. 

      Respiratory tract

    • D. 

      Alimentary canal

    • E. 

      All of the above are lined by a mucosa

  • 76. 
    What type of gland secretes its product through a duct or tube?
    • A. 

      Endocrine gland

    • B. 

      Multicellular gland

    • C. 

      Exocrine gland

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 77. 
    What is a gland called if the secretory portion is flask shaped?
    • A. 

      Simple gland

    • B. 

      Compound gland

    • C. 

      Tubular

    • D. 

      Alveolar

    • E. 

      Tubuloalveolar

  • 78. 
    What forms the brush border?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 79. 
    What type of epithelium lines the trachea?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

  • 80. 
    What type of tissue lines blood vessels?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 81. 
    What type of epithelium is more than one layer thick?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Stratified

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Columnar

  • 82. 
    What do you call a tissue composed of a conglomeration of cells which are tightly packed together, yet which does not have a free surface? An example of such a tissue would be the parenchyma of the adrenal gland.
    • A. 

      Epithelioid tissue

    • B. 

      Mesothelium

    • C. 

      Endothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 83. 
    What type of epithelium appears stratified, but is not?
    • A. 

      Epithelioid tissue

    • B. 

      Mesothelium

    • C. 

      Endothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 84. 
    Which of the following is lined by a mucosa?
    • A. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • B. 

      Pericardial cavity

    • C. 

      Pleural cavity

    • D. 

      Alimentary canal

    • E. 

      All of the above are lined by a mucosa

  • 85. 
    What type of gland secretes its product directly into the bloodstream?
    • A. 

      Endocrine gland

    • B. 

      Multicellular gland

    • C. 

      Exocrine gland

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 86. 
    What is a gland called if it has an unbranched duct?
    • A. 

      Simple gland

    • B. 

      Compound gland

    • C. 

      Tubular

    • D. 

      Alveolar

    • E. 

      Tubuloalveolar

  • 87. 
    What is a gland called if the secretory portion is tube shaped ending in a flask shaped area at the terminus?
    • A. 

      Simple gland

    • B. 

      Compound gland

    • C. 

      Tubular

    • D. 

      Alveolar

    • E. 

      Tubuloalveolar

  • 88. 
    What is the surface modification seen on the cells of the epididymis?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 89. 
    What type of epithelium forms the epidermis?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

  • 90. 
    What type of tissue lines most of the gastrointestinal tract?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 91. 
    What type of tissue forms the alveoli in the lung?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

  • 92. 
    What type of epithelium is composed of flat cells?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Stratified

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Columnar

  • 93. 
    What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the abdominal cavity?
    • A. 

      Epithelioid tissue

    • B. 

      Mesothelium

    • C. 

      Endothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 94. 
    What type of epithelium is composed of cells which all touch the basement membrane  and is only one cell layer thick?
    • A. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Transitional epithelium

    • C. 

      Stratified cuboidal epithelium

    • D. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 95. 
    Which of the following is NOT lined by a mucosa?
    • A. 

      Genitourinary tract

    • B. 

      Pericardial cavity

    • C. 

      Respiratory tract

    • D. 

      Alimentary canal

    • E. 

      All of the above are lined by a mucosa

  • 96. 
    What is a gland called if it has an branched duct?
    • A. 

      Simple gland

    • B. 

      Compound gland

    • C. 

      Tubular

    • D. 

      Alveolar

    • E. 

      Tubuloalveolar

  • 97. 
    What are finger like projections on the surface of some cells called?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 98. 
    What cell surface modification is made of microtubules?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 99. 
    What type of tissue composes the kidney tubules?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 100. 
    What type of tissue lines the esophagus?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 101. 
    What type of epithelium is one cell layer thick?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Stratified

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Columnar

  • 102. 
    What type of epithelial cells are taller than they are wide?
    • A. 

      Simple

    • B. 

      Stratified

    • C. 

      Squamous

    • D. 

      Cuboidal

    • E. 

      Columnar

  • 103. 
    What type of epithelium has dome shaped cells on the apical surface?
    • A. 

      Epithelioid tissue

    • B. 

      Mesothelium

    • C. 

      Endothelium

    • D. 

      Transitional

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified

  • 104. 
    Which of the following is NOT lined by a serosa?
    • A. 

      Peritoneal cavity

    • B. 

      Pericardial cavity

    • C. 

      Pleural cavity

    • D. 

      Respiratory tract

    • E. 

      All of the above are lined by a serosa

  • 105. 
    Which of the following is a unicellular gland?
    • A. 

      Squamous cell

    • B. 

      Goblet cell

    • C. 

      Basal cell

    • D. 

      Basket cell

    • E. 

      Sertoli cell

  • 106. 
    What forms the striated border?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 107. 
    What is a characteristic of the cells in the epidermis of the skin?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Both a and b

  • 108. 
    What is another term for an acinar gland?
    • A. 

      Simple gland

    • B. 

      Compound gland

    • C. 

      Tubular

    • D. 

      Alveolar

    • E. 

      Tubuloalveolar

  • 109. 
    Which of the following is NOT primarily composed of connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Bone

    • C. 

      Tendon

    • D. 

      Intervertebral disc

    • E. 

      Myometrium

  • 110. 
    Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Collagen fiber

    • B. 

      Elastic fiber

    • C. 

      Reticular fiber

    • D. 

      Purkinje fiber

    • E. 

      All of the above are fibers found in connective tissue

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Myofibroblast

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 112. 
    Which cell is a connective tissue macrophage?
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Histiocyte

    • C. 

      Dust cell

    • D. 

      Langerhans cell

    • E. 

      Microglia

  • 113. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Mesenchyme

    • B. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • C. 

      Dense connective tissue

    • D. 

      Blood

    • E. 

      Loose connective tissue

  • 114. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "embryonic connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Cartilage

    • B. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • C. 

      Adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Bone

    • E. 

      Blood

  • 115. 
    What type of tissue makes up the dermis of the skin?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 116. 
    • A. 

      Brown adipose tissue

    • B. 

      White adipose tissue

    • C. 

      Unilocular adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Multilocular adipose tissue

    • E. 

      White adipose tissue and Unilocular adipose tissue

  • 117. 
    Which of the following would be best suited to differentiate collagen fibers from other fibers?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 118. 
    Which of the following is NOT primarily composed of connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Bone marrow

    • B. 

      Articular cartilage

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Mesenchyme

    • E. 

      Fat

  • 119. 
    Which one of these cells is not a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Microglia

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 120. 
    Which connective tissue cell is a tissue macrophage?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Myofibroblast

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 121. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Cartilage

    • B. 

      Loose connective tissue

    • C. 

      Mesenchyme

    • D. 

      Dense connective tissue

    • E. 

      Mucous connective tissue

  • 122. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "connective tissue proper"?
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • C. 

      Bone

    • D. 

      Blood

    • E. 

      Cartilage

  • 123. 
    What type of tissue is Wharton's jelly?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 124. 
    What type of tissue is a tendon composed of?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 125. 
    What does connective tissue develop from?
    • A. 

      Mesothelium

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Mesangial cells

    • D. 

      Mesentery

    • E. 

      Wharton's jelly

  • 126. 
    What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?
    • A. 

      Red/Orange

    • B. 

      Pink/red

    • C. 

      Purple/Red

    • D. 

      Blue/black

    • E. 

      Green/blue

  • 127. 
    Which of the following is a component of the ground substance?
    • A. 

      Hyaluronic acid

    • B. 

      Proteoglycans

    • C. 

      Glycosaminoglycans

    • D. 

      Chondroitin sulfate

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 128. 
    • A. 

      Spinal cord

    • B. 

      Pubic symphysis

    • C. 

      Ligament

    • D. 

      Areolar tissue

    • E. 

      Organ capsule

  • 129. 
    Which connective tissue cell type produces the ground substance in connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Myofibroblast

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 130. 
    Which connective tissue cell is derived from B lymphocytes?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Myofibroblast

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 131. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Mesenchyme

    • B. 

      Bone

    • C. 

      Dense connective tissue

    • D. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • E. 

      Loose connective tissue

  • 132. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "connective tissue proper"?
    • A. 

      Bone

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Cartilage

  • 133. 
    What type of connective tissue is an undifferentiated tissue found in the embryo?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 134. 
    What type of tissue is a ligament composed of?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 135. 
    Which of the following is not associated with connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Tightly packed cells

    • B. 

      Extracellular fibers

    • C. 

      Tissue fluid

    • D. 

      Ground substance

    • E. 

      None of the above; all of the above are seen with connective tissue

  • 136. 
    Which of the following would be best suited to visualize lipid?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 137. 
    A beauty treatment for the reduction of wrinkles is the injection of hyaluronic acid into the wrinkle. What is hyaluronic acid?
    • A. 

      Dermatan sulfate

    • B. 

      Proteoglycan

    • C. 

      Glycosaminoglycan

    • D. 

      Chondroitin sulfate

    • E. 

      Keratan sulfate

  • 138. 
    Which is the most abundant fiber in connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Collagen fiber

    • B. 

      Elastic fiber

    • C. 

      Reticular fiber

    • D. 

      Purkinje fiber

    • E. 

      Muscle fibers

  • 139. 
    Which connective tissue cell type produces collagen?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Connective tissue macrophage

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 140. 
    Which connective tissue cell type secretes histamine?
    • A. 

      Fibroblast

    • B. 

      Myofibroblast

    • C. 

      Histiocyte

    • D. 

      Plasma cell

    • E. 

      Mast cell

  • 141. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Loose connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense connective tissue

  • 142. 
    Which of the following can be classified as "embryonic connective tissue"?
    • A. 

      Adipose tissue

    • B. 

      Bone

    • C. 

      Blood

    • D. 

      Cartilage

    • E. 

      Mesenchyme

  • 143. 
    What is areolar tissue?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 144. 
    What type of adipose tissue tends to decrease as humans age?
    • A. 

      Brown adipose tissue

    • B. 

      White adipose tissue

    • C. 

      Unilocular adipose tissue

    • D. 

      Multilocular adipose tissue

    • E. 

      Brown adipose tissue and Multilocular adipose tissue

  • 145. 
    Which of the following would be best suited to visualize reticular fibers?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Masson's trichrome stain

  • 146. 
    What type of basic tissue type is cartilage?
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Epithelium

    • E. 

      Connective tissue

  • 147. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

  • 148. 
    What do you call the space where a chondrocyte sits in?
    • A. 

      Space of Disse

    • B. 

      Space of Mall

    • C. 

      Vacuole

    • D. 

      Lacuna

    • E. 

      Howship's Lacuna

  • 149. 
    What stain would be best to demonstrate the elastic fibers in elastic cartilage?
    • A. 

      Wright's stain

    • B. 

      Hematoxylin and eosin stain

    • C. 

      Sudan stain

    • D. 

      Silver impregnation

    • E. 

      Resorcin fuchsin and orcein

  • 150. 
    Which type of cartilage is found in the walls of the eustachian tube?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 151. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the skeleton of the fetus?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 152. 
    What type of tissue makes up the "Adam's apple"?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • C. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Fibrocartilage

    • E. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Elastic cartilage

  • 153. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the intervertebral disc?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 154. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the hammer, anvil and stirrup?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 155. 
    Which type of cartilage is characterized by the presence of elastic fibers?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 156. 
    Which type of cartilage is highly vascular?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 157. 
    What cell produces the cartilaginous matrix?
    • A. 

      Chondrocyte

    • B. 

      Chondroblast

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

    • E. 

      Bone lining cell

  • 158. 
    Which type of cartilage is found in the larynx?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Elastic cartilage

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 159. 
    Which of the following is NOT a glycosaminoglycan in cartilage?
    • A. 

      Chondroitin sulfate

    • B. 

      Proteoglycans

    • C. 

      Keratan sulfate

    • D. 

      Hyaluronic acid

    • E. 

      All of the above are glycosaminoglycans in cartilage

  • 160. 
    Which type of cartilage is characterized by a glassy matrix?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 161. 
    Which type of cartilage is characterized by the presence of chondrocytes sitting in lacunae?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 162. 
    Which type of cartilage is the most abundant?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage equally

    • E. 

      Elastic cartilage and fibrocartilage equally

  • 163. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the articular surface on bones?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 164. 
    Which type of cartilage is found in the external ear?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 165. 
    Costal cartilage is composed of what type of cartilage?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 166. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the symphysis pubis?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 167. 
    What structure is called white cartilage?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 168. 
    What is the connective tissue covering which surrounds cartilage?
    • A. 

      Perimysium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Perichondrium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 169. 
    Where does cartilage come from?
    • A. 

      Ectoderm

    • B. 

      Endoderm

    • C. 

      Mesenchyme

    • D. 

      Connective tissue

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 170. 
    What is the mature cell in cartilage called?
    • A. 

      Chondrocyte

    • B. 

      Chondroblast

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

    • E. 

      Bone lining cell

  • 171. 
    Regarding the blood supply to cartilage:
    • A. 

      Cartilage has minimal circulation

    • B. 

      Cartilage has a duel circulation

    • C. 

      Cartilage is highly vascular

    • D. 

      Cartilage is avascular

    • E. 

      There is nothing unique about the blood supply to cartilage

  • 172. 
    Which type of cartilage is characterized by the presence of thick bundles of collagen fibers?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 173. 
    What percent of the matrix of cartilage is water?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      10-40

    • C. 

      40-60

    • D. 

      60-80

    • E. 

      80-100

  • 174. 
    Which type of cartilage forms the epiphyseal growth plate?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 175. 
    What type of tissue makes up the rings of the trachea?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • C. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Fibrocartilage

    • E. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Elastic cartilage

  • 176. 
    What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • C. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • D. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Fibrocartilage

    • E. 

      Hyaline cartilage and Elastic cartilage

  • 177. 
    Which type of cartilage is present in the temporomandibular joint?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 178. 
    What structure is called yellow cartilage?
    • A. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • B. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 179. 
    What is compact bone?
    • A. 

      Dense bone

    • B. 

      Woven bone

    • C. 

      Immature bone

    • D. 

      Cancellous bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 180. 
    What cell is involved in bone resorption?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 181. 
    What type of basic tissue type is bone?
    • A. 

      Epithelium

    • B. 

      Connective tissue

    • C. 

      Muscle

    • D. 

      Nervous

    • E. 

      Bone

  • 182. 
    What is woven bone?
    • A. 

      Cancellous bone

    • B. 

      Compact bone

    • C. 

      Dense bone

    • D. 

      Immature bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 183. 
    What are the spicules on spongy bone called?
    • A. 

      Canaliculi

    • B. 

      Sharpey's fibers

    • C. 

      Trabeculae

    • D. 

      Tome's process

    • E. 

      Lacuna

  • 184. 
    Which cell type is responsible for bone breakdown?
    • A. 

      Chondrocyte

    • B. 

      Chondroblast

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

    • E. 

      Bone lining cell

  • 185. 
    What is bone formation called when the bone is formed directly, without using a cartilage template?
    • A. 

      Intraosseous

    • B. 

      En bloc

    • C. 

      Intramembranous

    • D. 

      Endochondral

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 186. 
    What forms the epiphyseal growth plate?
    • A. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • B. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • C. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 187. 
    Which type of bone has spicules?
    • A. 

      Immature bone

    • B. 

      Dense bone

    • C. 

      Compact bone

    • D. 

      Cancellous bone

    • E. 

      Woven bone

  • 188. 
    What sits in a lacuna?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 189. 
    What is dense bone?
    • A. 

      Immature bone

    • B. 

      Cancellous bone

    • C. 

      Compact bone

    • D. 

      Woven bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 190. 
    Which cell is a resting osteoblast?
    • A. 

      Chondrocyte

    • B. 

      Chondroblast

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

    • E. 

      Bone lining cell

  • 191. 
    What are the mineral crystals in bone called?
    • A. 

      Hydroxyapatite

    • B. 

      Calcite

    • C. 

      Tourmaline

    • D. 

      Rubellite

    • E. 

      Indicolite

  • 192. 
    What is the cylindrical structure in compact bone?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 193. 
    What are Sharpey's fibers?
    • A. 

      Elastic fibers

    • B. 

      Collagen fibers

    • C. 

      Reticular fibers

    • D. 

      Trabeculae

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 194. 
    • A. 

      Canaliculi

    • B. 

      Sharpey's fibers

    • C. 

      Trabeculae

    • D. 

      Tome's process

    • E. 

      Lacuna

  • 195. 
    What is bone formation called when the bone is formed from a cartilage template?
    • A. 

      Intraosseous

    • B. 

      En bloc

    • C. 

      Intramembranous

    • D. 

      Endochondral

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 196. 
    What is the primary component of red marrow?
    • A. 

      Hematopoietic tissue

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Fibrous tissue

    • E. 

      Bone

  • 197. 
    What cell is an immature bone cell?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 198. 
    What is bundle bone?
    • A. 

      Cancellous bone

    • B. 

      Compact bone

    • C. 

      Dense bone

    • D. 

      Spongy bone

    • E. 

      Immature bone

  • 199. 
    What is cancellous bone?
    • A. 

      Dense bone

    • B. 

      Woven bone

    • C. 

      Immature bone

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 200. 
    What cell is involved in laying down new bone?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 201. 
    What is in the bone matrix?
    • A. 

      Elastic fibers

    • B. 

      Collagen fibers

    • C. 

      Reticular fibers

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 202. 
    What are the small tunnels seen in bone?
    • A. 

      Canaliculi

    • B. 

      Sharpey's fibers

    • C. 

      Trabeculae

    • D. 

      Tome's process

    • E. 

      Lacuna

  • 203. 
    What is the hollow area underneath an osteoclast called?
    • A. 

      Space of Disse

    • B. 

      Space of Mall

    • C. 

      Vacuole

    • D. 

      Lacuna

    • E. 

      Howship's lacuna

  • 204. 
    What is the covering of a bone?
    • A. 

      Perimysium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Perichondrium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 205. 
    What forms the articular surface on bones?
    • A. 

      Spongy bone

    • B. 

      Compact bone

    • C. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • D. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • E. 

      Fibrocartilage

  • 206. 
    What is the primary component of yellow marrow?
    • A. 

      Hematopoietic tissue

    • B. 

      Fat

    • C. 

      Cartilage

    • D. 

      Fibrous tissue

    • E. 

      Bone

  • 207. 
    What is another term for the Haversian system?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 208. 
    What is nonlamellar bone?
    • A. 

      Woven bone

    • B. 

      Dense bone

    • C. 

      Cancellous bone

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 209. 
    What is the mature bone cell called?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 210. 
    What is immature bone?
    • A. 

      Dense bone

    • B. 

      Woven bone

    • C. 

      Cancellous bone

    • D. 

      Compact bone

    • E. 

      Spongy bone

  • 211. 
    What is unmineralized bone matrix?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 212. 
    What are the collagen fibers that extend into bone at an angle called?
    • A. 

      Canaliculi

    • B. 

      Sharpey's fibers

    • C. 

      Trabeculae

    • D. 

      Tome's process

    • E. 

      Lacuna

  • 213. 
    Which cell is the mature bone cell?
    • A. 

      Chondrocyte

    • B. 

      Chondroblast

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

    • E. 

      Bone lining cell

  • 214. 
    What is the lining of the inner bone on the side which abuts the medullary cavity?
    • A. 

      Perimysium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Perichondrium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 215. 
    What forms the skeleton of the fetus?
    • A. 

      Elastic cartilage

    • B. 

      Hyaline cartilage

    • C. 

      Fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Spongy bone

    • E. 

      Compact bone

  • 216. 
    Which of the following is a multinucleated cell?
    • A. 

      Osteoclast

    • B. 

      Osteon

    • C. 

      Osteocyte

    • D. 

      Osteoblast

    • E. 

      Osteoid

  • 217. 
    What is spongy bone?
    • A. 

      Immature bone

    • B. 

      Compact bone

    • C. 

      Cancellous bone

    • D. 

      Dense bone

    • E. 

      Woven bone

  • 218. 
    What is the connective tissue covering of a muscle fascicle?
    • A. 

      Sarcolemma

    • B. 

      Endomysium

    • C. 

      Epimysium

    • D. 

      Sarcoplasm

    • E. 

      Perimysium

  • 219. 
    What is actin?
    • A. 

      Myofilament

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Myofibrils

    • E. 

      Myocardium

  • 220. 
    Which of the following is composed of smooth muscle?
    • A. 

      Upper esophagus

    • B. 

      Heart

    • C. 

      Tongue

    • D. 

      Biceps muscle

    • E. 

      Walls of the visceral organs

  • 221. 
    What is a receptor in muscle?
    • A. 

      Motor unit

    • B. 

      Motor neuron

    • C. 

      Motor end plate

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular spindle

    • E. 

      Neurotransmitter

  • 222. 
    Which fiber type is larger in diameter?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 223. 
    Which fiber type is make up fast-twitch muscle?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 224. 
    Which fiber type has more myoglobin?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 225. 
    Which fiber type gets its energy primarily from glycogen?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 226. 
    Which fiber type is seen in skeletal muscle?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 227. 
    What is line that bisects the dark band in muscle?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 228. 
    What is the outer connective tissue covering of a muscle?
    • A. 

      Epimysium

    • B. 

      Sarcoplasm

    • C. 

      Perimysium

    • D. 

      Sarcolemma

    • E. 

      Endomysium

  • 229. 
    What is myosin?
    • A. 

      Muscle fibers

    • B. 

      Myofibrils

    • C. 

      Myocardium

    • D. 

      Myofilament

    • E. 

      Muscle cell

  • 230. 
    Where is cardiac muscle found?
    • A. 

      Myofilaments

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Myofibrils

    • E. 

      Myocardium

  • 231. 
    What type of muscle has visible cross striations?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 232. 
    What type of muscle is specialized for contraction?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 233. 
    What is released at a synapse?
    • A. 

      Motor unit

    • B. 

      Motor neuron

    • C. 

      Motor end plate

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular spindle

    • E. 

      Neurotransmitter

  • 234. 
    Which fiber type is more resistant to fatigue?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 235. 
    Lance Armstrong is the seven time winner of the Tour de France. The Tour de France is a bicycle race which covers between 3500 to 4000 kilometers. What type of muscle fiber probably predominates in his legs?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 236. 
    What region is made of thin filaments?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 237. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

    • E. 

      8

  • 238. 
    What is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell called?
    • A. 

      Endomysium

    • B. 

      Sarcolemma

    • C. 

      Sarcoplasm

    • D. 

      Perimysium

    • E. 

      Epimysium

  • 239. 
    • A. 

      Myocardium

    • B. 

      Myofibrils

    • C. 

      Myofilaments

    • D. 

      Muscle fibers

    • E. 

      Myosin

  • 240. 
    Which of the following is composed of skeletal muscle?
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Blood vessel

    • C. 

      Walls of the visceral organs

    • D. 

      Lower esophagus

    • E. 

      Heart

  • 241. 
    What type of muscle is composed of spindle shaped cells?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 242. 
    What type of muscle is always multinucleated?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 243. 
    Which fiber type is smaller in diameter?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 244. 
    Which fiber type fatigues more readily?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 245. 
    What type of muscle probably predominates in Charles Atlas, the worlds most famous power weight lifter?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 246. 
    What is line that bisects the light band in muscle?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 247. 
    What is the name of the tissue which surrounds muscle fascicles?
    • A. 

      Perimysium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Perichondrium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 248. 
    What is the covering of an individual muscle fiber?
    • A. 

      Sarcoplasm

    • B. 

      Perimysium

    • C. 

      Endomysium

    • D. 

      Epimysium

    • E. 

      Sarcolemma

  • 249. 
    What are the thick filaments composed of?
    • A. 

      Myofilaments

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Myofibrils

    • E. 

      Myocardium

  • 250. 
    Which of the following is composed of cardiac muscle?
    • A. 

      Biceps muscle

    • B. 

      Tongue

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Upper esophagus

    • E. 

      Walls of the visceral organs

  • 251. 
    What type of muscle contains centrally placed nuclei?
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • D. 

      Smooth muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Smooth muscle, Cardiac muscle and Skeletal muscle

  • 252. 
    What is the point that a neuron contacts a muscle called?
    • A. 

      Motor unit

    • B. 

      Motor neuron

    • C. 

      Motor end plate

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular spindle

    • E. 

      Neurotransmitter

  • 253. 
    Which fiber type makes up slow-twitch muscle?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 254. 
    Which fiber type uses more anaerobic metabolism?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 255. 
    What is the dark band in muscle?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 256. 
    What bisects the H band?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      E band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 257. 
    What type of muscle has intercalated discs?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 258. 
    What is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell?
    • A. 

      Epimysium

    • B. 

      Sarcolemma

    • C. 

      Endomysium

    • D. 

      Sarcoplasm

    • E. 

      Perimysium

  • 259. 
    • A. 

      Myofilaments

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Myofibrils

    • E. 

      Myocardium

  • 260. 
    Which of the following contains a substantial amount of smooth muscle?
    • A. 

      Upper esophagus

    • B. 

      Blood vessels

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Biceps muscle

    • E. 

      Tongue

  • 261. 
    What type of muscle contains actin and myosin?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 262. 
    What is a single neuron and the aggregation of muscle fibers innervated by that single neuron called?
    • A. 

      Motor unit

    • B. 

      Motor neuron

    • C. 

      Motor end plate

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular spindle

    • E. 

      Neurotransmitter

  • 263. 
    Which fiber type has a lot of mitochondria?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 264. 
    Which fiber type uses more aerobic metabolism?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 265. 
    What is the light band in muscle?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 266. 
    What type of muscle contains sarcomeres?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 267. 
    What type of muscle has branching cells?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • C. 

      Smooth muscle

    • D. 

      Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Skeletal muscle, Cardiac muscle and Smooth muscle

  • 268. 
    Which fiber type is seen in smooth muscle?
    • A. 

      Red fibers

    • B. 

      White fibers

    • C. 

      Intermediate fibers

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 269. 
    A sarcomere is defined as the segment from _____ to ____?
    • A. 

      A band

    • B. 

      I band

    • C. 

      Z line

    • D. 

      H band

    • E. 

      M line

  • 270. 
    What are the bundle of longitudinal contractile elements within a muscle cell called?
    • A. 

      Myofilaments

    • B. 

      Myosin

    • C. 

      Muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Myofibrils

    • E. 

      Myocardium

  • 271. 
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Reticular layer of dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Reticular layer of dermis

    • E. 

      Reticular layer of dermis and Hypodermis

  • 272. 
    Where is thick skin found?
    • A. 

      Over the knee

    • B. 

      Sole of the feet

    • C. 

      Breast

    • D. 

      Lips

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 273. 
    Which layer of the epidermis has cells which have keratohyaline granules?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 274. 
    Which cell is a macrophage found in the skin?
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Histiocyte

    • C. 

      Dust cell

    • D. 

      Langerhans cell

    • E. 

      Microglia

  • 275. 
    TA new miracle skin cream recently hit the beauty counters which is suppose to stimulate collagen production. Which cell is it supposedly stimulating?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 276. 
    What is the half moon shaped white area on a nail called?
    • A. 

      Lunula

    • B. 

      Eponychium

    • C. 

      Matrix

    • D. 

      Nail bed

    • E. 

      Root

  • 277. 
    What is the growing part of the nail?
    • A. 

      Lunula

    • B. 

      Eponychium

    • C. 

      Matrix

    • D. 

      Nail bed

    • E. 

      Root

  • 278. 
    What type of glands are the ceruminous glands?
    • A. 

      Sebaceous glands

    • B. 

      Eccrine sweat gland

    • C. 

      Endocrine gland

    • D. 

      Apocrine sweat gland

    • E. 

      Oil gland

  • 279. 
    Which of the following is the most abundant sensory receptor of the skin?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 280. 
    Where can hair be found?
    • A. 

      Palms of hand

    • B. 

      Soles of feet

    • C. 

      Urogenital openings

    • D. 

      Lips

    • E. 

      Eyelid

  • 281. 
    Which of the following is composed of connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Dermis

    • E. 

      Dermis and Hypodermis

  • 282. 
    Which of the following is composed of dense irregular connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Reticular layer of dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Reticular layer of dermis

    • E. 

      Reticular layer of dermis and Hypodermis

  • 283. 
    Where is thick skin found?
    • A. 

      Lips

    • B. 

      Over the knee

    • C. 

      Palms

    • D. 

      Breast

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 284. 
    Which layer of the epidermis is present only in thick skin?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 285. 
    Which cell is a mechanoreceptors?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 286. 
    Which cell is found in the dermis?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 287. 
    What is underneath the nail plate?
    • A. 

      Lunula

    • B. 

      Eponychium

    • C. 

      Matrix

    • D. 

      Nail bed

    • E. 

      Root

  • 288. 
    What is the innervation of an eccrine sweat gland?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic; parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Cholinergic; sympathetic

    • C. 

      Adrenergic; parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Adrenergic; sympathetic

    • E. 

      Cholinergic; motor

  • 289. 
    Which of the following responds to continuous pressure?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 290. 
    Which of the following is found in the hair follicle?
    • A. 

      Pigment epithelium

    • B. 

      Muller's cells

    • C. 

      Huxley's layer

    • D. 

      Horizontal cells

    • E. 

      Cones

  • 291. 
    The reticular layer is part of which layer?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Dermis

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 292. 
    Which of the following is NOT considered an epidermal appendage?
    • A. 

      Sweat gland

    • B. 

      Hair

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Nails

    • E. 

      Sebaceous glands

  • 293. 
    Which layer of the epidermis is also called the stratum germinativum?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 294. 
    Which layer of the epidermis is on the surface of the skin?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 295. 
    Which cell is the most abundant cell in the epidermis?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 296. 
    What type of epithelium forms the epidermis?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Pseudostratified epithelium

  • 297. 
    What is the portion of the nail which is underneath skin?
    • A. 

      Lunula

    • B. 

      Eponychium

    • C. 

      Matrix

    • D. 

      Nail bed

    • E. 

      Root

  • 298. 
    What type of glands are the glands of Moll?
    • A. 

      Endocrine gland

    • B. 

      Apocrine sweat gland

    • C. 

      Oil gland

    • D. 

      Sebaceous glands

    • E. 

      Eccrine sweat gland

  • 299. 
    Which of the following responds to vibration and rapidly changing pressure?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 300. 
    Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch which is located in mucous membranes?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 301. 
    Which of the following is composed of stratified squamous epithelium?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Dermis

    • E. 

      Dermis and Hypodermis

  • 302. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of skin?
    • A. 

      Vitamin D production

    • B. 

      Protection from water loss

    • C. 

      Sensory reception

    • D. 

      Heat regulation

    • E. 

      All are functions of skin

  • 303. 
    Which layer of the epidermis contains dividing cells?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 304. 
    Which layer of the epidermis contains cells with no nuclei or organelles?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 305. 
    Which cell is a phagocyte?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 306. 
    What is a characteristic of the cells in the epidermis of the skin?
    • A. 

      Microvilli

    • B. 

      Stereocilia

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Keratinization

    • E. 

      Microvilli and Stereocilia

  • 307. 
    Where are apocrine sweat glands NOT found?
    • A. 

      Areola

    • B. 

      External genitalia

    • C. 

      Posterior neck

    • D. 

      Axilla

    • E. 

      Circumanal region

  • 308. 
    What is the innervation of an apocrine sweat gland?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic; parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Cholinergic; sympathetic

    • C. 

      Adrenergic; parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Adrenergic; sympathetic

    • E. 

      Cholinergic; motor

  • 309. 
    Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch which is located in the dermis?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 310. 
    Which of the following is found in the hair follicle?
    • A. 

      Henle's layer

    • B. 

      Bipolar cells

    • C. 

      Amacrine cells

    • D. 

      Rods

    • E. 

      Ganglion cells

  • 311. 
    The papillary layer is part of which layer?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Dermis

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 312. 
    Which layer of the epidermis contains star shaped cells?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 313. 
    Which of the following layers comprise the skin?
    • A. 

      Epidermis

    • B. 

      Dermis

    • C. 

      Hypodermis

    • D. 

      Epidermis and Dermis

    • E. 

      Dermis and Hypodermis

  • 314. 
    Which cell is responsible for skin pigmentation?
    • A. 

      Langerhans cell

    • B. 

      Keratinocyte

    • C. 

      Melanocyte

    • D. 

      Merkel cell

    • E. 

      Fibroblast

  • 315. 
    Which of the following responds to pain?
    • A. 

      Free nerve endings

    • B. 

      Ruffini's corpuscles

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Krause's end bulbs

    • E. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 316. 
    What is the correct term for cuticle?
    • A. 

      Lunula

    • B. 

      Eponychium

    • C. 

      Matrix

    • D. 

      Nail bed

    • E. 

      Root

  • 317. 
    What color is keratin with Masson's trichrome stain?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Pink

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Black

    • E. 

      Yellow

  • 318. 
    What type of tissue makes up the dermis of the skin?
    • A. 

      Mucous connective tissue

    • B. 

      Mesenchyme

    • C. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • E. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

  • 319. 
    What are the pressure receptors in skin called?
    • A. 

      Psammoma bodies

    • B. 

      Corpora arenacea

    • C. 

      Hassall's corpuscles

    • D. 

      Prostatic concretions

    • E. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

  • 320. 
    Which sensory receptor in the skin is NOT encapsulated?
    • A. 

      Ruffini endings

    • B. 

      Free nerve endings

    • C. 

      Pacinian corpuscles

    • D. 

      Meissner's corpuscles

    • E. 

      Merkel cells

  • 321. 
    Where is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
    • A. 

      Stomach

    • B. 

      Small intestine

    • C. 

      Ascending colon

    • D. 

      Descending colon

    • E. 

      Stomach and Small intestine equally

  • 322. 
    What are the finger like projections of mucosa that are seen in the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 323. 
    What is the outer layer of the GI tract called when it is abutting another organ?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 324. 
    Where is masticatory mucosa found
    • A. 

      Tongue underside

    • B. 

      Hard palate

    • C. 

      Soft palate

    • D. 

      Lips

    • E. 

      Cheek

  • 325. 
    What is the surface layer of masticatory mucosa composed of?
    • A. 

      Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • D. 

      Pseudostratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

  • 326. 
    Which layer is NOT present in masticatory epithelium?
    • A. 

      Stratum basale

    • B. 

      Stratum spinosum

    • C. 

      Stratum granulosum

    • D. 

      Stratum lucidum

    • E. 

      Stratum corneum

  • 327. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue is the most abundant?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 328. 
    What is the innermost layer of the GI tract called?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 329. 
    What is the lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine called?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 330. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue is not well developed in man?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 331. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      VII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      X

    • E. 

      XII

  • 332. 
    Which cranial nerve to the tongue is responsible for movement?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      VII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      X

    • E. 

      XII

  • 333. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      VII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      X

    • E. 

      XII

  • 334. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      VII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      X

    • E. 

      XII

  • 335. 
    Which cranial nerve is responsible for general sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
    • A. 

      V

    • B. 

      VII

    • C. 

      IX

    • D. 

      X

    • E. 

      XII

  • 336. 
    What covers the tooth that is embedded within the jaw?
    • A. 

      Pulp cavity

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Dental pulp

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel

  • 337. 
    What is within the pulp cavity?
    • A. 

      Pulp cavity

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Dental pulp

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel

  • 338. 
    What is the central portion of a tooth called?
    • A. 

      Pulp cavity

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Dental pulp

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel

  • 339. 
    What covers the visible portion of a tooth ?
    • A. 

      Pulp cavity

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Dental pulp

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel

  • 340. 
    What surrounds the pulp cavity?
    • A. 

      Pulp cavity

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Dental pulp

    • D. 

      Cementum

    • E. 

      Enamel

  • 341. 
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 342. 
    What is another term for the valve of Kerckring?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 343. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue is the smallest?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 344. 
    Where are Peyer's patches located?
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Small intestine

    • D. 

      Large intestine

    • E. 

      Rectum

  • 345. 
    What type of muscle makes up the muscularis externa in the esophagus?
    • A. 

      Smooth

    • B. 

      Striated

    • C. 

      Cardiac

    • D. 

      Smooth and Striated

    • E. 

      Smooth, Striated and Cardiac

  • 346. 
    What are mucous surface cells?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 347. 
    Which layer consists of only a single layer of epithelial cells and underlying connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 348. 
    What is another term for the brush border?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 349. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue is arranged in a "V" shape on the tongue?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 350. 
    Which cells secrete intrinsic factor?
    • A. 

      Parietal cells

    • B. 

      Oxyntic cells

    • C. 

      Chief cells

    • D. 

      Mucous neck cells

    • E. 

      Parietal cells and Oxyntic cells

  • 351. 
    Which layer contains the lining epithelium?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 352. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue does NOT contain taste buds?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 353. 
    Which layer contains Auerbach's plexus?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 354. 
    • A. 

      Parietal cells

    • B. 

      Oxyntic cells

    • C. 

      Chief cells

    • D. 

      Mucous neck cells

    • E. 

      Parietal cells and Oxyntic cells

  • 355. 
    What is another term for the intestinal glands?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 356. 
    Which organ has a mucosa lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Small intestine

    • D. 

      Large intestine

    • E. 

      Rectum

  • 357. 
    What are the folds of the stomach called?
    • A. 

      Ruffled border

    • B. 

      Taeniae coli

    • C. 

      Gastric glands

    • D. 

      Rugae

    • E. 

      Gastric pits

  • 358. 
    Which type of papillae on the tongue is mushroom shaped?
    • A. 

      Filiform papillae

    • B. 

      Circumvallate papillae

    • C. 

      Fungiform papillae

    • D. 

      Foliate papillae

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 359. 
    Which layer contains the muscularis mucosa?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 360. 
    What are microvilli called that are seen in the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Lacteal

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 361. 
    Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the gut associated lymphatic tissue?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Submucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Muscularis mucosae

    • E. 

      Serosa

  • 362. 
    Which cells secrete pepsinogen?
    • A. 

      Parietal cells

    • B. 

      Oxyntic cells

    • C. 

      Chief cells

    • D. 

      Mucous neck cells

    • E. 

      Parietal cells and Oxyntic cells

  • 363. 
    Which layer contains Meissner's plexus?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 364. 
    What type of tissue lines most of the gastrointestinal tract?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 365. 
    What type of tissue lines the upper esophagus?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 366. 
    What are the modifications of the muscularis externa that is seen on the large intestine?
    • A. 

      Teniae coli

    • B. 

      Crypts of Lieberkuhn

    • C. 

      Plicae circulares

    • D. 

      Striated border

    • E. 

      Villi

  • 367. 
    Where are Brunner's glands located?
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Small intestine

    • D. 

      Large intestine

    • E. 

      Rectum

  • 368. 
    What is the primary cell of the intestinal epithelium of the large intestine?
    • A. 

      Columnar absorptive cell

    • B. 

      Goblet cell

    • C. 

      Parietal cells

    • D. 

      Paneth cells

    • E. 

      Chief cells

  • 369. 
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Small intestine

    • D. 

      Large intestine

    • E. 

      Anus

  • 370. 
    Where is mesothelium found?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Sub mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis externa

    • D. 

      Serosa

    • E. 

      Adventitia

  • 371. 
    Which of the following is the exocrine portion of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Acini

  • 372. 
    What are divertiuclae of the mucosa of the gallbladder called?
    • A. 

      Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

    • B. 

      Ducts of Luschka

    • C. 

      Duct of Wirsung

    • D. 

      Ampulla of Vater

    • E. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

  • 373. 
    What structure is in the middle of the hepatic lobule?
    • A. 

      Hepatic artery

    • B. 

      Portal triad

    • C. 

      Central vein

    • D. 

      Portal vein

    • E. 

      Sinusoids

  • 374. 
    What is the space between the liver sinusoids and the hepatocytes called?
    • A. 

      Space of Disse

    • B. 

      Space of Mall

    • C. 

      Vacuole

    • D. 

      Lacuna

    • E. 

      Howship's lacuna

  • 375. 
    What is the name of the cellular mass for the endocrine portion of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Acini

  • 376. 
    Which structures are part of the portal triad?
    • A. 

      Portal vein

    • B. 

      Hepatic artery

    • C. 

      Central vein

    • D. 

      Sinusoids

    • E. 

      Portal vein and Hepatic artery

  • 377. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
    • A. 

      Metabolism of bilirubin

    • B. 

      Deamination of amino acids

    • C. 

      Storage of iron

    • D. 

      Storage of copper

    • E. 

      Storage of calcium

  • 378. 
    What is the functional unit of the liver?
    • A. 

      Lobule

    • B. 

      Portal triad

    • C. 

      Central vein

    • D. 

      Hepatocyte

    • E. 

      Sinusoids

  • 379. 
    What are the valves which regulates the flow of bile into the intestine?
    • A. 

      Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

    • B. 

      Ducts of Luschka

    • C. 

      Duct of Wirsung

    • D. 

      Ampulla of Vater

    • E. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

  • 380. 
    What cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Gamma cells

  • 381. 
    What is the opening of the pancreatic duct into the duodenum?
    • A. 

      Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

    • B. 

      Ducts of Luschka

    • C. 

      Duct of Wirsung

    • D. 

      Ampulla of Vater

    • E. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

  • 382. 
    Which of the following is the exocrine portion of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Acini

  • 383. 
    Which of the following clotting factors is NOT produced in the liver?
    • A. 

      Factor I

    • B. 

      Factor II

    • C. 

      Factor IV

    • D. 

      Factor IX

    • E. 

      Factor X

  • 384. 
    In what structure does blood run through between the hepatocytes?
    • A. 

      Hepatic artery

    • B. 

      Portal triad

    • C. 

      Central vein

    • D. 

      Portal vein

    • E. 

      Sinusoids

  • 385. 
    What is the space called that is located at the portal canal between the hepatocytes and connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Space of Disse

    • B. 

      Space of Mall

    • C. 

      Vacuole

    • D. 

      Lacuna

    • E. 

      Howship's lacuna

  • 386. 
    What layer is NOT found in the gallbladder?
    • A. 

      Mucosa

    • B. 

      Muscularis mucosa

    • C. 

      Muscularis

    • D. 

      Adventita

    • E. 

      Serosa

  • 387. 
    What cell type makes up the mucosa of the gallbladder?
    • A. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • B. 

      Simple cuboidal epithelium

    • C. 

      Simple columnar epithelium

    • D. 

      Stratified squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Transitional epithelium

  • 388. 
    What is the classification of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Mixed

    • B. 

      Endocrine

    • C. 

      Exocrine

    • D. 

      Both endocrine and exocrine

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 389. 
    Which cell is a hepatic macrophage?
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Histiocyte

    • C. 

      Dust cell

    • D. 

      Langerhans cell

    • E. 

      Microglia

  • 390. 
    Where in the pancreas are islets of Langerhans most numerous?
    • A. 

      Head

    • B. 

      Body

    • C. 

      Tail

    • D. 

      Evenly distributed

    • E. 

      Depends on the individual

  • 391. 
    What cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Gamma cells

  • 392. 
    What is the pancreatic duct?
    • A. 

      Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

    • B. 

      Ducts of Luschka

    • C. 

      Duct of Wirsung

    • D. 

      Ampulla of Vater

    • E. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

  • 393. 
    What structure is at the angle of the liver lobule?
    • A. 

      Lobule

    • B. 

      Portal triad

    • C. 

      Central vein

    • D. 

      Hepatocyte

    • E. 

      Sinusoids

  • 394. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
    • A. 

      Cholecystokinin production

    • B. 

      Bile production

    • C. 

      Detoxification

    • D. 

      Albumin production

    • E. 

      Synthesis of clotting factors

  • 395. 
    What cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Gamma cells

  • 396. 
    What are the connection between the cystic duct and liver?
    • A. 

      Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

    • B. 

      Ducts of Luschka

    • C. 

      Duct of Wirsung

    • D. 

      Ampulla of Vater

    • E. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

  • 397. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
    • A. 

      Conversion of glucose into glycogen

    • B. 

      Storage of glycogen

    • C. 

      Storage of bile

    • D. 

      Storage of fat soluble vitamins

    • E. 

      Cholesterol synthesis

  • 398. 
    What cells of the pancreas secrete pancreatic polypeptide?
    • A. 

      Islets of Langerhans

    • B. 

      Alpha cells

    • C. 

      Beta cells

    • D. 

      Delta cells

    • E. 

      Gamma cells

  • 399. 
    What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called?
    • A. 

      Schwann cells

    • B. 

      Basket cells

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

    • E. 

      Satellite cells

  • 400. 
    Which of the following is an element of the peripheral nervous system?
    • A. 

      Receptors

    • B. 

      Brachial plexus

    • C. 

      Ganglia

    • D. 

      Sciatic nerve

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 401. 
    What are most neurons in the body?
    • A. 

      Unipolar

    • B. 

      Pseudounipolar

    • C. 

      Bipolar

    • D. 

      Multipolar

    • E. 

      Unipolar and Pseudounipolar

  • 402. 
    What is the cell body of a neuron called?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Perikaryon

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 403. 
    Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Histiocyte

    • C. 

      Dust cell

    • D. 

      Langerhans cell

    • E. 

      Microglia

  • 404. 
    Which type of neuron is multipolar?
    • A. 

      Motor neurons

    • B. 

      Interneurons

    • C. 

      Sensory neurons

    • D. 

      Motor neurons and Interneurons

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 405. 
    What provides tensile strength to a neuron?
    • A. 

      Meninges

    • B. 

      Myelinated nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Neurofilaments

  • 406. 
    Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachnoid

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Dura mater and Arachnoid

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 407. 
    What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum  called?
    • A. 

      Tracts

    • B. 

      Islets

    • C. 

      Soma

    • D. 

      Cortex

    • E. 

      Nuclei

  • 408. 
    Which of the following is involved in the blood brain barrier?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 409. 
    Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
    • A. 

      Schwann cells

    • B. 

      Basket cells

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

    • E. 

      Satellite cells

  • 410. 
    Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Receptors

    • B. 

      Brachial plexus

    • C. 

      Sciatic nerve

    • D. 

      Ganglia

    • E. 

      Spinal cord

  • 411. 
    What are motor neurons?
    • A. 

      Unipolar

    • B. 

      Pseudounipolar

    • C. 

      Bipolar

    • D. 

      Multipolar

    • E. 

      Unipolar and Pseudounipolar

  • 412. 
    What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Perikaryon

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 413. 
    What is tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle?
    • A. 

      Perimysium

    • B. 

      Periosteum

    • C. 

      Perichondrium

    • D. 

      Perineurium

    • E. 

      Endosteum

  • 414. 
    The colloquialism "gray matter" refers to somebody using his intellect or reasoning ability. In reality, what is gray matter?
    • A. 

      Meninges

    • B. 

      Myelinated nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Neurofilaments

  • 415. 
    Where is the cerebrospinal fluid?
    • A. 

      Between the dura mater and bone

    • B. 

      Subdural space

    • C. 

      Subarachnoid space

    • D. 

      Between the pia mater and brain

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 416. 
    Which of the following are considered to be part of the meninges?
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachnoid

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Dura mater and Pia mater

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 417. 
    What is the outer gray matter of the brain called?
    • A. 

      Tracts

    • B. 

      Islets

    • C. 

      Soma

    • D. 

      Cortex

    • E. 

      Nuclei

  • 418. 
    Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 419. 
    Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia?
    • A. 

      Schwann cells

    • B. 

      Basket cells

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

    • E. 

      Satellite cells

  • 420. 
    Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Receptors

    • B. 

      Brachial plexus

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Ganglia

    • E. 

      Sciatic nerve

  • 421. 
    What are interneurons?
    • A. 

      Unipolar

    • B. 

      Pseudounipolar

    • C. 

      Bipolar

    • D. 

      Multipolar

    • E. 

      Unipolar and Pseudounipolar

  • 422. 
    Which of the following is supporting cell of the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Perikaryon

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 423. 
    How many neurons are in the body of man?
    • A. 

      10,000 (10 to the 4th)

    • B. 

      10,000,000 (10 to the 7th)

    • C. 

      10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

    • D. 

      10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th)

    • E. 

      10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th)

  • 424. 
    What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath?
    • A. 

      Meninges

    • B. 

      Myelinated nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Neurofilaments

  • 425. 
    What is the dura mater composed of?
    • A. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • B. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • C. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Nervous tissue

  • 426. 
    What is the dura mater composed of?
    • A. 

      Loose irregular connective tissue

    • B. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • C. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

    • D. 

      Simple squamous epithelium

    • E. 

      Nervous tissue

  • 427. 
    Where is gray matter?
    • A. 

      Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum

    • B. 

      Outer surface of the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Inner portion of the spinal cord

    • D. 

      Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum and Outer surface of the spinal cord

    • E. 

      Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum and Inner portion of the spinal cord

  • 428. 
    What surrounds a nerve?
    • A. 

      Neurium

    • B. 

      Perineurium

    • C. 

      Epineurium

    • D. 

      Endoneurium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 429. 
    Which of the following lines the ventricles?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 430. 
    What is a collection of nerve cell bodies outside of the central nervous system called?
    • A. 

      Schwann cells

    • B. 

      Basket cells

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

    • E. 

      Satellite cells

  • 431. 
    What percentage of neurons are interneurons?
    • A. 

      0.1%

    • B. 

      1%

    • C. 

      20%

    • D. 

      80%

    • E. 

      99.9%

  • 432. 
    What are sensory neurons?
    • A. 

      Unipolar

    • B. 

      Pseudounipolar

    • C. 

      Bipolar

    • D. 

      Multipolar

    • E. 

      Unipolar and Pseudounipolar

  • 433. 
    What is the end of an axon called?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Perikaryon

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 434. 
    What is the connective tissue covering around the brain and spinal cord?
    • A. 

      Meninges

    • B. 

      Myelinated nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Neurofilaments

  • 435. 
    Which meninx is made of a dense irregular connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachnoid

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Dura mater and Arachnoid

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 436. 
    What is a group of fibers traveling together?
    • A. 

      Tracts

    • B. 

      Islets

    • C. 

      Soma

    • D. 

      Cortex

    • E. 

      Nuclei

  • 437. 
    Where is white matter?
    • A. 

      Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum

    • B. 

      Outer surface of the spinal cord

    • C. 

      Inner portion of the brain

    • D. 

      Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum and Outer surface of the spinal cord

    • E. 

      Outer surface of the spinal cord and Inner portion of the brain

  • 438. 
    Which of the following forms myelin in the central nervous system?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 439. 
    What is the primary component of myelin?
    • A. 

      Amino acids

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Carbohydrate

    • D. 

      Lipid

    • E. 

      Protein and Carbohydrate

  • 440. 
    Which of the following is found in the cerebellum?
    • A. 

      Schwann cells

    • B. 

      Basket cells

    • C. 

      Ganglion

    • D. 

      Neuroglia

    • E. 

      Satellite cells

  • 441. 
    What are neurons in the retina?
    • A. 

      Unipolar

    • B. 

      Pseudounipolar

    • C. 

      Bipolar

    • D. 

      Multipolar

    • E. 

      Unipolar and Pseudounipolar

  • 442. 
    What are the basophilic clusters of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum seen in neurons called?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Perikaryon

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 443. 
    All of the following are properties of neurons, except:
    • A. 

      High metabolic rate

    • B. 

      Longevity

    • C. 

      Specialized for conduction

    • D. 

      High mitotic rate

    • E. 

      Limited ability for oxygen deprivation

  • 444. 
    Which type of neuron is also called an internuncial neuron?
    • A. 

      Sensory neurons

    • B. 

      Motor neurons

    • C. 

      Interneurons

    • D. 

      Sensory neurons and Motor neurons

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 445. 
    What is white matter?
    • A. 

      Meninges

    • B. 

      Myelinated nerve fibers

    • C. 

      Cell bodies

    • D. 

      Nodes of Ranvier

    • E. 

      Neurofilaments

  • 446. 
    What is another term for the cell body of a neuron?
    • A. 

      Tracts

    • B. 

      Islets

    • C. 

      Soma

    • D. 

      Cortex

    • E. 

      Nuclei

  • 447. 
    What is the covering of a nerve fiber?
    • A. 

      Neurium

    • B. 

      Perineurium

    • C. 

      Epineurium

    • D. 

      Endoneurium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 448. 
    Which of the following is the CNS macrophage?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 449. 
    Which of the following is found in the peripheral nervous system?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 450. 
    What is the cell body of a neuron called?
    • A. 

      Ganglion

    • B. 

      Soma

    • C. 

      Astrocyte

    • D. 

      Nissl

    • E. 

      Terminal bouton

  • 451. 
    Where is the ependyma found?
    • A. 

      Lining ventricles

    • B. 

      Lining spinal canal

    • C. 

      Covering the brain

    • D. 

      Covering the spinal cord

    • E. 

      Lining ventricles and Lining spinal canal

  • 452. 
    Which type of neuron is most abundant?
    • A. 

      Sensory neurons

    • B. 

      Motor neurons

    • C. 

      Interneurons

    • D. 

      Sensory neurons and Motor neurons

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 453. 
    What surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers?
    • A. 

      Neurium

    • B. 

      Perineurium

    • C. 

      Epineurium

    • D. 

      Endoneurium

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 454. 
    Which meninx covers the brain intimately?
    • A. 

      Dura mater

    • B. 

      Arachnoid

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Dura mater and Arachnoid

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 455. 
    Which of the following is the largest neuroglia cell?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 456. 
    Which of the following is NOT considered neuroglia?
    • A. 

      Astrocytes

    • B. 

      Ependymal cells

    • C. 

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D. 

      Microglia

    • E. 

      Schwann cells

  • 457. 
    What is the innervation of an eccrine sweat gland?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic; parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Cholinergic; sympathetic

    • C. 

      Adrenergic; parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Adrenergic; sympathetic

    • E. 

      Cholinergic; motor

  • 458. 
    What is the innervation of an apocrine sweat gland?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic; parasympathetic

    • B. 

      Cholinergic; sympathetic

    • C. 

      Adrenergic; parasympathetic

    • D. 

      Adrenergic; sympathetic

    • E. 

      Cholinergic; motor

  • 459. 
    What is the glomerulus?
    • A. 

      Afferent arteriole

    • B. 

      Efferent arteriole

    • C. 

      Capillary tuft

    • D. 

      Peritubular capillaries

    • E. 

      Vasa recta

  • 460. 
    What is a renal pyramid and its associated cortex referred to?
    • A. 

      Medulla

    • B. 

      Lobe

    • C. 

      Renal columns

    • D. 

      Nephron

    • E. 

      Medullary ray

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