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Biology Exam 4 Pt. 1

51 Questions
Biology Quizzes & Trivia
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A bacterial cell gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells by a process known as
    • A. 

      Nondisjunction.

    • B. 

      Mitosis.

    • C. 

      Meiosis.

    • D. 

      Fission.

    • E. 

      Fertilization.

  • 2. 
    In order for a prokaryote cell to divide, which of the following must occur?
    • A. 

      A reproductive signal, replication, segregation of DNA and cytokinesis

    • B. 

      DNA replication, crossing over, and segregation of DNA

    • C. 

      DNA replication and segregation of DNA

    • D. 

      Cell growth and cytokinesis

    • E. 

      DNA replication, segregation of DNA, and cytokinesis

  • 3. 
    Bacteria typically have ____, whereas eukaryotes have ____
    • A. 

      One chromosome that is circular; many chromosomes that are linear

    • B. 

      Several chromosomes that are circular; many chromosomes that are linear

    • C. 

      One chromosome that is linear; many chromosomes that are circular

    • D. 

      Two chromosomes that are circular; eight chromosomes that are linear

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 4. 
    Which of the following statements about mitosis is true?
    • A. 

      The chromosome number in the resulting cells is halved.

    • B. 

      DNA replication is completed in prophase.

    • C. 

      Crossing over occurs during prophase.

    • D. 

      Two genetically identical daughter cells are formed.

    • E. 

      It consists of two nuclear divisions.

  • 5. 
    DNA replication occurs
    • A. 

      During both mitosis and meiosis

    • B. 

      Only during mitosis

    • C. 

      Only during meiosis

    • D. 

      During the S phase

    • E. 

      During G2

  • 6. 
    The cells of the intestinal epithelium are continually dividing, replacing dead cells lost from teh surface of the intestinal lining.  If you examined a population of intestinal epithelial cells under the microscope, most of the cells would 
    • A. 

      Be in meiosis.

    • B. 

      Be in mitosis.

    • C. 

      Be in interphase.

    • D. 

      Have condensed chromatin.

    • E. 

      Both b and d

  • 7. 
    A cell cycle consists of 
    • A. 

      Mitosis and meiosis

    • B. 

      G1, the S phase, and G2

    • C. 

      Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

    • D. 

      Interphase and mitosis.

    • E. 

      Meiosis and fertilization.

  • 8. 
    The initiation of the S phase and teh M phase of the cell cycle depends on a pair of biochemicals called ____ and ____.
    • A. 

      Actin; myosin

    • B. 

      Cdk's; cyclin

    • C. 

      Ligand; receptor

    • D. 

      MSH; MSH-receptor

    • E. 

      ATP; ATPase

  • 9. 
    During mitosis and meiosis the chromatin compacts.  Which of teh following processe3s takes place more easily because this compaction?
    • A. 

      The orderly distribution of genetic material to two new nuclei

    • B. 

      Teh replication of the DNA

    • C. 

      Exposing the genetic information on the DNA

    • D. 

      The unwinding of DNA from around the histones

    • E. 

      The disappearance of the nuclear membrane

  • 10. 
    When dividing cells are examined under a light microscope, chromosomes first become visible during
    • A. 

      Interphase.

    • B. 

      The S phase.

    • C. 

      Prophase.

    • D. 

      G1.

    • E. 

      G2.

  • 11. 
    The structures that line up the chromatids on the equatorial plate during metaphase are called
    • A. 

      Asters.

    • B. 

      Polar and kinetochore microtubules

    • C. 

      Centrosomes.

    • D. 

      Centrioles.

    • E. 

      Histones.

  • 12. 
    The microtubules of teh mitotic spindle attach to a specialized structure in the centromere region of each chromosome called the
    • A. 

      Kinetochore.

    • B. 

      Nucleosome.

    • C. 

      Equatorial plate.

    • D. 

      Aster.

    • E. 

      Centrosome.

  • 13. 
    After the centromeres separate during mitosis, the chromatids, now called ____, move toward opposite poles of the spindle.
    • A. 

      Centrosomes

    • B. 

      Kinetochores

    • C. 

      Half-spindles

    • D. 

      Asters

    • E. 

      Daughter chromosomes

  • 14. 
    During mitotic anaphase, chromatids migrate
    • A. 

      From the poles of the cell toward the mtaphase plate.

    • B. 

      From the metaphase plate toward the poles.

    • C. 

      Toward teh nuclear envelope.

    • D. 

      Along with teir sister chromatids toward one pole.

    • E. 

      Along with the other member of the homologous pair toward the metaphase plate.

  • 15. 
    At the milestone that defines metaphase, the chromosomes
    • A. 

      Separate.

    • B. 

      Come together.

    • C. 

      Are at opposite poles.

    • D. 

      Line up at the equatorial plate.

    • E. 

      Cross over.

  • 16. 
    The sizes and shapes of chromosomes can be observed most easily in a cell that is in
    • A. 

      Prophase.

    • B. 

      Metaphase.

    • C. 

      Anaphase.

    • D. 

      Telophase.

    • E. 

      Cytokinesis.

  • 17. 
    At the milestone that defines telophase, the chromosomes
    • A. 

      Separate.

    • B. 

      Come together.

    • C. 

      Are at opposite poles.

    • D. 

      Line up.

    • E. 

      Cross over.

  • 18. 
    Chromosomes "decondense" into diffuse chromatin
    • A. 

      At the end of telophase

    • B. 

      At the beginning of prophase.

    • C. 

      At the end of interphase.

    • D. 

      At the end of metaphase.

    • E. 

      Only in dying cells.

  • 19. 
    In plant cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by the formation of a(n)
    • A. 

      Aster.

    • B. 

      Membrane furrow.

    • C. 

      Equatorial plate.

    • D. 

      Cell plate.

    • E. 

      Spindle.

  • 20. 
    The major drawback of asexual reproduction is that it
    • A. 

      Takes a great deal of time

    • B. 

      Generates variation

    • C. 

      Prevents change.

    • D. 

      Requires cytokinesis.

    • E. 

      Produces a lack of variation among the progeny.

  • 21. 
    A haploid cell is a cell
    • A. 

      In which the genes are arranged haphazardly.

    • B. 

      Containing only one copy of each chromosome.

    • C. 

      That has resulted from the process of mitosis.

    • D. 

      With twice the number of chromosomes

    • E. 

      None of the above.

  • 22. 
    Sexual reproduction increase genetic variability through
    • A. 

      The exchange of genetic information between male and female gaetes during eiosis I.

    • B. 

      The random separation of homologous chromosomes.

    • C. 

      The union of male and female gametes.

    • D. 

      Crossing over, independent assortment,a nd random fertilization

    • E. 

      Random assortment of male and female chromosomes.

  • 23. 
    Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have ten chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a Drosophila gamete have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Ten

    • E. 

      Twenty

  • 24. 
    Each diploid cell of a human female contains ____ of each type of chromosome.
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      A total of 23

    • E. 

      A total of 46

  • 25. 
    Which of the following statements about homologous chromosome pairs is false?
    • A. 

      They come from only one of the individual's parents.

    • B. 

      They usually contain slightly different versions of the same gtenetic information.

    • C. 

      They separate from each other during meiosis I

    • D. 

      They synapse during meiosis I

    • E. 

      Each contains two sister chromatids at the beginning of the meiosis I

  • 26. 
    Human males have ____ sex chromosomes.
    • A. 

      XX

    • B. 

      XY

    • C. 

      XO

    • D. 

      Three types of

    • E. 

      23

  • 27. 
    During meiosis, the sister chromatids separate during
    • A. 

      Anaphase II.

    • B. 

      Anaphase I.

    • C. 

      The S phase.

    • D. 

      Synapsis.

    • E. 

      Telophase II.

  • 28. 
    The processes of synapsis and the formation of chiasmata
    • A. 

      Involve reciprocal exchange of chromosomal sections.

    • B. 

      Involve the recombination of DNA on homologous chromosomes.

    • C. 

      Bring about an increase in genetic variation.

    • D. 

      provide evidence that an exchange of genetic material has occurred.

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 29. 
    The exchange of genetic material between chromatids on homologous chromosomes occurs during
    • A. 

      Interphase.

    • B. 

      Mitosis and meiosis.

    • C. 

      Prophase I.

    • D. 

      Anaphase I.

    • E. 

      Anaphase II.

  • 30. 
    The number of chromosomes is reduced to half during
    • A. 

      Anaphase of mitosis and meiosis.

    • B. 

      Meiosis Ii.

    • C. 

      Meiosis I.

    • D. 

      Fertilization.

    • E. 

      Interphase.

  • 31. 
    Accidents during meiosis that can result in trisomies and monosomies are called
    • A. 

      Nondisjuncitons.

    • B. 

      Inversions.

    • C. 

      Reciprocal translocations.

    • D. 

      Recombinations.

    • E. 

      Acrocentricities.

  • 32. 
    The fact that most monosomies and trisomies are lethal to human embryos illustrates the
    • A. 

      Importance of the orderly distribution of genetic material during meiosis.

    • B. 

      Exchange of genetic information during crossing over.

    • C. 

      Advantage of sexual reproduction to the survival of a population.

    • D. 

      Fact that each chromosome contains a single molecule of DNA.

    • E. 

      Formation of haploid gametes as a result of meiosis.

  • 33. 
    One difference between mitosis and meiosis I is that 
    • A. 

      Homologous chromosome pairs synapse during mitosis.

    • B. 

      Chromosomes do not replicate in the interphase preseding meiosis.

    • C. 

      Homologoous chromosome pairs synapse during meiosis but not during mitosis.

    • D. 

      Spindles composed of microtubules are not required during meiosis.

    • E. 

      Sister chromatids separate during meiosis but not during mitosis.

  • 34. 
    Many chromosome abnormalities (trisomies and menosomies) are not observed in teh human population because
    • A. 

      They are lethal and cause spontaneous abortion of the embryo early in development.

    • B. 

      All trisomies and monosomies are lethal early in childhood.

    • C. 

      Meiosis distributes chromosomes to daughter cells with great precision.

    • D. 

      They are so difficult to count.

    • E. 

      the human meiotic spindle is self-correcting

  • 35. 
    The process of programmed cell death is called 
    • A. 

      Necreosis.

    • B. 

      Lysis.

    • C. 

      Apoptosis.

    • D. 

      Cell displacement.

    • E. 

      Cellular suicide.

  • 36. 
    If two strains of true-breeding plants that have different alleles for a certain character are crossed, their progeny are called
    • A. 

      The P generation

    • B. 

      The F1 generation

    • C. 

      The F2 generation

    • D. 

      F1 crosses.

    • E. 

      F2 progeny

  • 37. 
    Mendel's crossing of spherical-seeded pea plants with wrinkled-seeded pea plants resulted in progeny that all had spherical seeds.  This indicates that the wrinkled-seed trait is
    • A. 

      Codominant.

    • B. 

      Dominant.

    • C. 

      Recessive.

    • D. 

      Both a and b

    • E. 

      Both a and c

  • 38. 
    The physical appearance of a character is called
    • A. 

      The genotype

    • B. 

      The phenotype.

    • C. 

      An allele

    • D. 

      A trait

    • E. 

      A gene.

  • 39. 
    Different forms of a gene are called
    • A. 

      Traits

    • B. 

      Phenotypes

    • C. 

      Genotypes

    • D. 

      Alleles

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 40. 
    The site on the chromosome occupied by a gene is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Allele

    • B. 

      Region

    • C. 

      Locus

    • D. 

      Type

    • E. 

      Phenotype

  • 41. 
    A particular genetic cross in which the individual in question is crossed with an individual known to be homozygous for a recessive trait is referred to as a 
    • A. 

      Parental cross.

    • B. 

      Dihybrid cross.

    • C. 

      Filial generation mating.

    • D. 

      Reciprocal cross.

    • E. 

      Test cross.

  • 42. 
    A pea plant with red flowers is test crossed, and one half of the resulting progeny have red flowers, while the other half has white flowers.  Therefore, the genotype of the test-crossed parent was 
    • A. 

      RR.

    • B. 

      Rr.

    • C. 

      Rr.

    • D. 

      Either RR or Rr.

    • E. 

      This cannot be answered without more information.

  • 43. 
    A dihybrid cross
    • A. 

      Results in a genotypic ration of 2:1.

    • B. 

      Involves genes located on the sex chromosomes.

    • C. 

      Results in offspring of lower quality than that of the parents

    • D. 

      Results in two different phenotypes in the F2 generation

    • E. 

      Is a cross between identical double heterozygotes.

  • 44. 
    Mendel's dihybrid crosses
    • A. 

      Resulted in four different phenotypes.

    • B. 

      Produced recombinant phenotypes.

    • C. 

      Lead to the formation of the law of independent assortment.

    • D. 

      involved genes located on separate chromosomes.

    • E. 

      All of the above.

  • 45. 
    Despite the law of independent assortment, when two loci are on the same chromosome, the phenotypes of the progeny sometimes do not fit the predicted phenotypes due to
    • A. 

      Translocation.

    • B. 

      Inversions.

    • C. 

      Chromatid affinities

    • D. 

      Linkage.

    • E. 

      reciprocal chromosomal exchanges.

  • 46. 
    Genetic mutations are
    • A. 

      Rare

    • B. 

      Stable

    • C. 

      Inherited changes in DNA.

    • D. 

      Random

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 47. 
    If the same allele has two or more phenotypic effects, it is said to be
    • A. 

      Codominant.

    • B. 

      A marker.

    • C. 

      Linked.

    • D. 

      Pleiotropic.

    • E. 

      Hemizygous.

  • 48. 
    How many autosomes do humans have?
    • A. 

      23 pairs

    • B. 

      22 pairs

    • C. 

      1 pair

    • D. 

      45

    • E. 

      16

  • 49. 
    What is the pattern of inheritance for a rare dominant allele?
    • A. 

      Every affected person has an affected parent.

    • B. 

      Unaffected parents can produce children who are affected.

    • C. 

      Unaffected mothers have affected sons and daughters who are carriers.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 50. 
    What fraction of offspring of the cross AaBb x AaBb is homozygous for all the dominant alleles, assuming that they are on different chromosomes?
    • A. 

      1/4

    • B. 

      1/8

    • C. 

      1/16

    • D. 

      1/32

    • E. 

      1/64

  • 51. 
    In pea plants, the gene for yellow seeds, Y, is dominant to the allele for green seeds, y. A plant with green seeds must have the genotype
    • A. 

      YY

    • B. 

      Yy

    • C. 

      Yy

    • D. 

      Both a and b

    • E. 

      All of the above