Ct Exam Registry Prep

136 Questions  I  By Tkraiger
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Computed Tomography Quizzes & Trivia
Practice test questions that will get you ready for the CT registry

  
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  • 1. 
    The muscles of mastication include all of the following EXCEPT the:
    • A. 

      Temporalis

    • B. 

      Proximal pterygoid

    • C. 

      Masseter

    • D. 

      Lateral pterygoid


  • 2. 
    Which of the following statements concerning CT angiography of the neck is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It is more rapidly performed than conventional angiography

    • B. 

      It can be used to assess the degree of carotid artery stenosis

    • C. 

      It requires hospital admission due to the potential for adverse events during the procedure

    • D. 

      It requires proper timing to avoid overlapping contrast enhancement of the jugular vein


  • 3. 
    The gantry angle for a sinus cavity CT scan should be:
    • A. 

      Parallel to the roof of the hard palate

    • B. 

      Sagittal to the roof of the hard palate

    • C. 

      Parallel to the floor of the orbit

    • D. 

      Parallel to the roof of the orbit


  • 4. 
    Which one of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Neural Lobe

    • C. 

      Parietal Lobe

    • D. 

      Temporal Lobe


  • 5. 
    Which superficial anterior muscle of the neck is known as the "muscle of facial expression"?
    • A. 

      Masseter

    • B. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C. 

      Medial pterygoid

    • D. 

      Platysma


  • 6. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the temporomandibular joint?
    • A. 

      It is difficult to scan using CT

    • B. 

      It controls both the hing and grinding movements of the mandible

    • C. 

      The joint is most stable when the mouth is open

    • D. 

      The joint is a bicondylar articulation


  • 7. 
    Which one of the following statements regarding the petrous pyramids is FALSE?
    • A. 

      It contains the middle and inner ear structures

    • B. 

      It extends medially beyond the sphenoid bones

    • C. 

      Its end forms the antrum of the eustachian tubule

    • D. 

      Its upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa


  • 8. 
    Scan coverage for a temporal bone scan should cover the:
    • A. 

      Mid mastoids to below the petrous ridge

    • B. 

      Mid mastoids to above the petrous ridge

    • C. 

      Petrous ridge alone

    • D. 

      Mid mastoid alone


  • 9. 
    The portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum is known as the :
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Falx cerebri

    • C. 

      Falx cerebelli

    • D. 

      Tentorium cerebelli


  • 10. 
    The posterior margin of the posterior neck muscle triangle is formed by the_______ muscle.
    • A. 

      Trapezius

    • B. 

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • C. 

      Temporalis

    • D. 

      Deltoid


  • 11. 
    The accumulation of gas between the verterbral disks is known as:
    • A. 

      Vaccum phenomenon

    • B. 

      Air trapping

    • C. 

      Cervicopneumatic compression syndrome

    • D. 

      Idiopathic compression neuropathy


  • 12. 
    The appropriate DFOV in CT scans of the elbow is approximately _____cm.
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      18


  • 13. 
    The best quality CT images of the sternum are reformatted in the __________planes.
    • A. 

      Coronal and sagittal

    • B. 

      Coronal and axial

    • C. 

      Coronal only

    • D. 

      Sagittal only


  • 14. 
    A CT scan of the cervical spine should extend from the:
    • A. 

      Axis to T1

    • B. 

      Base of the atlas to C7

    • C. 

      Craniocervical junction to T1

    • D. 

      C3 to T1


  • 15. 
    Which one of the following scapular projections is best described as a flat process that forms the highest point of the scapula?
    • A. 

      Scapular spine

    • B. 

      Acromion

    • C. 

      Glenoid process

    • D. 

      Coracoid process


  • 16. 
    Attachment of the vertebral column to the pelvis is provided by the:
    • A. 

      Symphysis pubis

    • B. 

      Sacroiliac joints

    • C. 

      Fifth lumbar vertebra (L5)

    • D. 

      Coccyx


  • 17. 
    CT scanning of the thoracic spine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT to:
    • A. 

      Rule out compression fracture

    • B. 

      Diagnose disc herniation

    • C. 

      Diagnose congential malformations

    • D. 

      Determine the presence of fibrotic scar tissue


  • 18. 
    CTA may require LOCM injection rats as high as ______mL/sec.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7.5


  • 19. 
    If iodinated contrast is used in scans of the humerus and forearm, the appropriate scan delay time is _______sec.
    • A. 

      10 to 20

    • B. 

      20-30

    • C. 

      30-40

    • D. 

      45


  • 20. 
    In addition to having the patient raise the arms above the head, technologists can minimize scan artifacts in musculoskeletal CT imaging by:
    • A. 

      Reducing the normal LOCM dose by one-third

    • B. 

      Using both bone and soft tissue reconstruction algorithms

    • C. 

      Optimizing the DFOV to include only region of interest

    • D. 

      Placing the patient in the decubitus position


  • 21. 
    Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the time required:
    • A. 

      To increase the platelet count by 5%

    • B. 

      To manufacture prothrombin

    • C. 

      To lyse an established clot

    • D. 

      For clot formation in normal plasma


  • 22. 
    It is inappropriate for a technologist to ask a patient about which ONE of the following:
    • A. 

      The start of their last menstual period

    • B. 

      Any information already provided by the referring physician

    • C. 

      HIV status

    • D. 

      History of reaction of contrast


  • 23. 
    A needle with plastic projections on either side that aid in holding the needle during venipuncture best describes a (an):
    • A. 

      Butterfly needle

    • B. 

      Small guage needle

    • C. 

      Angiocatheter

    • D. 

      Large guage needle


  • 24. 
    Which ONE of the following is an advantage of an angiocatheter over a butterfly needle?
    • A. 

      Comparable safety when performing venipuncture

    • B. 

      A better ability to withstand the force of a power injector

    • C. 

      A lower risk of contrast reaction

    • D. 

      The ability to leave the catheter in the antecubital vein without having to immobilize the arm


  • 25. 
    In order to lower the viscosity of the contrast agent before injection, it should be heated to:
    • A. 

      Room temperature

    • B. 

      5 degrees above room temperature

    • C. 

      Body temperature

    • D. 

      The contrast agent should not be preheated


  • 26. 
    If extravasation of contrast occurs, the technologist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Remove the needle

    • B. 

      Elevate the affected limb

    • C. 

      Maintain pressure on the vein until the bleeding has stopped

    • D. 

      Apply heating pads to the area of extravasation


  • 27. 
    Contrast agents provide superior visibility in an anatomic area due to their ability to absorb:
    • A. 

      X-ray photons

    • B. 

      Infrared radiation

    • C. 

      Ultraviolet radiation

    • D. 

      Gamma radiation


  • 28. 
    A technologist may administer contrast agents, radiopharmaceuticals, or medications:
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Only with another person in the room

    • C. 

      As permitted by state statues and institutional policies

    • D. 

      Whenever they feel comfortable with injection technique


  • 29. 
    The measure of the total number of particles in contrast solution per kilogram of water describes:
    • A. 

      Viscosity

    • B. 

      Osmolality

    • C. 

      Ionicity

    • D. 

      Iodination


  • 30. 
    The correct Hounsfield unit measurement for acute intracranial hemmorhage is:
    • A. 

      5 to 25

    • B. 

      30 to 50

    • C. 

      55 to 75

    • D. 

      100 to 105


  • 31. 
    Which one of the following statements regarding CT scans for air trapping are TRUE?
    • A. 

      Expiratory scans will show an increase in attenuation compared with inspiratory scans

    • B. 

      Expiratory scans are not needed with multidetector CT scanners

    • C. 

      Very thin slice thicknesses are used for diagnosis

    • D. 

      The Housfield Unit number is expected to be very high on the inspiratory scan


  • 32. 
    Methods for reducing streak artifacts in patients undergoing routine chest CT include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Raising both arms above the head

    • B. 

      Crossing both arms across the chest

    • C. 

      Raising one arm above the head

    • D. 

      Increasing the exposure on the scan


  • 33. 
    Uniphasic, biphasic, and exponential decay all describe types of:
    • A. 

      IV contrast injection techniques

    • B. 

      Phase enhancement

    • C. 

      Attenuation coefficients

    • D. 

      Postprocessing techniques


  • 34. 
    The recommended maximum slice thickness for display of CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis is _____mm.
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6-7

    • D. 

      8


  • 35. 
    The apices of the lungs are located at the level of the _____vertebra.
    • A. 

      4th cervical

    • B. 

      1st thoracic

    • C. 

      2nd thoracic

    • D. 

      2 thoracic for the left lung and 3rd thoracic for the right


  • 36. 
    CT plays a limited role in evaluation of the distal esophagus because:
    • A. 

      The tissue at the gastroesophageal junction is covered by a thick muscous lining that absorbs barium

    • B. 

      The surrounding tissues are heavily vascularized, making it difficult to distinguish between the esophagus and the tissues

    • C. 

      This area of the esophagus is difficult to distend with oral contrast agents

    • D. 

      Oral contrast agents cause a high degree of gastroesophageal reflux, making the area difficult to clear of residual stomach contents


  • 37. 
    Gastric tumors most commonly appear on CT as:
    • A. 

      Localized thickening of the gastric wall

    • B. 

      Heavily vascularized areas of the fundus of the stomach

    • C. 

      Dark spots of the gastric wall with poorly demarcated borders

    • D. 

      Distinct areas of "stripe-like" enhancement


  • 38. 
    The technique of ______is best described as capturing cardica CT images using estimates of the patient's RR interval based on initial electrocardiographic recordings of these intervals:
    • A. 

      Multidector gating

    • B. 

      Retrospective triggering

    • C. 

      Prospective gating

    • D. 

      Prospective triggering


  • 39. 
    The area where the trachea bifurcates is called the:
    • A. 

      Bronchus

    • B. 

      Carina

    • C. 

      Hilum

    • D. 

      Pleura


  • 40. 
    Uniform marking of the small intestine with oral contrast agents can be achieved by:
    • A. 

      Drinking 2 ounces of contrast every 4 hours starting 2 days before the CT exam

    • B. 

      Drinking 4 ounces of water for every 8 ounces of contrast

    • C. 

      Drinking the contrast agents steadily over a period of 45-60 minutes before the procedure

    • D. 

      Concomitant use of a medication designed to increase gastric motility


  • 41. 
    The maximum diameter of the patient aperture in the gantry of a CT unit is approximately:
    • A. 

      40 cm

    • B. 

      50 cm

    • C. 

      70 cm

    • D. 

      80 cm


  • 42. 
    X-rays are produced whenever fast moving electrons collide with any form of matter because:
    • A. 

      The electron splits into two x-ray photons of equal energy upon impact with the matter

    • B. 

      The electron loses kinetic energy, which is converted into the emission of an x-ray photon

    • C. 

      The moving electron converts the electron it collides with into an x-ray photon

    • D. 

      The electrons multiply upon contact


  • 43. 
    The gantry of a CT scanner is NOT likely to contain:
    • A. 

      The xray tube

    • B. 

      The array processor

    • C. 

      The high-voltage generator

    • D. 

      Slip-ring technology


  • 44. 
    Bremsstrahlung is:
    • A. 

      The predominant form of radiation used in CT scanning

    • B. 

      Produced when fast-moving electrons that collide with an atom replaces the electrons inside the atom

    • C. 

      A type of artifact produced on CT images

    • D. 

      The name of a man who developed the concept of CT scanning


  • 45. 
    The device in the gantry that measures the intensity of the x-ray beam emanating from the tube is called the:
    • A. 

      Array processor

    • B. 

      Anode

    • C. 

      Photomultiplier tube

    • D. 

      Air-reference detector


  • 46. 
    Collimation in CT scanning does NOT serve which of the following functions?
    • A. 

      Reducing scatter radiation to the patient

    • B. 

      Ensuring a consistent beam width received by the detectors

    • C. 

      Reducing the number of slices needed for a full set of images

    • D. 

      Improving the image resolution


  • 47. 
    Second-generation scanners were associated with the introduction of which of the following developments?
    • A. 

      A fan beam technology

    • B. 

      Large volume imaging

    • C. 

      Slip ring technology

    • D. 

      Paired detectors


  • 48. 
    The major change in CT technology seen with fourth-generation scanners was:
    • A. 

      The use of up to 2000 detectors in a fixed ring

    • B. 

      The introduction of slip-ring technology

    • C. 

      The use of nutating rings

    • D. 

      Translation-rotation


  • 49. 
    KV refers to:
    • A. 

      Tube current

    • B. 

      Tube voltage

    • C. 

      Heat tolerance

    • D. 

      The number of detectors


  • 50. 
    Which of the following statements about slip ring technology is NOT true?
    • A. 

      It is most widely used with third-generation scanners

    • B. 

      It involoves the use of metal brushes against the grooves of a metal alloy cylinder

    • C. 

      It was necessary to the development of spiral/helical scanning

    • D. 

      It requires long cables connecting to a power source outside of the scanning tube


  • 51. 
    Which of the following statements is true about tube current?
    • A. 

      It can be altered by the technologist from the scanner console

    • B. 

      It drives the electron beam to the target material in the cathode

    • C. 

      Changing the current alters filament temperature to slow the speed of the electron beam

    • D. 

      Tube current has a normal level of 120 kV


  • 52. 
    In an electron beam CT (EBCT) scanner, the type of radiation used to produce the image is:
    • A. 

      Scatter radiation

    • B. 

      A fixed x-ray beam

    • C. 

      A mixed beam of electrons and x-rays a fixed electron beam

    • D. 

      A fixed electron beam


  • 53. 
    Which of the following artifacts is also referred to as the cupping artifact?
    • A. 

      Motion artifact

    • B. 

      Beam hardening artifact

    • C. 

      Aliasing artifact

    • D. 

      Edge-gradient effect


  • 54. 
    Spiral/helical CT:
    • A. 

      Takes much longer than conventional CT scanning

    • B. 

      Requires a great deal of power to operate

    • C. 

      Collects data by starting and stopping the scanner each time the table moves an increment

    • D. 

      Involves continuous scanning around the patient and table


  • 55. 
    The preferred type of external storage devices used on CT scanning computers is:
    • A. 

      Magnetic optical disk (MOD)

    • B. 

      Digital audiotape (DAT)

    • C. 

      CRT

    • D. 

      Mylar tape


  • 56. 
    The function of the detector is to:
    • A. 

      Amplify the measured signal

    • B. 

      Define the signal beam intensity

    • C. 

      Measure attenuated x-rays and convert them to digital signals

    • D. 

      Reduce scatter radiation


  • 57. 
    The image grid on a computer screen is made up of tiny regions called:
    • A. 

      Voxels

    • B. 

      Pixels

    • C. 

      CRT's

    • D. 

      The matrix


  • 58. 
    Which of the following terms is used to describe the effectiveness with which the detectors gather the photons transmitted from the patient?
    • A. 

      Absorption efficiency

    • B. 

      Response time

    • C. 

      Capture efficiency

    • D. 

      Dynamic range


  • 59. 
    The term "noise" in CT imaging refers to:
    • A. 

      Deviations in the consistency of the image grid

    • B. 

      The sound of the high-voltage generator during the scanning process

    • C. 

      Multiple objects in the same SFOV

    • D. 

      The inability of the scanner to function


  • 60. 
    Which of the following statements about solid state generators is NOT true?
    • A. 

      Most are composed of scintillation crystals set near a photomultiplier tube

    • B. 

      They produce energy in the form of a flash of light

    • C. 

      Soluble crystals prevent tight spacing of the plates

    • D. 

      They are most useful in high-speed scanning


  • 61. 
    In abdominal and pelvic CT imaging, IV contrast provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Visualizing the layers of the peritoneal membrane

    • B. 

      Increasing the attentuation of pelvic blood vessels

    • C. 

      Assessing the vascularity of tumors

    • D. 

      Increasing the attenuation of solid organs


  • 62. 
    In a patient with an abdominal mass, CT scanning is used for all of the following EXCEPT?
    • A. 

      Differentiating tumors from cystic abnormalities

    • B. 

      Staging tumors

    • C. 

      Visualizing cyotologic markers

    • D. 

      Determining if the tumor has invaded adjacent organs or tissues


  • 63. 
    A "top-off" dose refers to:
    • A. 

      An effervescent solution used in conjuction with barium to create double contrast in the stomach

    • B. 

      A final cup of oral contrast administered when the patient is laying on the table

    • C. 

      Rectal air immediately before the study

    • D. 

      A final bolus of IV contrast


  • 64. 
    The Agaston score is a measurement of the:
    • A. 

      Percent of the lung affected by emphysema

    • B. 

      Degree of risk for adverse reactions to contrast material

    • C. 

      Total radiation exposure from x-ray/CT/nuclear imaging during a patient's lifetime

    • D. 

      Degree of coronary artery calcification


  • 65. 
    Which of the following statements regarding CTA of the abdomen is FALSE?
    • A. 

      Rate of injection is inversely proportional to contrast enhancement

    • B. 

      CTA plays an important role in identifying vessel dissection

    • C. 

      Stent placement can be evaluated with CTA following surgical blood vessel repair

    • D. 

      The speed of CTA makes it a valuable tool for assessment of trauma patients


  • 66. 
    Common causes of RLQ pain that may mimic appendicitis, but can be ruled out with CT scanning, include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Cecal diverticulitis

    • B. 

      Food poisening

    • C. 

      Crohn's disease

    • D. 

      Pelvic inflammatory disease


  • 67. 
    The CT urogram is a comprehensive protocol designed to detect or rule out all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Tumors

    • B. 

      Renal calculi

    • C. 

      Renal artery stenosis

    • D. 

      Lesions in the ureter


  • 68. 
    Barium should not be used in patients with:
    • A. 

      Diverticulitis

    • B. 

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease

    • C. 

      Gastrointestinal perforation

    • D. 

      Nutcracker esophagus


  • 69. 
    Minimum CT scan times have been reduced from 5 minutes per slice in 1976 to _____seconds per slice in 2004.
    • A. 

      0.375

    • B. 

      0.5

    • C. 

      0.75

    • D. 

      1


  • 70. 
    Slip ring technology made spiral CT a possibility by:
    • A. 

      Improved insulating and cooling systems, allowing CT scanners to run at a higher speed and temperature

    • B. 

      Decreasing the amount of radiation per slice

    • C. 

      Allowing the gantry to stop rotating and reverse course while maintaining accurate beam direction

    • D. 

      Allowing the tube and detectors to rotate continuously


  • 71. 
    Factors to consider in choosing a non-ionic, lower-osmolality agent over an ionic, higher-osmolality agent include all of the following except a history of:
    • A. 

      Asthma

    • B. 

      Pregnancy

    • C. 

      Adverse reactions to contrast media

    • D. 

      Cardiac dysfunction


  • 72. 
    The viscosity of a contrast agent refers to:
    • A. 

      The osmolality of any agent

    • B. 

      The concentration of iodine molecules in the solution

    • C. 

      The rate at which the agent can be heated to room temperature

    • D. 

      The amount of friction generated by the molecules


  • 73. 
    The onset of most serious adverse reactions to contrast media occurs ______ post administration
    • A. 

      Within 5 minutes

    • B. 

      Within 15 minutes

    • C. 

      Within 30 minutes

    • D. 

      After 1 hour


  • 74. 
    Which one of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast media?
    • A. 

      They are generally of higher osmolality than nonionic contrast media

    • B. 

      They are generally of lower osmolality than nonionic contrast media

    • C. 

      Their particles are too large to exert ionic effects over prolonged periods of time

    • D. 

      Iodine is generally carried on the cation group


  • 75. 
    Adverse reactions to contrast media include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Dyspnea

    • B. 

      Hypotension

    • C. 

      A feeling of warmth

    • D. 

      Urticaria


  • 76. 
    Signs of anaphylactoid reaction to contrast include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Yellowing of the skin

    • B. 

      Cool, clammy skin

    • C. 

      Throat constriction

    • D. 

      A sense of apprehension


  • 77. 
    Which one of the following is NOT a factor affecting choice of a particular contrast agent?
    • A. 

      An institutional contract with the manufacturer

    • B. 

      Cost

    • C. 

      The use of drip infusion vs power injector

    • D. 

      Radiologist preference


  • 78. 
    Exposure to radiation may affect cells in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Causing genetic damage

    • B. 

      Dying during mitosis

    • C. 

      Failing to divide at the normal rate

    • D. 

      Precipitating apoptosis


  • 79. 
    The late effects of radiation exposure include all of the following EXCEPT development of:
    • A. 

      Cataracts

    • B. 

      Breast cancer

    • C. 

      Thyroid cancer

    • D. 

      Osteoporosis


  • 80. 
    CT scanning exposes the patient to less radiation than a plain x-ray film because:
    • A. 

      It takes less time ot perform the scan

    • B. 

      Contrast agents direct the x-ray beam to specified areas

    • C. 

      The CT beam is less collimated

    • D. 

      The CT beam is more tightly collimated


  • 81. 
    In CT scanning of the wrist, the technologist should employ all of the following techniques EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Use of the smallest possible DFOV

    • B. 

      Construction of images with an overlap

    • C. 

      Use of a wide collimation

    • D. 

      Acquisition of both coronal and sagittal images


  • 82. 
    For the evaluation of herniated dics, CT provides _____________over MRI.
    • A. 

      Superior assessment of spinal cord inflammation

    • B. 

      More accurate determination of the degree of cartilage erosion

    • C. 

      More accurate identification of those who are likely to benefit from surgical repair

    • D. 

      Superior visulization of bony abnormalities related to disc disease


  • 83. 
    IV contrast is used in CT scans of the hip and pelvis to:
    • A. 

      Rule out avascular necrosis

    • B. 

      Assess the vascularity of tumors in the femur

    • C. 

      Allow concomitant mapping of the iliac and femoral vessels

    • D. 

      Determine the total area involved in cases of infection


  • 84. 
    MRI may be of greater value than CT for musculoskeletal imaging of ___.
    • A. 

      Normal bone

    • B. 

      Osteoporotic processes in the lumbar spine

    • C. 

      Ligaments

    • D. 

      The arteries that transverse the cervical spine


  • 85. 
    Proper patient positioning for CT of the knee is feet first and supine, with the feet:
    • A. 

      Flexed

    • B. 

      Pronated

    • C. 

      Supinated

    • D. 

      Internally rotated


  • 86. 
    The bone that transmittes the weight of the body from the distal portions of the tibia and fibula to the foot is called the:
    • A. 

      Talus

    • B. 

      Lateral malleolus

    • C. 

      Medial malleolus

    • D. 

      Superior calcaneus


  • 87. 
    The dorsal tendon group is responsible for:
    • A. 

      Flexing the fingers and wrist

    • B. 

      Extending the fingers and wrist

    • C. 

      Rotating the wrist

    • D. 

      Pronating the wrist


  • 88. 
    The first cervical vertebra (C1) is also known as the:
    • A. 

      Pedestal

    • B. 

      Axis

    • C. 

      Atlas

    • D. 

      Basilar condyle


  • 89. 
    The gelatinous core at the center of an intervertebral disc is called the:
    • A. 

      Nucleus pulposus

    • B. 

      Annulus fibrosis

    • C. 

      Vertebral foramen

    • D. 

      Pedicles


  • 90. 
    THe main supply of blood to the spinal cord is delivered by the:
    • A. 

      Artery of Adamkiewicz

    • B. 

      Aorta, through the basilar artery

    • C. 

      Vertebral artery

    • D. 

      Carotid arteries


  • 91. 
    CT angiography of the brain is indicated in all of the following cases except:
    • A. 

      Cerebral atrophy

    • B. 

      Headache

    • C. 

      Fainting

    • D. 

      Trauma


  • 92. 
    The field of view for an internal auditory canal scan should be:
    • A. 

      23 cm prospectively/10 cm retrospectively

    • B. 

      15 cm prospectively/12 cm retrospectively

    • C. 

      25 cm prospectively/20 cm retrospectively

    • D. 

      23 cm both prospectively and retrospectively


  • 93. 
    What are the most appropriate filming parameters/formats for the subdural area of the brain?
    • A. 

      200/150

    • B. 

      250/50

    • C. 

      83/35

    • D. 

      2000/150


  • 94. 
    In a routine neck scan, a lateral localizer light should be situated:
    • A. 

      Perpendicular to the mid neck

    • B. 

      Perpendicular to the midsagittal plane

    • C. 

      Parallel to the mid neck

    • D. 

      Parallel to the level of the hyoid bone


  • 95. 
    The internal ear contains all of the following structures EXCEPT the:
    • A. 

      Malleus

    • B. 

      Cochlea

    • C. 

      Semicircular canals

    • D. 

      Vestibule


  • 96. 
    THe vertebral arteries directly supply blood to all the following structures except the:
    • A. 

      Occipital lobe

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Frontal lobe

    • D. 

      Brain stem


  • 97. 
    The ________ is/are the smallest of the cranial bones.
    • A. 

      Nasal bones

    • B. 

      Inferior nasal conchae

    • C. 

      Zygomatic bone

    • D. 

      Lacrimal bones


  • 98. 
    THe paired bones of the craniofacial area include all of the following except the _______bones:
    • A. 

      Mandible

    • B. 

      Palatine

    • C. 

      Zygomatic

    • D. 

      Lacrimal


  • 99. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the structures of the temporal bone?
    • A. 

      Petrous pyramid

    • B. 

      Mastoid process

    • C. 

      Mandibular process

    • D. 

      Tragus


  • 100. 
    Which of the following structures is best used as a landmark in CT angiography of the brain?
    • A. 

      Circle of Willis

    • B. 

      Vertebral arteries

    • C. 

      Internal carotid arteries

    • D. 

      External carotid arterties


  • 101. 
    What type of scout scans should be taken prior to performing craniofacial scans?
    • A. 

      Anterior-posterior only

    • B. 

      Lateral only

    • C. 

      Both anterior-posterior and lateral

    • D. 

      Neither anterior=posterior and lateral


  • 102. 
    The field of view for a craniofacial scan should include the:
    • A. 

      Face only

    • B. 

      Entire skull and face

    • C. 

      Orbital and nasal bones only

    • D. 

      Nasal and mandibular bones only


  • 103. 
    What are the proper kVp/mAs settings for a scan of the soft tissues of the neck?
    • A. 

      120-140/200

    • B. 

      120-140/100

    • C. 

      100/200

    • D. 

      120-140/300


  • 104. 
    The ______lobe of the brain is responsible for visual perception.
    • A. 

      Occipital

    • B. 

      Parietal

    • C. 

      Frontal

    • D. 

      Temporal


  • 105. 
    What is an appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for CT angiography of the brain?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      8-15

    • D. 

      15-17


  • 106. 
    The maximum degree of percentage of overlap that most CT scanners will recognize
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      50


  • 107. 
    Which one fo the following cartilages forms the lowest portion of the larynx?
    • A. 

      Cricoid

    • B. 

      Thyroid

    • C. 

      Arytenoid

    • D. 

      Epiglottic


  • 108. 
    Intravenous contrast is recommended for CT scans of the brain in all cases EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Edema

    • B. 

      Headache

    • C. 

      Dementia

    • D. 

      Arteriovenous malformations


  • 109. 
    An appropriate length of scan delay in seconds following contrast injection for orbital scan is:
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      120


  • 110. 
    What is the proper patient positioning for axial CT scans of the orbits?
    • A. 

      Supine, head first, head extended

    • B. 

      Supine, head first neutral position

    • C. 

      Prone, head first, head extended

    • D. 

      Prone, head first, neutral position


  • 111. 
    The extraocular muscles of the orbital muscle cone include all of the following EXCEPT the:
    • A. 

      Superior recti

    • B. 

      Inferior recti

    • C. 

      Lateral obliques

    • D. 

      Inferior obliques


  • 112. 
    A proper IV contrast bolus for a soft-tissue scan of the neck is ___cc at ____cc/sec
    • A. 

      20, 5

    • B. 

      20, 2

    • C. 

      10, 1

    • D. 

      10, 2


  • 113. 
    The basilar artery divides to form the _______arteries
    • A. 

      Anterior cerebral

    • B. 

      Posterior cerebral

    • C. 

      Middle cerebral

    • D. 

      Internal carotid


  • 114. 
    Which one of the following is NOT a structure of the eyeglobe?
    • A. 

      Anterior lens

    • B. 

      Vitreous fluid

    • C. 

      Posterior lens

    • D. 

      Cornea


  • 115. 
    The most appropriate landmark to use for orbital scans is the:
    • A. 

      Orbital meatus

    • B. 

      Inferior orbitocranial plane

    • C. 

      Superior orbitocranial plane

    • D. 

      Maxillary sinus


  • 116. 
    Phonation technique is sometimes employed in what type of CT scan?
    • A. 

      Mandibular

    • B. 

      Tracheal

    • C. 

      Internal auditory canal

    • D. 

      Laryngeal


  • 117. 
    How man cc of contrast is appropriate to deliver for a routine brain scan?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      500


  • 118. 
    For pituitary scans, intravenous contrast should be injected at a rate of ___cc/sec
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5


  • 119. 
    The line that extends from the fold at the corner of the eye to the external hole of the ear is known as the ______line
    • A. 

      Temporomeatal

    • B. 

      Canthomeatal

    • C. 

      Infratemporomeatal

    • D. 

      Orbitomeatal


  • 120. 
    CT scanning of the pituitary gland generally requires:
    • A. 

      Axial images only

    • B. 

      Sagittal images only

    • C. 

      Coronal images only

    • D. 

      Both axial and coronal images


  • 121. 
    The larynx is best visualized with axial slices that are:
    • A. 

      Parallel to the plane of the vocal cords

    • B. 

      Parallel to the plane of the inferior aspect of the mandible

    • C. 

      Parallel to the plane of the sublingual salivary gland

    • D. 

      Parallel to the plane of the thyroid cartilage


  • 122. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the maxillary sinuses?
    • A. 

      They are the largest sinus cavities

    • B. 

      They lie above the roots of the upper teeth

    • C. 

      They drain through the infundibulum

    • D. 

      They lie lateral to but not within the maxillary bones


  • 123. 
    The field of view for pituitary gland scans should be ____cm.
    • A. 

      3-6

    • B. 

      5-10

    • C. 

      10-12

    • D. 

      12-18


  • 124. 
    The ideal kVp/mAs settings for a posterior fossa scan are:
    • A. 

      120-140/200

    • B. 

      120-140/400

    • C. 

      1100/400


  • 125. 
    How many display fields of view are recommended to obtain a complete CT scan of the neck?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      As many as necessary to avoid artifact from dental hardware


  • 126. 
    The most common reason to perform CT scanning of the lumbar spine is to:
    • A. 

      Evaluate disc herniations

    • B. 

      Determine the severity of osteoporosis

    • C. 

      Assess spinal cord injury in traumatic fracture

    • D. 

      Determine the extent of infection


  • 127. 
    The posterior elements of the vertebra are the:
    • A. 

      Pedicles and annulus fibrosis

    • B. 

      Pedicles and laminae

    • C. 

      Laminate and vertebral foramen

    • D. 

      Pedicles and nucleus pulposus


  • 128. 
    The roughened surface on the anterior surface of the tibia that provides an insertion point for the knee cap ligaments is the:
    • A. 

      Tibial plateau

    • B. 

      Tibial tuberosity

    • C. 

      Medial condyle

    • D. 

      Intercondylar eminence


  • 129. 
    The sciatic nerve carries nerve fibers from the vertebral interspaces most prominently at:
    • A. 

      T12-L1

    • B. 

      L1-L5

    • C. 

      L3-L5

    • D. 

      L5-S4


  • 130. 
    The spinal cord originates at the foramen magnum in the skull base and extends approximately to the level of:
    • A. 

      T8

    • B. 

      T12

    • C. 

      L4

    • D. 

      S5


  • 131. 
    The tarsal bones of the foot include all of the following except the:
    • A. 

      Cuboid

    • B. 

      Navicular

    • C. 

      Calcaneus

    • D. 

      Cuneiform


  • 132. 
    To obtain 3D images of the spine, scanning should be conducted using a minimum slice thickness of ___mm and an overlap of ____%.
    • A. 

      2, 50

    • B. 

      1, 50

    • C. 

      3, 30

    • D. 

      2, 30


  • 133. 
    The imaging procedure involving the injection of contrast agents into the spinal canal is:
    • A. 

      Myelography

    • B. 

      Arthrography

    • C. 

      Intrathecal lumbar imaging

    • D. 

      Laminectomy


  • 134. 
    What is the most common indication for CT of the hip?
    • A. 

      Trauma

    • B. 

      Arthitis

    • C. 

      Avascular necrosis

    • D. 

      Infection


  • 135. 
    The primary reason for having the patient extend the arms above the head during a thoracic CT scan is that it
    • A. 

      Provides maximum extension of the spine

    • B. 

      Helps the patient better maintain a breath hold

    • C. 

      Minimizes movement during the scan

    • D. 

      Reduces the risk of artifacts


  • 136. 
    When conducting CT scans of the ankle, the ankles
    • A. 

      Should not be imaged together

    • B. 

      Can be imaged together and different positions chosen for each

    • C. 

      Can be imaged together and the images reconstructed with a wide enough DFOV to include both ankles

    • D. 

      Can be imaged together, but images must be reconstructed separately using the smallest possible DFOV


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