Biology Practice Test (part 3)

50 Questions  I  By Nokee
Biology Practice Test (part 3)

  
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1.  In humans there are 22 pairs of autosomal and one pair of sex chromosomes
A.
B.
2.  If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3.  DNA microarray is a
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B.
C.
D.
E.
4.  Plasmids are
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B.
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D.
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5.  Fossils are rocks or sediments that
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B.
C.
D.
E.
6.  Thomas Malthus proposed
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7.  DNA microarray is a technique which allows comparison of the protein patterns between two treatment conditions
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B.
8.  Evolution can be defined as
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B.
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D.
E.
9.  A recessive gene is
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B.
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10.  On the Origin of Species was written
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11.  According to the Aristotle ladder of Nature evolution could
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12.  In DNA microarray, a yellow color spot means
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13.  Peas were good organism of choice for Mendel Because
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14.  Which of the following techniques amplifies a specific region of DNA?
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B.
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15.  If we cross two pea plants each heterozygous for yellow seed color genes, the expected ratio of yellow: green among the offspring will be
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B.
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E.
16.  Phenotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism
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B.
17.  Pleiotropy is when 1 gene encodes many traits
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B.
18.  DNA restriction enzymes are
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19.  The genetic makeup of an individual is its
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20.  In biotechnology research, DNA fragments created by restriction enzyme
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B.
21.  The gene pool is defined as
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E.
22.  Experts study evolution using which of the following disciplines
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23.  Wallace proposed that natural selection is a mechanism for evolution of species.
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B.
24.  When Mendel used true-breeding white flowers and true-breeding purple flowers as the parental generation, he obtained which of the following results?
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B.
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E.
25.  When the expression of a trait is influenced by the action of many genes, the pattern of inheritance is called
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E.
26.  How many STRs are present in the following sequence ACGGACGGACGG
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27.  DNA microarray studies need not to be hypothesis-driven
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B.
28.  A population is BEST defined as
A.
B.
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D.
E.
29.  In Mendel’s experiments, if the gene for tall (T) plants was incompletely dominant over the genet for short (t) plants, what would be the result of crossing two Tt plants? (similar to the straight, curly, wavy hairs).
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30.  Which of these conditions was NOT included in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
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31.  Transgenic animals are those which express DNA derived from another
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B.
32.  Which of the following discoveries led to the birth of the recombinant DNA technology
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33.  If you wish to develop a procedure for indentifying upregualated & downregulated mRNAs in a disorder what method would be most likely to be useful?
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34.  The polymerase chain reaction includes the following steps EXCEPT
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35.  The region of the chromosome occupied by a gene is called a ______,
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36.  Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they
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E.
37.  Which of the following did you find in the owl pellets?
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E.
38.  In the chromatography lab you isolated
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39.  There are potential risks in performing recombinant DNA research on plants
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B.
40.  According to the Law of Segregation, in an organism with the genotype Aa
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41.  Which of the following is an example of recombinant DNA technology?
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B.
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D.
E.
42.  What is the genotype of a dominant individual if some of its offspring show the recessive phenotype?
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43.  In Owl, digestible food gets separated from non-digestible (i.e, feathers, bones, teeth) in
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44.  When alleles move into different gametes, this demonstrates
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45.  In the chromatography lab, you read the _______ using different wavelengths
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46.  Which of the following is currently used to produce genetic “fingerprints” of people?
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47.  DNA microarray study tells you
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48.  Darwin and _______ both developed an proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection
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49.  All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that is AaBb EXCEPT
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E.
50.  Which of the following molecular techniques involves “ DNA replication in a tube”?
A.
B.
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D.
E.
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