Dental Afis, Cpgs, Dois

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| By Cokokon
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 170
Questions: 15 | Attempts: 170

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Dentistry Quizzes & Trivia

25 Question test/quiz on Dental related items


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    According to AFI 47-101, what Dental Readiness Classification has the highest priority of care?

    • A.

      Class 2

    • B.

      Class 4

    • C.

      Class 3

    Correct Answer
    B. Class 4
    Explanation
    According to AFI 47-101, Class 4 Dental Readiness Classification has the highest priority of care. This classification is given to individuals who require immediate dental treatment due to conditions that cause severe pain, infection, or functional impairment. Class 4 patients have urgent dental needs that must be addressed promptly to prevent further complications or deterioration of oral health.

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  • 2. 

    Members being reassigned to remote or GSU locations where routine dental care is limited, require a dental exam by a dentist, unless at least a periodic dental exam has been completed within how many days of the notification letter?

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 90
    Explanation
    Members who are being reassigned to remote or GSU locations where routine dental care is limited are required to have a dental exam by a dentist. However, this requirement can be waived if they have had a periodic dental exam within 90 days of receiving the notification letter.

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  • 3. 

    When should a Hypertension screening be performed on dental patients?

    • A.

      Dental emergencies

    • B.

      Initial exam

    • C.

      Periodic exam

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Dental emergencies
    B. Initial exam
    C. Periodic exam
    Explanation
    Hypertension screening should be performed on dental patients during dental emergencies, initial exams, and periodic exams. This is important because hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have significant implications for dental treatment. Performing screenings during dental emergencies ensures that any immediate risks associated with hypertension can be identified and managed. Screening during the initial exam helps establish a baseline for the patient's blood pressure and allows for early detection of hypertension. Periodic screenings are important to monitor changes in blood pressure over time and ensure that appropriate measures are taken to address any hypertension-related concerns during dental treatment.

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  • 4. 

     AD members are not allowed to refuse dental treatment?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "AD members are not allowed to refuse dental treatment" is false. AD members, like any other individuals, have the right to refuse dental treatment. It is a personal choice and decision that individuals can make based on their own preferences, beliefs, or circumstances. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 5. 

    When is Orthodontic care provided?

    • A.

      To support medical/dental care of traumatic injuries

    • B.

      When AD member is self conscious and really hates their teeth

    • C.

      To correct a malocclusion that has a direct effect on the members physical health or duty performance

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. To support medical/dental care of traumatic injuries
    C. To correct a malocclusion that has a direct effect on the members physical health or duty performance
    Explanation
    Orthodontic care is provided in two specific situations. Firstly, it is provided to support medical/dental care of traumatic injuries. This means that if a person has suffered an injury to their teeth or jaw, orthodontic care can be provided to help restore their dental health. Secondly, orthodontic care is provided to correct a malocclusion that has a direct effect on the member's physical health or duty performance. This means that if a person has a misalignment of their teeth or jaw that is causing physical health issues or affecting their ability to perform their duties, orthodontic care can be provided to correct the malocclusion.

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  • 6. 

    When do dental providers decide to document informed consent?

    • A.

      Treatment entails risk of death

    • B.

      Treatment entails serious harm to the physical/mental health of patient

    • C.

      Proposed treatment includes unusual procedures

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Treatment entails risk of death
    B. Treatment entails serious harm to the physical/mental health of patient
    C. Proposed treatment includes unusual procedures
    Explanation
    Dental providers decide to document informed consent when the treatment entails a risk of death, when the treatment entails serious harm to the physical/mental health of the patient, and when the proposed treatment includes unusual procedures. Informed consent is necessary in these situations to ensure that the patient is fully aware of the potential risks and benefits of the treatment and can make an informed decision about whether to proceed. This documentation protects both the patient and the dental provider by ensuring that all relevant information has been communicated and understood.

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  • 7. 

    According to AFI 47-101, which periodontal conditions place a patient in Class 3 status?

    • A.

      Periodontal abscess

    • B.

      Active progressive moderate to advanced periodontitis

    • C.

      Acute gingivitis/pericorinits

    • D.

      All apply

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Periodontal abscess
    B. Active progressive moderate to advanced periodontitis
    C. Acute gingivitis/pericorinits
    D. All apply
    Explanation
    According to AFI 47-101, all of the listed periodontal conditions (periodontal abscess, active progressive moderate to advanced periodontitis, acute gingivitis/pericorinits) place a patient in Class 3 status.

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  • 8. 

    Anyone 17 years or younger is considered a minor and a parent or legal guardian must be present in teh dental clinic during treatment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    According to the given statement, anyone who is 17 years or younger is considered a minor. It further states that a parent or legal guardian must be present in the dental clinic during treatment. This implies that the statement is suggesting that the answer is true, indicating that it is necessary for a parent or legal guardian to accompany a minor during dental treatment.

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  • 9. 

    Family members of AD personnel not covered by the TRICARE Family Member Dental Program are authorized care any time they need it.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Only authorized care on a Space Available basis

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  • 10. 

    What does CPA&I stand for and why is it accomplished?

    • A.

      Clinic Practice Association and Implementation Program; ensure maintenance of high quality care/services for all patients see in dental services

    • B.

      Clinical Program Accredidation and Implementation Program; because we have to

    • C.

      Clinical Performance Assessment and Improvement Program; because Dr. Salvaggio said we have to

    • D.

      Clinical Performance Assessment and Improvement Program; to reduce risk-creating incidents/situations and resultant adverse effects on patients and staff

    Correct Answer
    D. Clinical Performance Assessment and Improvement Program; to reduce risk-creating incidents/situations and resultant adverse effects on patients and staff
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Clinical Performance Assessment and Improvement Program; to reduce risk-creating incidents/situations and resultant adverse effects on patients and staff." This answer is chosen because it accurately defines CPA&I as a program that aims to assess and improve clinical performance in order to minimize the occurrence of incidents that pose risks to patients and staff. By implementing this program, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and take necessary measures to enhance the quality of care and minimize adverse effects.

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  • 11. 

    What are the two patient identifiers according to the National Patient Safety Goal #1?

    • A.

      Patients first and last name unless its Smith, Johnson, or Chavez

    • B.

      Patients full name and full SSN

    • C.

      Patients full name and date of birth

    Correct Answer
    C. Patients full name and date of birth
    Explanation
    According to National Patient Safety Goal #1, the two patient identifiers are the patient's full name and date of birth. This ensures accurate identification of the patient and helps prevent medical errors or confusion with other patients who may have similar names. Using the patient's full name reduces the risk of misidentification, and including the date of birth further confirms the patient's identity, especially in cases where there may be multiple patients with the same name.

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  • 12. 

    For Infection and Control Prevention, we use Universal protocols for everyone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Standard precautions will be used. Standard precautions protect health-care personnel and patients from pathogens that can be spread by blood, saliva, or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion.

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  • 13. 

    What does SHARP metrics stand for?

    • A.

      Satisfactory Health And Reports Program

    • B.

      See How Awesome Roots Protrude

    • C.

      Satisfaction, Health, Access to care, Readiness, Productivity

    • D.

      Services, Health, Access, References, Population

    Correct Answer
    C. Satisfaction, Health, Access to care, Readiness, Productivity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Satisfaction, Health, Access to care, Readiness, Productivity. SHARP metrics stands for a set of measures that assess various aspects of healthcare delivery. These metrics include satisfaction of patients, overall health outcomes, access to care, readiness of healthcare facilities, and productivity of healthcare providers.

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  • 14. 

    DECS must be consulted before the property custodian purchases new dental units, chairs, assistant carts, and equipment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because DECS (Department of Education and Child Services) needs to be consulted before the property custodian purchases new dental units, chairs, assistant carts, and equipment. This is likely because DECS has specific guidelines or regulations in place regarding the procurement of such items, and it is important to ensure compliance with these guidelines before making any purchases.

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  • 15. 

    The High Caries Program is?

    • A.

      So overrated!

    • B.

      Not Cool

    • C.

      Very Confusing!

    • D.

      Voluntary for patients but strongly recommended

    Correct Answer
    D. Voluntary for patients but strongly recommended
    Explanation
    The High Caries Program is a dental program that is not mandatory for patients but highly encouraged. It suggests that patients have the option to participate in the program, but it is strongly recommended for them to do so. This implies that the program is considered beneficial and necessary for maintaining good oral health, even though it is not compulsory.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Cokokon
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