Biology Practice Test (part 3)

50 Questions  I  By Nokee
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Biology Quizzes & Trivia

  
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  • 1. 
    Peas were good organism of choice for Mendel Because
    • A. 

      They cannot self-fertilize

    • B. 

      They cannot cross-fertilize

    • C. 

      He could study one trait at a time

    • D. 

      The traits were difficult to visualize

    • E. 

      All of these are correct


  • 2. 
    The region of the chromosome occupied by a gene is called a ______,
    • A. 

      Phenotype

    • B. 

      Locus

    • C. 

      Spindle fibers

    • D. 

      Centrioles

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 3. 
    If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
    • A. 

      All with inflated pods

    • B. 

      All with constricted pods

    • C. 

      Half with inflated and ¼ with constricted pods

    • D. 

      ¾ with inflated and ¼ with constricted pods

    • E. 

      ¾ with constricted and ¼ with inflated pods


  • 4. 
    According to the Law of Segregation, in an organism with the genotype Aa
    • A. 

      All the gametes will have gene A

    • B. 

      All the gametes will have gene a

    • C. 

      ¼ of the gametes will have A and ¾ will have a

    • D. 

      ¾ of gametes will have A and ¼ will have a

    • E. 

      Half the gametes will have A and half will have a


  • 5. 
    A recessive gene is
    • A. 

      That is expressed as strongly as a dominant allele

    • B. 

      Whose effect is masked by a dominant allele

    • C. 

      That phenotypically appears only in a heterozygote

    • D. 

      That produces no effect when present in the homozygous condition

    • E. 

      That must be lethal in the homozygous condition


  • 6. 
    If we cross two pea plants each heterozygous for yellow seed color genes, the expected ratio of yellow: green among the offspring will be
    • A. 

      25% yellow : 75% green

    • B. 

      50% yellow : 50% green

    • C. 

      100% yellow

    • D. 

      75% yellow : 25% green

    • E. 

      100% green


  • 7. 
    When alleles move into different gametes, this demonstrates
    • A. 

      Dominance

    • B. 

      Independent assortment

    • C. 

      Fertilization

    • D. 

      Crossing-over

    • E. 

      Segregation


  • 8. 
    When Mendel used true-breeding white flowers and true-breeding purple flowers as the parental generation, he obtained which of the following results?
    • A. 

      All the offspring had white flowers

    • B. 

      All the offspring and purple flowers

    • C. 

      ¾ of the flowers produced were purple and ¼ were white

    • D. 

      ¾ of the flowers produced were white and ¼ were purple

    • E. 

      ½ of the flowers produced were white and ½ were purple


  • 9. 
    In humans there are 22 pairs of autosomal and one pair of sex chromosomes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 10. 
    When the expression of a trait is influenced by the action of many genes, the pattern of inheritance is called
    • A. 

      Complete dominance

    • B. 

      Incomplete dominance

    • C. 

      Pleiotrophy

    • D. 

      Discontinuous variation

    • E. 

      Polygenic inheritance


  • 11. 
    In Mendel’s experiments, if the gene for tall (T) plants was incompletely dominant over the genet for short (t) plants, what would be the result of crossing two Tt plants? (similar to the straight, curly, wavy hairs).
    • A. 

      25% tall, 50% intermediate; 25% short

    • B. 

      50% tall, 25% intermediate, 50% short

    • C. 

      25% tall, 25% intermediate, 50% short

    • D. 

      All the offspring would be tall

    • E. 

      All the offspring would be intermediate


  • 12. 
    The genetic makeup of an individual is its
    • A. 

      Phenotype

    • B. 

      Sex cells

    • C. 

      Mutation

    • D. 

      Gene pool

    • E. 

      Genotype


  • 13. 
    All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that is AaBb EXCEPT
    • A. 

      AB

    • B. 

      AB

    • C. 

      Aa

    • D. 

      Ab

    • E. 

      Ab


  • 14. 
    What is the genotype of a dominant individual if some of its offspring show the recessive phenotype?
    • A. 

      DD

    • B. 

      Cannot tell without more information

    • C. 

      Dd

    • D. 

      Dd

    • E. 

      Either DD or Dd


  • 15. 
    Pleiotropy is when 1 gene encodes many traits
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 16. 
    Plasmids are
    • A. 

      Non-circular DNA segments in bacteria

    • B. 

      Made of RNA

    • C. 

      Small self-replicating DNA molecules in bacteria

    • D. 

      Found only in single copies within bacteria

    • E. 

      Necessary in order for bacteria to reproduce


  • 17. 
    Phenotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 18. 
    In biotechnology research, DNA fragments created by restriction enzyme
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 19. 
    In Owl, digestible food gets separated from non-digestible (i.e, feathers, bones, teeth) in
    • A. 

      Ventriculus

    • B. 

      Proventriculus

    • C. 

      Gut

    • D. 

      Mouth

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 20. 
    Which of the following techniques amplifies a specific region of DNA?
    • A. 

      PCR

    • B. 

      Gel electrophoresis

    • C. 

      Use of DNA probes

    • D. 

      DNA profiles

    • E. 

      None of these


  • 21. 
    The polymerase chain reaction includes the following steps EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Denaturation

    • B. 

      Annealing

    • C. 

      Extension

    • D. 

      Retraction

    • E. 

      A & B & C


  • 22. 
    Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they
    • A. 

      Give plasmids antibiotic properties

    • B. 

      Join the cut ends of small DNA molecules

    • C. 

      Can reproduce in bacteria

    • D. 

      Cut DNA at specific locations

    • E. 

      Can separate pieces of DNA and RNA from each other


  • 23. 
    If you wish to develop a procedure for indentifying upregualated & downregulated mRNAs in a disorder what method would be most likely to be useful?
    • A. 

      Carbohydrate analyses

    • B. 

      Single tandem repeats (STRs)

    • C. 

      DNA microarray

    • D. 

      Paper chromatography

    • E. 

      Gene therapy


  • 24. 
    In DNA microarray, a yellow color spot means
    • A. 

      Equal DNA synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared

    • B. 

      Equal carbohydrate synthesis is between the 2 conditions that are being compared

    • C. 

      Equal mRNA synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared

    • D. 

      Equal protein synthesis between the 2 conditions that are being compared

    • E. 

      All of these


  • 25. 
    Which of the following molecular techniques involves “ DNA replication in a tube”?
    • A. 

      Chromatography

    • B. 

      Protein synthesis

    • C. 

      PCR

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      All of these


  • 26. 
    DNA restriction enzymes are
    • A. 

      Carbohydrates

    • B. 

      Lipids

    • C. 

      Nucleic acids

    • D. 

      Proteins

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 27. 
    Transgenic animals are those which express DNA derived from another
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 28. 
    DNA microarray is a technique which allows comparison of the protein patterns between two treatment conditions
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 29. 
    Which of the following is an example of recombinant DNA technology?
    • A. 

      Herbicide resistant corn

    • B. 

      Bt-toxin producing soybean

    • C. 

      Banana vaccine against pathogenic E. coli

    • D. 

      Human insulin produced by bacteria

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 30. 
    There are potential risks in performing recombinant DNA research on plants
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 31. 
    A population is BEST defined as
    • A. 

      All individuals of the same species, located throughout the world

    • B. 

      All individuals of the same species, located in a given region of the world at the same time

    • C. 

      All individuals of all species, located throughout the world

    • D. 

      All individuals of all species, located in a given region of the world

    • E. 

      Those individuals of the same species that have an identical genetic makeup.


  • 32. 
    The gene pool is defined as
    • A. 

      All the alleles that occur in that population

    • B. 

      All the alleles that occur in different populations

    • C. 

      The same of all the heterozygous individuals in the population

    • D. 

      The same of all the homozygous individuals in the population

    • E. 

      All the alleles for a certain trait in a given individual


  • 33. 
    Evolution can be defined as
    • A. 

      A change in the genetic makeup of a population over time

    • B. 

      A change in phenotype of an individual over his or her lifetime

    • C. 

      A change in he genetic makeup of an organism over time

    • D. 

      An individual changing into a beast

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 34. 
    Which of the following discoveries led to the birth of the recombinant DNA technology
    • A. 

      Discovery of the DNA restriction enzymes

    • B. 

      Discovery of the DNA ligase

    • C. 

      Discovery of the plasmids as vehicle for gene transfer

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 35. 
    Which of the following is currently used to produce genetic “fingerprints” of people?
    • A. 

      The number of introns in a chromosome

    • B. 

      The genes responsible for producing the unique fingerprints on a person’s fingers

    • C. 

      Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

    • D. 

      Short tandem repeats (STRs)

    • E. 

      Plasmids


  • 36. 
    How many STRs are present in the following sequence ACGGACGGACGG
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      A & C

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 37. 
    DNA microarray study tells you
    • A. 

      The cause of the disease

    • B. 

      The location of DNA mutations

    • C. 

      Upregulations and downregulations of mRNA molecules

    • D. 

      Whether an evolutionary process occurred

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 38. 
    DNA microarray is a
    • A. 

      Large scale screening

    • B. 

      Gene expression profiling

    • C. 

      Gene cloning method

    • D. 

      A & B

    • E. 

      A & B & C


  • 39. 
    Experts study evolution using which of the following disciplines
    • A. 

      Comparative anatomy

    • B. 

      Biogeography

    • C. 

      Genetics and biochemical analysis

    • D. 

      A & C only

    • E. 

      A & B & C


  • 40. 
    In the chromatography lab you isolated
    • A. 

      Lipids

    • B. 

      Nucleic acids

    • C. 

      Pigments

    • D. 

      Carbohydrates

    • E. 

      All of the above


  • 41. 
    In the chromatography lab, you read the _______ using different wavelengths
    • A. 

      Absorbance

    • B. 

      Reflection

    • C. 

      Deflection

    • D. 

      Refraction

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 42. 
    Darwin and _______ both developed an proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection
    • A. 

      Buffon

    • B. 

      Malthus

    • C. 

      Lamarck

    • D. 

      Wallace

    • E. 

      Hutton


  • 43. 
    Fossils are rocks or sediments that
    • A. 

      Have been shaped by wind or water to resemble lifelike forms

    • B. 

      Have been shaped by people to resemble plants or animals

    • C. 

      Bear the impressions or shapes of preserved organisms

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 44. 
    Which of these conditions was NOT included in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
    • A. 

      Physical appearances of individuals vary in a population

    • B. 

      Reproductive rates of individuals vary in a population

    • C. 

      An individual’s chance of survival and reproduction depends on its characteristics

    • D. 

      Some physical traits are passed from parents to offspring

    • E. 

      Genetic mutations spontaneously arise in the DNA of individuals


  • 45. 
    Which of the following did you find in the owl pellets?
    • A. 

      Hair

    • B. 

      Muscle

    • C. 

      Bone

    • D. 

      Only A & C

    • E. 

      A & B & C


  • 46. 
    Thomas Malthus proposed
    • A. 

      Evolution is an immoral concept

    • B. 

      Fossil is a major evidence for evolution has occurred

    • C. 

      Overpopulation is not good

    • D. 

      Inheritance of acquired characters

    • E. 

      None of the above


  • 47. 
    On the Origin of Species was written
    • A. 

      Poe

    • B. 

      Malthus

    • C. 

      Muller

    • D. 

      Wallace

    • E. 

      Darwin


  • 48. 
    DNA microarray studies need not to be hypothesis-driven
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


  • 49. 
    According to the Aristotle ladder of Nature evolution could
    • A. 

      Occur in bacteria only

    • B. 

      Occur in all living things

    • C. 

      Occur in human species only

    • D. 

      Not occur as the position of each living thing is fixed

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct


  • 50. 
    Wallace proposed that natural selection is a mechanism for evolution of species.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False


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